APPSC Paper I · Welfare Officer Papers II & III · Topic 1
1 APPSC Paper I AP Social & Cultural History and Welfare questions with answers
279 questions from APPSC Paper II Mock 1 with answers and APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
1.3Andhra dynasties to the Qutb Shahis
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Consider the following statements about the Ramappa temple:
I. It was built in 1213 CE.
II. Its presiding deity is Ramalingeswara.
III. It stands on a star-shaped platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct: built in 1213 CE, dedicated to Ramalingeswara, and raised on a star-shaped platform.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Kakatiyas); UNESCO World Heritage List (2021)
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Who is regarded as the pioneer of prehistoric research in Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer A. Robert Bruce Foote
Robert Bruce Foote of the Geological Survey of India is regarded as the pioneer of prehistoric research in Andhra (and India); he explored the Kurnool caves.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, cross-check); standard
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Which Pallava king was known as 'Mamalla'?
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Answer B. Narasimhavarman I
Narasimhavarman I, son of Mahendravarman I, was known as Mamalla.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2, ch. on dynasties (Ikshvakus, Pallavas)
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Consider the following statements about Pedakomati Vema Reddi:
I. He wrote Sangita Chintamani.
II. Srinatha and Vamana Bhatta Bana were in his court.
III. He took the title Karpura Vasantaraya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Pedakomati Vema Reddi (1402-1420) bore the title Sarvajna Chakravarti and wrote Sangita Chintamani and Sahitya Chintamani; Srinatha and Vamana Bhatta Bana were in his court. I and II are true; Karpura Vasantaraya was Kumaragiri Reddi's title.
Source: APPSC topic-wise PYQ compilation (user copy); Telugu AP History Bit Bank (user copy)
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Match the following places with what they are known for in Satavahana history:
List I
a. Kotilingala
b. Jogaltembhi
c. Nanaghat
d. Myakadoni
List II
I. A hoard of Nahapana's coins restruck by Gautamiputra Satakarni
II. Coins bearing the name of Simuka
III. An inscription naming a district called Satavahanihara
IV. Queen Naganika's inscription
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Answer D. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Kotilingala - coins of Simuka; Jogaltembhi - Nahapana's coins restruck by Gautamiputra; Nanaghat - Naganika's inscription; Myakadoni (Bellary) - inscription naming Satavahanihara. Code: a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, cross-check)
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Assertion (A): Vidyanatha's Sanskrit work on poetics bears the name of Prataparudra.
Reason (R): The verses used in it as examples praise the Kakatiya king Prataparudra.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: the illustrative verses eulogise Prataparudra, hence the name Prataparudra Yasobhushanam.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies (2020 ed.), ch.12 The Kakatiyas; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Kakatiyas); standard reference
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The large excavation of Nagarjunakonda in 1954-60, carried out before the valley was flooded, was led by:
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Answer B. R. Subrahmanyam
The 1954-60 salvage excavation at Nagarjunakonda was led by R. Subrahmanyam of the Archaeological Survey of India.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Ikshvakulu / Vishnukundinulu; standard AP history
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Consider the following statements about the Kakatiya period:
I. The village headman was called the Reddi.
II. Officials appointed to collect taxes were called Sunkadhikaris.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: the Reddi was the village headman and Sunkadhikaris collected taxes.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Kakatiyulu
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Which of the following rulers did NOT belong to the Eastern Chalukya line?
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Answer B. Jata Choda Bhima
Jata Choda Bhima was a Telugu Choda chief; the others were Eastern Chalukya rulers.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
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Match List I with List II:
List I (Inscription)
a. Vipparla
b. Kalamalla
c. Aihole
d. Uttaramerur
List II (Dynasty)
I. Chalukyas of Badami
II. Imperial Cholas
III. Renati Cholas
IV. Eastern Chalukyas
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Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Vipparla is Eastern Chalukyan, Kalamalla Renati Chola, Aihole Badami Chalukyan (Pulakesin II), and Uttaramerur Chola.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu; AP SCERT Class 6 Social Sem-2 p.56; AP SCERT Class 7 Social (old 2020) p.114
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Match the Ashtadiggaja poets in List I with their works in List II:
List I
a. Nandi Timmana
b. Dhurjati
c. Ramarajabhushana
d. Madayagari Mallana
List II
I. Vasucharitra
II. Rajasekhara Charitra
III. Parijatapaharanam
IV. Sri Kalahastiswara Mahatyam
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Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Nandi Timmana - Parijatapaharanam; Dhurjati - Sri Kalahastiswara Mahatyam; Ramarajabhushana - Vasucharitra; Madayagari Mallana - Rajasekhara Charitra.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.6 Vijayanagara Empire (p.161)
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Match the guilds (srenis) of the Satavahana period with their occupations:
List I
a. Kolika
b. Kularika
c. Vadhaki
d. Tilapishaka
List II
I. Potters
II. Oil-pressers
III. Weavers
IV. Carpenters
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Answer C. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Kolikas - weavers; Kularikas - potters; Vadhakis - carpenters; Tilapishakas - oil-pressers. Code: a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, cross-check)
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Coins with the figure of a two-masted ship, pointing to Satavahana sea trade, are especially associated with:
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Answer A. Yajnasri Satakarni
Ship-type coins are especially associated with Yajnasri Satakarni; such coins show Andhra's skill in sea trade.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check); AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 (Satavahanas) p.52
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Naganika, the queen of Satakarni I who issued the Nanaghat inscription, was the daughter of:
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Answer D. Maharathi Tranakayiro
Naganika (Nayanika) was the daughter of Maharathi Tranakayiro; the marriage linked the Satavahanas with the powerful Maharathi family.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, cross-check)
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Consider the following statements:
Statement A: Gunadhya's Brihatkatha was written in Paisachi Prakrit.
Statement B: Somadeva's Kathasaritsagara is a Sanskrit work based on the Brihatkatha.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both A and B
Both statements are correct. The Brihatkatha was in Paisachi, and Somadeva's Sanskrit Kathasaritsagara retells its stories.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check); standard
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Consider the following statements about the Chola connection of Vengi:
I. Danarnava was killed by Jata Choda Bhima.
II. Saktivarman I regained Vengi with the help of the Rashtrakutas.
III. Danarnava's sons took refuge at the court of Rajaraja Chola I.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
I and III are correct; Saktivarman I regained Vengi with Chola help, not Rashtrakuta help.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
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NCERT names several stupa sites in the Vengi region of Andhra Pradesh. Which of the following is NOT among them?
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Answer B. Sarnath
Sarnath, near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, is not a Vengi site. NCERT lists Jaggayyapeta, Amaravati, Bhattiprolu, Nagarjunakonda and Goli as stupa sites of Vengi.
Source: NCERT Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art Part I ch.4 p.44
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Arrange the following events in the history of the Amaravati stupa in chronological order:
A. Walter Elliot, commissioner of Guntur, took sculpture panels to Madras.
B. A local raja found the ruins while looking for building stone.
C. H.H. Cole pleaded that ancient sculptures should be preserved where they were found.
D. Colin Mackenzie visited the site and made drawings of the sculptures.
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Answer B. B, D, A, C
The order is B, D, A, C: a local raja found the ruins in 1796; Colin Mackenzie visited some years later; Walter Elliot took panels to Madras in 1854; H.H. Cole later pleaded for preservation in situ.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.4 pp.112-113
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Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer C. Talari – Village headman
The Talari was the village policeman (watchman); the village headman was the Reddi.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Kakatiyulu
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Which of the following was NOT a feature of the Neolithic (New Stone Age) way of life as described in the AP SCERT textbook?
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Answer D. Ploughing with iron ploughshares
Iron ploughshares were not part of Neolithic life; iron came only in the Iron Age. AP SCERT describes ground stone axes, mortars and pestles, and earthen pots as Neolithic features.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.5 p.128
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Consider the following statements about Gautamiputra Satakarni, as described in NCERT:
Statement A: He claimed to have prevented intermarriage among members of the four varnas.
Statement B: He described himself as a destroyer of the pride of the Brahmanas.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer A. A only
Only Statement A is correct. NCERT notes that Gautamiputra Satakarni claimed to prevent intermarriage among the four varnas and called himself a unique Brahmana (eka bamhana) and a destroyer of the pride of the Kshatriyas, not of the Brahmanas.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.3 p.77
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Consider the following statements:
I. Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah I died in 1748, and a succession struggle followed in Hyderabad.
II. Dupleix helped Muzaffar Jung become Nizam, and in return the French received territories that included the town of Machilipatnam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Nizam-ul-Mulk died in 1748; in the succession struggle the French backed Muzaffar Jung, and Dupleix helped him become Nizam; in return the French received territories near Pondicherry and the town of Machilipatnam. Both statements are true.
Source: PW Modern India (ref) p.13; AP SCERT Class 7 (old 2020 ed.) p.133
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Who is called the 'Adikavi' (first poet) of Telugu?
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Answer C. Nannaya
Nannaya is honoured as the Adikavi of Telugu.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
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Match List I with List II:
List I (Pancharama)
a. Amararama
b. Ksheerarama
c. Somarama
d. Kumararama
List II (Place)
I. Bhimavaram
II. Samarlakota
III. Palakollu
IV. Amaravati
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Answer B. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Amararama is at Amaravati, Ksheerarama at Palakollu, Somarama at Bhimavaram and Kumararama at Samarlakota.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
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Match the titles in List I with the rulers in List II:
List I
a. Janasraya
b. Vatapikonda
c. Rajasimha
d. Vichitrachitta
List II
I. Narasimhavarman II
II. Madhavavarma
III. Mahendravarman I
IV. Narasimhavarman I
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Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
Janasraya was the Vishnukundin Madhavavarma, Vatapikonda was Narasimhavarman I, Rajasimha was Narasimhavarman II, and Vichitrachitta was Mahendravarman I.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 official key; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Ikshvakulu / Vishnukundinulu; AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2, ch. on dynasties (Ikshvakus, Pallavas); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Ikshvakus / Post-Satavahanas / Post-Chalukyas)
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The Kaluchumbarru grant, made at the request of Chamekamba in favour of a Jain establishment, was issued by
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Answer D. Ammaraja II
Ammaraja II made the Kaluchumbarru grant to a Jain establishment at the request of Chamekamba.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
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Which site in Andhra Pradesh does NCERT list among the sites with fine sculpture of the second century BCE, along with Bharhut and Bodhgaya?
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Answer D. Jaggayyapeta
NCERT lists Jaggayyapeta in Andhra Pradesh among the second-century BCE sculpture sites, with Vidisha, Bharhut, Bodhgaya and Mathura.
Source: NCERT Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art Part I ch.4 p.39
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Arrange the following phases of the prehistory of Andhra in chronological order, earliest first:
A. Neolithic farming settlements
B. Megalithic (Iron Age) burials
C. Palaeolithic hand-axe cultures
D. Mesolithic microlith cultures
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Answer B. C, D, A, B
The correct order is C, D, A, B: Palaeolithic, then Mesolithic, then Neolithic, and finally the Iron Age megaliths of the first millennium BCE.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.5 p.122; NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.2 p.42
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Consider the following statements about the Kakatiya kingdom:
I. Motupalli was developed as a port for foreign trade.
II. The gadyana was a silver coin of the Kakatiyas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only I is correct: Motupalli was the main port for foreign trade; the gadyana was a gold coin.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Kakatiyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Kakatiyulu
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Who assisted Nannaya in rendering the Mahabharata into Telugu?
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Answer D. Narayana Bhatta
Narayana Bhatta helped Nannaya with the Telugu Mahabharata and was rewarded with the village Nandampudi.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
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Many grand temples, such as the Veerabhadra Temple at Lepakshi, were built by rulers of contemporary Andhra Pradesh. What was a major factor that made such constructions possible?
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Answer B. The geography of the Deccan Plateau provided easy access to raw materials like stone locally
The Deccan plateau has abundant local granite and other stone, which made large stone temples such as Lepakshi practical to build.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q2, final key
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The North Indian Plains (Gangetic plains) show very few signs of prehistoric Stone Age life, even though the region is agriculturally rich. In contrast, South India, including Andhra Pradesh, has revealed numerous prehistoric sites. What are the reasons for this contrast?
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Answer C. The Deccan Plateau and regions like Andhra Pradesh had abundant stone resources for making tools.
Stone Age tools needed suitable rock; the Deccan and Andhra have plenty of quartzite and other tool stone, while the alluvial Gangetic plain has almost none, so sites survive mainly in the south.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q3, final key
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In Andhra Pradesh, during the Neolithic-Chalcolithic period, which system of disposing of the dead was in practice?
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Answer D. extended burials
Neolithic-Chalcolithic burials in Andhra (e.g. at sites like Utnur and Nagarjunakonda) were mainly extended inhumations in which the body was laid full length.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q5, final key
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The donation of land to religious and educational institutions was a common practice in ancient India. In this context, which of the following kingdoms was the first to donate land to the Brahmana social class?
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Answer B. Satavahana
The earliest known inscriptional land grants to Brahmanas in India are those of the Satavahanas (e.g. the Naneghat record of the 1st century BCE).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q6, final key
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Which of the following regions was under the control of the Eastern Chalukyas?
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Answer C. Krishna-Godavari Doab
The Eastern Chalukyas ruled from Vengi, the land between the Krishna and Godavari rivers.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q7, final key
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Which ruler of the Eastern Chalukyas took grand royal titles and issued copper-plate records showing that his kingdom grew larger during his rule?
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Answer C. Vijayaditya III
Vijayaditya III (Gunaga Vijayaditya) fought the Rashtrakutas and Gangas, took grand titles such as Tripuramartya Maheswara, and his copper-plate grants record the expansion of Vengi.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q8, final key
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Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Chalukyas of Vengi?
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Answer C. They were defeated and annexed by the Rashtrakutas.
The Vengi Chalukyas began as viceroys of Badami, patronised early Telugu (Nannaya), and ruled c. 624-1070 CE before merging with the Cholas; they were never annexed by the Rashtrakutas.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q9, final key
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In which war was gunpowder used for the first time in India?
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Answer C. Vijayanagara vs Bahmani
Gunpowder artillery is first recorded in India in the Bahmani-Vijayanagara wars of the 14th century (the battle of Mudkal, c. 1367).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q12, final key
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What were the key reasons behind the creation of magnificent Buddhist stupas, caves, chaityas, and viharas during the historical period in South India?
1.Patronage by powerful dynasties like the Satavahanas and Ikshvakus.
2.Geographical aspects of the Deccan Plateau provided easy access to local stone and raw materials.
3.Presence of rivers like Godavari and Krishna and others, supported logistical needs and long worker stays during construction.
4.Bhakti movement leaders funded cave constructions to promote sectarian tolerance.
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Answer B. 1, 2 and 3 only
Royal patronage, local stone and river logistics explain the Buddhist monuments; Bhakti leaders came centuries later.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q36, final key
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Statement: The geography of Andhra Pradesh has shaped its economic landscape in multiple ways:
1.The Eastern Ghats restricted inland trade routes.
2.The Krishna-Godavari deltas supported rice cultivation.
3.The Bay of Bengal coastline enabled maritime commerce.
4.The Rayalaseema region faced water scarcity challenges..
5.Visakhapatnam’s port boosted colonial trade.
Question: Which of these factors most significantly contributed to Andhra Pradesh’s historical economic prosperity?
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Answer B. 2, 3, 5
The rice-growing deltas, the Bay of Bengal coastline and Visakhapatnam port added to prosperity; mountains blocking trade and water scarcity were constraints, not causes.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q37, final key
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Which of the following geographical factors contributed significantly to the establishment and growth of the Vijayanagar Empire?
1.The rocky terrain of Hampi provided natural fortification and aided in defense.
2.Proximity to the Tungabhadra River ensured water supply for agriculture and urban life.
3.The coastal location of Vijayanagar allowed direct trade with the Roman Empire.
4.Availability of granite enabled the construction of grand temples and forts.
5.Godavri belt Gold reservs used for coins making.
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Answer A. 1, 2 and 4 only
Hampi's rocky terrain, the Tungabhadra river and plentiful granite helped Vijayanagara; it was not coastal, and it did not trade with the Roman Empire.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q38, final key
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Which of the following ports were located on the eastern coast during the Satavahana era?
1. Barygaza
2. Gantasala
3. Koddur
4. Masulipatnam
5. Kalyan
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Answer A. 2 and 4
Ghantasala and Masulipatnam (Maisolia) were Satavahana-era ports on the east coast; Barygaza (Bharuch) and Kalyan were on the west coast.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q39, final key
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Which of the following schools and sects of Buddhism are associated with the Satavahana period?
1. Madhyamika
2. Mahayana
3. Theravada
4. Zen
5. Hinayana
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Answer C. 1, 2 and 5
The Madhyamika school (of Acharya Nagarjuna), Mahayana and Hinayana flourished under the Satavahanas; Zen arose later in East Asia.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q41, final key
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Assertion (A): Coins serve as a crucial archeological source to understand the rule of Satavahanas.
Reason (R): The coins of Satakarni depict only religious symbols and no portraits of rulers.
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Answer C. A is true, but R is false
Coins are a key source for the Satavahanas, but R is false: Satavahana coins, such as those of Vasishthiputra Satakarni, carry portraits of the kings.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q48, final key
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DIRECTIONS for the question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): The capital of the Satavahanas, Prathisthanapuram, was located in Western Deccan.
Reason (R): It was strategically chosen to resist foreign invasions and connect the Southern delta with the Western coast.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Pratishthana (Paithan) on the Godavari lay in the western Deccan, and the key accepts that its location linked the eastern delta with western ports and helped defence.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q49, final key
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Assertion (A): Semi-autonomous feudatories such as Bhojas and Maharathis played a major role in the decentralised nature of Satavahana polity.
Reason (R): The central Satavahana government discouraged local leadership and directly administered all areas through royal officers.
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Answer C. A is true, but R is false
Feudatories such as Maharathis and Bhojas gave the Satavahana state its decentralised character, so R, which claims direct rule everywhere, is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q50, final key
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Match The Following
Geographical Feature Historical/Cultural Impact 1. Eastern Ghats A. Sustained agricultural wealth and dynasties 2. Krishna-Godavari Deltas B. Fostered maritime trade with Southeast Asia 3. Bay of Bengal Coastline C. Shaped a resilient folk culture 4. Rayalaseema Region D. Provided natural defence for kingdoms 5. Visakhapatnam Port E. Boosted colonial economy and urban growth Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E
The Eastern Ghats' hills gave kingdoms natural defence; the fertile deltas supported agrarian wealth and dynasties; the coast enabled sea trade with Southeast Asia; dry Rayalaseema bred a resilient folk culture; and Visakhapatnam port drove colonial trade and urban growth.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q55, final key
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Which Palaeolithic site of Andhra Pradesh has given the Paleo-Climatic evidence of three alternating dry and wet cycles?
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Answer C. Nagarjunakonda
Studies of the Palaeolithic deposits in the Nagarjunakonda valley on the Krishna recorded three alternating dry and wet climatic phases. Isampur is in Karnataka and Jwalapuram is known for Toba-ash Middle Palaeolithic finds.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q58, final key
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Which of the following Palaeolithic sites is located in Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer A. Kurnool
The Kurnool caves (Betamcherla area) are well-known Palaeolithic sites in Andhra Pradesh. Bagor is in Rajasthan, Sarai Nahar Rai and the Belan valley are in Uttar Pradesh.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q59, final key
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The earliest surviving land grant recording a grant of land with fiscal exemptions belongs to?
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Answer B. Satvahanas
The earliest epigraphic land grants with fiscal and administrative immunities are Satavahana records (Naneghat and Nasik inscriptions of the 1st-2nd century CE), well before the Gupta copper-plate grants.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q60, final key
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Which of the following dynasty is identified with the Andhras as mentioned in Puranas?
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Answer B. Satvahanas
The Puranas list the Satavahanas as the Andhras or Andhra-bhrityas, which is why the dynasty is linked with the Andhra people.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q61, final key
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Which of the following inscription mentioned the Satakarni I as Lord of Dakshinapath?
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Answer C. Naganika Inscription
The Naneghat inscription of queen Naganika, wife of Satakarni I, records his Vedic sacrifices and calls him Dakshinapathapati, lord of the south.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q62, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. Satvahanas and Ikshavakus dynasties donated generously to Hindu Temples as well as Buddhist Monks.
2. Both the kingdoms also claim the performance of Shrauta sacrifice.
3. Satvahanas only donated to Hindu Temples.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer C. 1 and 2
Both dynasties patronised Brahmanical religion and Buddhism alike, and both claim Vedic Shrauta sacrifices (Satakarni I at Naneghat, Chamtamula I among the Ikshvakus). Statement 3 contradicts statement 1 and is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q63, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. Nagarjunakonda Inscription records gift made by Ikshavakus to Hindu Temples and Buddhist Monks.
2. There was a trend of royal women donating to Buddhists while men patronizing Hindus among Ikshavakus.
3. Royal women of Ikshavakus did not take part in any kind of donations
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer C. 1 and 2
Nagarjunakonda inscriptions record Ikshvaku gifts to both temples and Buddhist monasteries. Ikshvaku kings performed Vedic rites while royal women such as Chamtisri were the main donors to Buddhist establishments, so statement 3 is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q64, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. Satavahana Kingdom was founded by Simuka.
2. Satavahanas claimed Buddhist descent and promoted Buddhist tradition.
3. Satavahanas were involved in prolonged conflict with Shakas over control of premier ports.
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Answer C. 1 and 3 only
Simuka founded the Satavahana line. The Satavahanas claimed Brahmana status (Gautamiputra is called ekabrahmana), not Buddhist descent, though they did patronise Buddhism. They fought the Shaka Kshatrapas for long over western Deccan ports like Bharuch and Sopara.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q65, final key
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The author of Brihadkatha, Gunadhya was a scholar in the court of the Satavahana king?
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Answer D. Hala
Tradition (Kathasaritsagara) places Gunadhya, author of the Paishachi Brihatkatha, in the court of king Hala, who himself compiled the Prakrit Gathasaptashati.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q66, final key
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The Katantara grammar was written by?
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Answer C. Sarvavarman
Sarvavarman wrote the Katantra, a short Sanskrit grammar, reportedly to teach a Satavahana king Sanskrit quickly; Gunadhya, his court rival, wrote the Brihatkatha.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q67, final key
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The Pancharama Kshetras refers to?
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Answer C. Five ancient temples dedicated to Lord Shiva
The Pancharamas are five Shiva temples in Andhra Pradesh: Amararamam (Amaravati), Draksharamam, Somaramam (Bhimavaram), Ksheeraramam (Palakollu) and Kumararamam (Samalkota).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q68, final key
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The following given statements contain an assertion followed by a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the given options
Assertion(A): Mirchchhakatika is a dramatic play wriiten by Sudraka in Sanskrit Language.
Reason (R): The Plots in this play are generally derived from two epics Ramayana and Mahabharata.
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Answer C. A is True but R is False
Mrichchhakatika (The Little Clay Cart) is a Sanskrit play attributed to Sudraka. Its plot is an original social drama about Charudatta and Vasantasena, not drawn from the epics, so R is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q69, final key
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Who among the following is considered the founder of the Golconda dynasty?
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Answer D. Quli Qutub Shah
Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk, a Bahmani governor of Telangana, declared independence in 1518 and founded the Qutb Shahi dynasty of Golconda.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q71, final key
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Arrange the following Reddi rulers in chronological order of their rule.
a. Prolaya Vema
b. Anavema
c. Anavotu Vema
d. Komaragiri
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Answer B. a, c, b, d
The Kondavidu Reddis ruled in this order: Prolaya Vema (founder, c.1325), his son Anavota (Anapota) Reddi, his brother Anavema Reddi, then Kumaragiri Reddi (c.1386).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q72, final key
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The following statements contains an assertion followed by a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the given below options.
Assertion(A): Utnur site has shown the evidence of animal domestication in Andhra Pradesh during Neolithic period
Reason(R): An evidence of wooden enclosure built many times and burning of cow dung repeatedly has been found.
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Answer A. A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A
Utnur (Neolithic ash mound) shows cattle pens: wooden enclosures rebuilt many times and heaps of cow dung burnt repeatedly. That evidence is what proves animal domestication, so R explains A.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q108, final key
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The following statements contain an assertion and a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the given options.
Assertion(A): There is no evidence of tools making out of animal bones in upper paleolithic context in Andhra Pradesh.
Reason(R): One of the cave sites in Kurnool has given evidence of 90 percent tools being made out of animal bones.
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Answer D. A is False but R is True
Upper Palaeolithic bone tools are known from Andhra: the Kurnool caves near Betamcherla (Muchchatla Chintamani Gavi, Billa Surgam) gave a very large share of bone tools. So A is false and R is true.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q110, final key
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Which Buddhist site in the Deccan is most closely linked to Satavahana patronage in Andhra’s cultural history?
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Answer C. Amaravati
The Amaravati stupa grew most under Satavahana patronage; Nagarjunakonda flourished under the Ikshvakus, and Sannati and Kanaganahalli are in Karnataka.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q119, final key
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With whom did Gautamiputra Satakarni enter into a matrimonial alliance?
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Answer C. Rudradaman
The Satavahana-Saka marriage tie was with Rudradaman of the Western Kshatrapas; inscriptions say his daughter married a Satakarni (usually identified as Vasishthiputra Satakarni). Rudradaman is the only fitting option.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q120, final key
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The capital of the Satavahanas was:
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Answer C. Pratishthana
Pratishthana (Paithan) on the Godavari was the Satavahana capital; Dhanyakataka (Amaravati) was a later eastern seat.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q121, final key
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Which queen of the Ikshvaku dynasty is known from inscriptions for building Buddhist monuments?
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Answer D. Camtisiri
Chamtisiri (Camtisiri), sister of Vasishthiputra Chamtamula, is recorded in Nagarjunakonda inscriptions as a donor of Buddhist monuments.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q122, final key
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Which dynasty built stupas, viharas, and temples at Nagarjunakonda, showing support for both Vedic and Buddhist traditions?
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Answer C. Ikshvakus
The Ikshvakus of Vijayapuri (Nagarjunakonda) had kings who performed Vedic rites while queens patronised Buddhist stupas and viharas.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q123, final key
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Which language was predominantly used in Satavahana inscriptions?
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Answer C. Maharashtri Prakrit
Satavahana inscriptions and coins are mostly in Prakrit (Maharashtri Prakrit) in Brahmi script.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q124, final key
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Who among the following commissioned the construction of a Mahachaitya at Nagarjunakonda during the Ikshvaku period?
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Answer B. Santisiri
Ayaka-pillar inscriptions at Nagarjunakonda credit Ikshvaku princess Chamtisiri (spelt Santisiri in the options), sister of Vasishthiputra Chamtamula, with the Mahachaitya; the final key gives Santisiri.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q125, final key
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Which river's banks saw the flourishing of Buddhist architectural activity under the Ikshvakus?
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Answer A. Krishna
Nagarjunakonda (Vijayapuri), the Ikshvaku capital, lies on the Krishna river.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q126, final key
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Which kingdom is associated with the Lepakshi temple, famous for its mural paintings and hanging pillars?
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Answer C. Vijayanagara
The Veerabhadra temple at Lepakshi with its hanging pillar and murals was built in the 16th century under the Vijayanagara empire.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q127, final key
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Who commissioned the construction of the 100-pillar temple at Hanumakonda?
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Answer A. Rudradeva
The Thousand Pillar (Rudreswara) temple at Hanumakonda was built by Kakatiya Rudradeva in 1163 CE; the question calls it the 100-pillar temple.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q128, final key
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Assertion (A): The Western Chalukyas claimed Brahmana origin as Haritiputras of the Manavya gotra and built a strong fortress at Vatapi.
Reason (R): Pulakeshin I established the independent power of the Western Chalukya dynasty in the 6th century CE.
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer B. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
The Badami Chalukyas called themselves Haritiputras of the Manavya gotra and fortified Vatapi. Pulakeshin I founded their independent power in 543 CE; that is true but is not why they claimed this lineage.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q142, final key
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Assertion (A): Rudramadevi is regarded as one of the most prominent rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty.
Reason (R): From 1262 CE onwards, inscriptions began referring to Rudramadevi as a king, highlighting her authority and acceptance as a sovereign ruler.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
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Answer A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Rudramadevi is among the greatest Kakatiya rulers, and inscriptions from about 1262 CE style her as a king (Rudradeva Maharaja), showing her sovereign status; the key reads R as explaining A.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q143, final key
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Assertion (A): Amaravati and Nagarjunakonda emerged as prominent stupa-monastery complexes in ancient Andhra.
Reason (R): Both sites were strategically located near urban centres and along important trade and pilgrimage routes, facilitating Buddhist patronage and growth.
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Amaravati and Nagarjunakonda grew into great stupa-monastery complexes because they lay near towns and on trade and pilgrimage routes, which brought donors.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q146, final key
1.4Telugu language & literature
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Statement A: Madayagari Mallana, one of the Ashtadiggajas, wrote a kavya called Rajasekhara Charitramu.
Statement B: Kandukuri Veeresalingam's Rajasekhara Charitramu is a prose novel.
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer C. Both A and B are correct
Both statements are correct. Two different works share the name: Madayagari Mallana's 16th-century kavya and Veeresalingam's 19th-century novel.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.170; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q74
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Consider the following statements:
I. Nannaya translated the Adi and Sabha parvas and a part of the Aranya parva.
II. Andhra Sabda Chintamani, a work on Telugu grammar written in Sanskrit, is attributed to Nannaya.
III. The part of the Aranya parva left by Nannaya was completed by Errana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct. Nannaya translated about two and a half parvas, Andhra Sabda Chintamani is attributed to him, and Errana completed the Aranya parva.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q71; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q59, Q61, Q75)
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Which of the following is NOT a work of Gurajada Apparao?
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Answer D. Malapalli
Malapalli is a novel by Unnava Lakshminarayana; the others are by Gurajada.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q42; Samiksha PYQ book
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Assertion (A): Kandukuri Veeresalingam is called 'Gadya Tikkana'.
Reason (R): Veeresalingam wrote extensively in Telugu prose, including novels and journals.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: the title 'Gadya Tikkana' was given for his prose writings.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.224
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Match List I (poet) with List II (work):
List I
a. Devulapalli Krishna Sastri
b. Gurram Jashuva
c. Sri Sri
d. Rayaprolu Subba Rao
List II
I. Trunakankanam
II. Mahaprasthanam
III. Gabbilam
IV. Krishna Paksham
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Devulapalli wrote Krishna Paksham, Jashuva wrote Gabbilam, Sri Sri wrote Mahaprasthanam and Rayaprolu wrote Trunakankanam.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q42; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu)
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Match List I (title) with List II (poet):
List I
a. Kavi Brahma
b. Prabandha Parameswara
c. Kavi Sarvabhauma
d. Kaviraja Sikhamani
List II
I. Nannechoda
II. Srinatha
III. Errana
IV. Tikkana
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Kavi Brahma is Tikkana, Prabandha Parameswara is Errana, Kavi Sarvabhauma is Srinatha and Kaviraja Sikhamani is Nannechoda.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q41, Q62, Q73)
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Match List I (Ashtadiggaja poet) with List II (work):
List I
a. Madayagari Mallana
b. Ayyalaraju Ramabhadrudu
c. Pingali Surana
d. Allasani Peddana
List II
I. Harikathasaram
II. Raghava Pandaviyamu
III. Ramabhyudayamu
IV. Rajasekhara Charitramu
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Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Madayagari Mallana wrote Rajasekhara Charitramu, Ayyalaraju Ramabhadrudu Ramabhyudayamu, Pingali Surana Raghava Pandaviyamu and Allasani Peddana Harikathasaram.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.168, p.170
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Arrange the following Telugu Jnanpith laureates in the order in which they received the award (earliest first):
I. C. Narayana Reddy
II. Ravuri Bharadwaja
III. Viswanatha Satyanarayana
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Answer B. III, I, II
Viswanatha Satyanarayana (first Telugu laureate), then C. Narayana Reddy (1988), then Ravuri Bharadwaja (2012).
Source: Bharatiya Jnanpith; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q38
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Match List I (work) with List II (author) of works related to the Kakatiyas:
List I
a. Prataparudra Yasobhushanam
b. Nritta Ratnavali
c. Basavapuranamu
d. Kreedabhiramamu
List II
I. Palkuriki Somanatha
II. Vinukonda Vallabharaya
III. Jayapa Senani
IV. Vidyanatha
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Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Vidyanatha wrote Prataparudra Yasobhushanam, Jayapa Senani wrote Nritta Ratnavali, Palkuriki Somanatha wrote Basavapuranamu and Vinukonda Vallabharaya wrote Kreedabhiramamu.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.148
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Match List I (novel) with List II (author):
List I
a. Malapalli
b. Ganapati
c. Maidanam
d. Asamardhuni Jeevayatra
List II
I. Gopichand
II. Gudipati Venkata Chalam
III. Chilakamarthi Lakshmi Narasimham
IV. Unnava Lakshminarayana
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Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Malapalli is by Unnava, Ganapati by Chilakamarthi, Maidanam by Chalam and Asamardhuni Jeevayatra by Gopichand.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu)
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Viswanatha Satyanarayana received the Jnanpith Award for:
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Answer B. Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu
Viswanatha received the Jnanpith Award for Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu; he was the first Telugu writer to receive it.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q38
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Assertion (A): Ketana is called 'Abhinava Dandi'.
Reason (R): Ketana rendered Dandin's Dasakumara Charitra into Telugu.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: Ketana's title comes from his Telugu rendering of Dandin's Dasakumara Charitra.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q37, Q67)
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Statement A: Paravastu Chinnaya Suri wrote Bala Vyakaranamu.
Statement B: Chinnaya Suri's Neeti Chandrika was written in the spoken (vyavaharika) form of Telugu.
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Only A is correct
Only Statement A is correct. Neeti Chandrika is a prose work in classical (granthika) Telugu, not in the spoken form.
Source: Samiksha PYQ book; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q112)
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Arrange the following Telugu novels in chronological order of their writing (earliest first):
I. Malapalli
II. Paakudu Raallu
III. Rajasekhara Charitramu
IV. Veyipadagalu
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Answer A. III, I, IV, II
Rajasekhara Charitramu (19th century), Malapalli (written in 1921-22), Veyipadagalu (1930s) and Paakudu Raallu (later 20th century).
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q74; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q105)
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Which of the following is NOT associated with C.P. Brown?
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Answer D. Writing the novel Rajasekhara Charitramu
Rajasekhara Charitramu was written by Kandukuri Veeresalingam. C.P. Brown compiled a Telugu-English dictionary and collected and translated Vemana's verses.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q5; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q129)
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Match List I (poet) with List II (work):
List I
a. Ketana
b. Marana
c. Manchena
d. Baddena
List II
I. Keyurabahu Charitra
II. Nitisastra Muktavali
III. Dasakumara Charitra
IV. Markandeya Puranamu
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Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Ketana wrote Dasakumara Charitra, Marana wrote Markandeya Puranamu, Manchena wrote Keyurabahu Charitra and Baddena wrote Nitisastra Muktavali.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q48; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (match Q32)
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Statement A: Annamacharya's sankeertanas were mostly in the spoken dialect rather than the classical (grandhika) style.
Statement B: According to Annamacharya Charitramu, Annamacharya composed about 32,000 keertanas on Lord Venkateswara.
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer C. Both A and B are correct
Both statements are correct. Annamacharya used the spoken dialect and is said to have composed 32,000 keertanas on Lord Venkateswara.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies (2020) p.192
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Allasani Peddana, called 'Andhra Kavita Pitamaha', wrote:
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Answer B. Manucharitra
Allasani Peddana wrote Manucharitra (and Harikathasaram).
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.168
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Consider the following statements about Gurajada Apparao:
I. He wrote the play Kanyasulkam.
II. He wrote the poem Purnamma (Puttadi Bomma Purnamma).
III. He was a leading supporter of the classical (granthika) language against spoken Telugu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Gurajada supported the use of spoken Telugu; Kanyasulkam itself is written in spoken Telugu.
Source: Samiksha PYQ book (Q557); standard reference
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Pingali Surana's Raghava Pandaviyamu is notable in Telugu literature because it:
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Answer A. narrates the Ramayana and the Mahabharata at the same time through double meaning
Raghava Pandaviyamu is a dvyarthi kavya: each verse can be read as part of the Ramayana and of the Mahabharata.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.170; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q218)
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Consider the following statements about women writers:
I. Gangadevi, wife of Kumara Kampana, wrote Madhuravijayam.
II. Molla wrote the Ramayanam in Telugu in a simple style.
III. Tallapaka Timmakka wrote Radhika Santvanamu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Radhika Santvanamu was written by Muddupalani; Timmakka wrote Subhadra Kalyanamu.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.172; Sem-2 p.54
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Which of the following was NOT written by Viswanatha Satyanarayana?
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Answer D. Mahaprasthanam
Mahaprasthanam is Sri Sri's work; the others are by Viswanatha Satyanarayana.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q38, Q42; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q101)
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Atukuri Molla, a poetess of the time of Krishnadevaraya, is known for her:
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Answer A. Telugu Ramayanam written in a simple style
Molla wrote the Ramayanam in Telugu in a simple and attractive style.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-2 p.54
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Consider the following statements about the novel Malapalli:
I. It was written by Unnava Lakshminarayana.
II. It was written while the author was in jail during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
III. It was the first novel written in Telugu.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer A. III only
Only statement III is not correct: the first Telugu novel is Veeresalingam's Rajasekhara Charitramu. Statements I and II are true.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q105); APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q74
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Which of the following works is by Korvi Goparaju?
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Answer C. Simhasana Dvatrimsika
Korvi Goparaju wrote Simhasana Dvatrimsika, a collection of tales.
Source: Samiksha PYQ book; standard reference
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Match List I (woman writer) with List II (work):
List I
a. Tallapaka Timmakka
b. Mohanangi
c. Tirumalamba
d. Muddupalani
List II
I. Varadambika Parinayamu
II. Radhika Santvanamu
III. Subhadra Kalyanamu
IV. Marichi Parinayamu
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Timmakka wrote Subhadra Kalyanamu, Mohanangi wrote Marichi Parinayamu, Tirumalamba wrote Varadambika Parinayamu and Muddupalani wrote Radhika Santvanamu.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q15; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q3, Q42)
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Which of the following works is NOT associated with Palkuriki Somanatha?
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Answer D. Kumarasambhavamu
Kumarasambhavamu is Nannechoda's work; the other three are by Palkuriki Somanatha.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.148; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu)
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Match List I (writer) with List II (work recognised by a national literary award):
List I
a. Viswanatha Satyanarayana
b. C. Narayana Reddy
c. Ravuri Bharadwaja
d. Suravaram Pratapa Reddy
List II
I. Andhrula Sanghika Charitra
II. Paakudu Raallu
III. Viswambhara
IV. Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Viswanatha - Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu (Jnanpith), C. Narayana Reddy - Viswambhara (Jnanpith), Ravuri Bharadwaja - Paakudu Raallu (Jnanpith), Suravaram - Andhrula Sanghika Charitra (Sahitya Akademi).
Source: Bharatiya Jnanpith; Sahitya Akademi; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q38
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Which of the following is NOT a work of Srinatha?
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Answer D. Harivamsamu
Harivamsamu was written by Errana; the other three are works of Srinatha.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q2; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q76)
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Match List I (Ashtadiggaja poet) with List II (work):
List I
a. Nandi Timmana
b. Dhurjati
c. Ramaraja Bhushana
d. Tenali Ramakrishna
List II
I. Vasucharitra
II. Panduranga Mahatmyamu
III. Parijatapaharanamu
IV. Sri Kalahastiswara Mahatmyamu
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Nandi Timmana wrote Parijatapaharanamu, Dhurjati wrote Sri Kalahastiswara Mahatmyamu, Ramaraja Bhushana wrote Vasucharitra and Tenali Ramakrishna wrote Panduranga Mahatmyamu.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.170
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Amuktamalyada is a poetic work created by:
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Answer A. Krishna Deva Raya
Amuktamalyada, a Telugu prabandha, was composed by the Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadeva Raya.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q10, final key
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Which prominent Telugu poet, known for completing the Telugu translation of the Mahabharata, was patronised by the Reddy kings?
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Answer C. Yerrapragada (Errana)
Errana (Yerrapragada) completed the Telugu Mahabharata by finishing the Aranya Parva, under the patronage of the Reddy king Prolaya Vema Reddy.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q11, final key
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In Telugu tradition which writer was given the epithet of Vaganushusanundu (Maker of Speech)?
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Answer B. Nannaya Bhattaraka
Nannaya, the 11th-century poet who began the Telugu Andhra Mahabharatam under the Eastern Chalukya king Rajaraja Narendra, is honoured as Vagnusasana (lawgiver of speech) and Adikavi.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q57, final key
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Assertion (A): Nannaya's Mahabharata is regarded as the earliest surviving literary work in the Telugu language.
Reason (R): Nannaya translated the Mahabharata in the 11th century on the request of the Eastern Chalukya king Rajarajanarendra.
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Nannaya's Andhra Mahabharatamu is the earliest surviving Telugu literary work; he wrote it in the 11th century at the request of Eastern Chalukya king Rajaraja Narendra. The key takes R as explaining A.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q144, final key
1.5Colonial rule, reform & the freedom movement in Andhra
- Q111 Paper II Mock 1, Q3
Match the following libraries with their places:
List I
a. Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam
b. Sri Rajaraja Narendra Andhra Bhasha Nilayam
c. Andhra Samvardhini Grandhalayam
d. Gowthami Grandhalayam
List II
I. Rajahmundry
II. Secunderabad
III. Hanamkonda
IV. Hyderabad
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam - Hyderabad (1901); Rajaraja Narendra Andhra Bhasha Nilayam - Hanamkonda (1904); Andhra Samvardhini - Secunderabad (1905); Gowthami Grandhalayam - Rajahmundry (1898).
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); APPSC Group 2 Mains 2025 Paper I (official key); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q112 Paper II Mock 1, Q8
The Andhra Mahila Sabha was established by:
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Answer B. Durgabai Deshmukh
The Andhra Mahila Sabha was established by Durgabai Deshmukh.
Source: Modern India reference book p.140; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q113 Paper II Mock 1, Q13
Match the persons in List I with their roles in the Vandemataram movement in List II:
List I
a. Chilakamarthi Lakshmi Narasimham
b. Gadicherla Harisarvottama Rao
c. Gade Chinnappa Reddy
d. Mutnuri Krishna Rao
List II
I. Sentenced to death for the Kotappakonda incident
II. Composed the verse recited at Pal's Rajahmundry meeting
III. Expelled from the Rajahmundry training college
IV. Organised Bipin Chandra Pal's Andhra tour
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
Chilakamarthi composed the verse (II), Gadicherla was expelled (III), Chinnappa Reddy was sentenced to death for Kotappakonda (I) and Mutnuri organised Pal's tour (IV).
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter
- Q114 Paper II Mock 1, Q18
Consider the following statements about the French in the Northern Circars:
I. Dupleix commanded the French troops at the Battle of Bobbili.
II. Salabat Jang gave four Sarkars to the French in 1753 for the upkeep of Bussy's troops.
III. The French were defeated at Chandurthi in 1758.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II and III only
II and III are correct; the French troops at Bobbili were led by Bussy, not Dupleix.
Source: APPSC PYQ compilation (modern Andhra) and Telugu AP History bit bank, cross-checked
- Q115 Paper II Mock 1, Q23
Match the popular titles in List I with the persons in List II:
List I
a. Andhra Ratna
b. Manyam Veerudu
c. Aggiraju
d. Desabandhavi
List II
I. Duvvuri Subbamma
II. Pericherla Suryanarayana Raju
III. Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya
IV. Alluri Sitarama Raju
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Andhra Ratna - Duggirala; Manyam Veerudu - Alluri Sitarama Raju; Aggiraju - Pericherla Suryanarayana Raju; Desabandhavi - Duvvuri Subbamma.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter Q79, Q143; Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q193, Q414
- Q116 Paper II Mock 1, Q28
Goparaju Ramachandra Rao (Gora) is best known as a leader of the:
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Answer A. Atheist (rationalist) movement
Gora led the atheist movement in Andhra, working against caste and superstition.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Modern India reference book p.90
- Q117 Paper II Mock 1, Q33
Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. Kotappakonda incident
II. Earlier Rampa rebellion in the Godavari Agency
III. Uyyalawada Narasimha Reddy's revolt at Koilkuntla
IV. Raid on Chintapalli police station by Alluri Sitarama Raju
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. III, II, I, IV
Uyyalawada's revolt (1846-47), the earlier Rampa rebellion (1879), Kotappakonda (1909) and the Chintapalli raid (1922).
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q200, Q448; APPSC Group 2 Mains 2025 Paper I official key Q51
- Q118 Paper II Mock 1, Q38
Consider the following statements about the writings of Kandukuri Veeresalingam:
I. Vyavahara Dharmabodhini is a prose play written by him.
II. Sweeya Charitra is his history of Telugu poets.
III. His novel Rajasekhara Charitramu was modelled on The Vicar of Wakefield.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
I and III are correct; Sweeya Charitra is his autobiography, and his history of Telugu poets is Andhra Kavula Charitra.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q119 Paper II Mock 1, Q43
Consider the following statements:
I. The Andhra Mahila Sabha was founded by Sarojini Naidu.
II. Bandaru Achamamba wrote Abala Sacharitra Ratnamala.
III. Unnava Lakshminarayana and Lakshmibayamma founded Sarada Niketan at Guntur.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only I is incorrect: the Andhra Mahila Sabha was founded by Durgabai Deshmukh; II and III are correct.
Source: Modern India reference book p.140; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q120 Paper II Mock 1, Q48
Sarada Niketan, an institution for women's education, was founded at Guntur in 1922 by:
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Answer A. Unnava Lakshminarayana and Unnava Lakshmibayamma
Unnava Lakshminarayana and his wife Lakshmibayamma founded Sarada Niketan at Guntur in 1922.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.224; Modern India reference book p.140
- Q121 Paper II Mock 1, Q53
The Indian Peasants' Institute, founded by N.G. Ranga in 1933 to train peasant workers, was located at:
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Answer D. Nidubrolu
N.G. Ranga set up the Indian Peasants' Institute at Nidubrolu in Guntur district.
Source: Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.108; Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q545; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter Q89
- Q122 Paper II Mock 1, Q58
Match the items in List I with the years in List II:
List I
a. Ryotwari first tried in Baramahal
b. Permanent Settlement in Bengal
c. Mahalwari settlement comes into effect
d. Ryotwari formally adopted in Madras
List II
I. 1820
II. 1792
III. 1793
IV. 1822
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
Baramahal ryotwari began in 1792, the Permanent Settlement in 1793, mahalwari in 1822 and formal ryotwari in Madras in 1820.
Source: Modern India reference, ch.1 Advent of Europeans (cross-check); AP SCERT Class 8 History, Ruling the Countryside, pp.68-70
- Q123 Paper II Mock 1, Q63
Who edited Krishna Patrika from 1907 until his death in 1945?
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Answer C. Mutnuri Krishna Rao
Mutnuri Krishna Rao became editor of Krishna Patrika in 1907 and edited it till he died in 1945.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.135; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q124 Paper II Mock 1, Q68
Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. Kakinada session of the INC
II. AICC meeting at Bezawada attended by Gandhi
III. P. Anandacharlu presides over the INC at Nagpur
IV. Calcutta session approves a separate Andhra Congress circle
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. III, IV, II, I
Nagpur 1891, Calcutta 1917, Bezawada AICC 1921, Kakinada 1923.
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra
- Q125 Paper II Mock 1, Q73
Match the settlements in List I with the European companies in List II:
List I
a. Yanam
b. Bheemunipatnam
c. Armagaon
d. Tranquebar
List II
I. Dutch
II. English
III. Danish
IV. French
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
Yanam was French, Bheemunipatnam Dutch, Armagaon English and Tranquebar Danish.
Source: Modern India reference, ch.1 Advent of Europeans (cross-check); APPSC PYQ compilation (modern Andhra) and Telugu AP History bit bank, cross-checked
- Q126 Paper II Mock 1, Q78
Consider the following statements about the AICC meeting held at Bezawada (Vijayawada) in 1921:
I. It was held in March-April 1921 in the presence of Gandhi.
II. It fixed a target of Rs one crore for the Tilak Swaraj Fund.
III. It called for introducing 20 lakh charkhas.
IV. Gandhi was elected President of the Congress at this meeting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer B. I, II and III only
Statements I, II and III are correct. The Bezawada AICC (31 March-1 April 1921) set targets of Rs one crore, one crore members and 20 lakh charkhas; it did not elect Gandhi as Congress President.
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q508, Q425; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter Q157
- Q127 Paper II Mock 1, Q83
The song 'Maakoddi tella doratanamu', which became very popular during the Non-Cooperation Movement, was written by:
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Answer A. Garimella Satyanarayana
Garimella Satyanarayana wrote 'Maakoddi tella doratanamu' ('We do not want the white man's rule').
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q582
- Q128 Paper II Mock 1, Q88
Which one of the following did NOT take place in the then Guntur district?
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Answer B. Rampa Rebellion
The Rampa Rebellion took place in the Godavari Agency; the other three took place in Guntur district.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) ch.11B National Movement - The Last Phase; Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.102
- Q129 Paper II Mock 1, Q93
Which one of the following statements about Raghupati Venkataratnam Naidu is NOT correct?
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Answer D. He wrote the novel Malapalli.
Malapalli was written by Unnava Lakshminarayana; the other three statements about Raghupati Venkataratnam Naidu are correct.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q130 Paper II Mock 1, Q98
Match the Portuguese figures in List I with the events in List II:
List I
a. Vasco da Gama
b. Francisco de Almeida
c. Afonso de Albuquerque
d. Nino da Cunha
List II
I. Blue Water Policy
II. Capture of Goa (1510)
III. Arrival at Calicut (1498)
IV. Shift of capital from Cochin to Goa (1530)
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
Da Gama reached Calicut in 1498, Almeida followed the Blue Water Policy, Albuquerque took Goa in 1510 and Nino da Cunha moved the capital to Goa in 1530.
Source: Modern India reference, ch.1 Advent of Europeans (cross-check)
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Consider the following statements:
I. Kandukuri Veeresalingam founded the Prarthana Samaj at Rajahmundry in 1878.
II. The first widow remarriage arranged by Veeresalingam took place at Kakinada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct; the first widow remarriage took place at Rajahmundry in 1881, not at Kakinada.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
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Which one of the following pairs (reformer - main centre of work) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Bhagya Reddy Varma - Machilipatnam
Bhagya Reddy Varma worked in Hyderabad State; the other pairs are correct.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.224; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check)
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According to the AP SCERT textbook, under the Madras Estates law for abolishing zamindaris, the total compensation paid to zamindars and inamdars of the Andhra region was:
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Answer B. Rs 15.5 crore
The AP SCERT text records a total compensation of Rs 15.5 crore to zamindars and inamdars in the Andhra region.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (old 2021 ed.), Abolition of Zamindari System, p.187
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Consider the following statements about Tripuraneni Ramaswamy Chowdary:
I. He was given the title 'Brahmarshi'.
II. He wrote Suta Puranam.
III. Through his writings he advocated rationalism and challenged caste discrimination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II and III only
II and III are correct; Tripuraneni's title is 'Kaviraju', while 'Brahmarshi' is Raghupati Venkataratnam Naidu.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains 2025 Paper I (official key); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
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Before the rebellion led by Alluri Sitarama Raju, an earlier Rampa rebellion had broken out in the Godavari Agency in:
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Answer A. 1879
An earlier Rampa rebellion broke out in 1879-80 in the Godavari Agency.
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q200, Q212; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter Q374
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Match the following:
List I
a. Satihitabodhini
b. Anasuya
c. Abala Sacharitra Ratnamala
d. Andhra Mahila Sabha
List II
I. Durgabai Deshmukh
II. Bandaru Achamamba
III. Vinjamuri Venkataratnamma
IV. Kandukuri Veeresalingam
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Satihitabodhini - Veeresalingam; Anasuya - Vinjamuri Venkataratnamma; Abala Sacharitra Ratnamala - Bandaru Achamamba; Andhra Mahila Sabha - Durgabai Deshmukh.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Modern India reference book p.140
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Match the persons in List I with the organisations or cases in List II:
List I
a. Prativadi Bhayankarachari
b. Darsi Chenchaiah
c. N.G. Ranga
d. Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya
List II
I. Ghadar Party
II. Ramadandu
III. Kakinada bomb case
IV. Indian Peasants' Institute
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Bhayankarachari - Kakinada bomb case; Darsi Chenchaiah - Ghadar Party; N.G. Ranga - Indian Peasants' Institute; Duggirala - Ramadandu.
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q408, Q457, Q545; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter Q33
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Consider the following statements about the ryotwari areas, as described in the AP SCERT textbook:
I. Because revenue was paid directly by ryots, no landlords grew up in ryotwari areas.
II. The revenue was fixed for twenty to thirty years and then revised.
III. Ryots who leased out land collected rents far higher than the revenue they paid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. II and III only
II and III are correct; the textbook notes that the ryotwari areas too soon became full of landlords who leased land to tenants at high rents.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (old 2021 ed.), Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam, pp.112-119 (p.116)
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The people of Chirala, protesting against heavy municipal taxes in 1921, moved out of the town and lived in a new settlement called:
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Answer A. Ramnagar
About 15,000 people of Chirala left the town and lived in a new settlement called Ramnagar.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) ch.11B National Movement - The Last Phase; Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q426
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Which one of the following pairs of person and organisation is NOT correctly matched?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Kala Venkata Rao - Ramadandu
Ramadandu was the volunteer corps of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya; Kala Venkata Rao is known for drafting the Kurnool Circular (1942).
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra; Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.65
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Why did the Europeans establish several factories and trading centres in the coastal regions of Andhra Pradesh during the colonial period?
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Answer B. To take advantage of the geographical location of the coastal region for trade via the Bay of Bengal
European companies set up factories on the Andhra coast because its ports on the Bay of Bengal gave easy sea access to the textile-producing hinterland and to Southeast Asian trade.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q1, final key
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In Andhra Pradesh, the English established several factories during the 17th century. Which of the following was the second factory established by the English in the region?
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Answer A. Armagaon
The English set up their first Andhra factory at Masulipatnam (1611) and their second at Armagaon (1626).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q13, final key
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The French came to India after the Dutch and the English. They established their first factory in Masulipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) in which year?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 1669
The French opened their factory at Masulipatnam in 1669, a year after Surat (1668).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q14, final key
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What was a key concern regarding the administration of justice under the Company's rule?
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Answer D. The allegations of corruption and the oppressive conduct of the Company's officials
Under Company rule justice was slow and costly, and officials were widely accused of corruption and oppression.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q16, final key
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Which system of revenue collection was implemented by the British East India Company in the Rayalaseema region?
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Answer D. Ryotwari
Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari system in the Ceded Districts (Rayalaseema), settling revenue directly with the cultivator.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q17, final key
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What is the meaning of the term 'peshcush' in the context of modern Andhra history?
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Answer A. A type of land tax paid by zamindars to the British East India Company
Peshkash was the fixed tribute or land revenue that zamindars and poligars paid to the ruling power, here the East India Company.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q18, final key
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Who among the following Muslim religious leaders called for a Jihad against the British in Kadapa during mosque prayers?
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Answer B. Sheikh Peer Saheb
During 1857, Sheikh Peer Saheb called for jihad against the British during prayers in a mosque at Kadapa.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q19, final key
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What was the main objective of Turabuz Khan’s attack on the British Residency in Secunderabad?
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Answer A. To resist British expansion in the region
Turrebaz Khan led Rohillas against the Hyderabad Residency in July 1857 to resist the British and free Jamedar Cheda Khan.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q20, final key
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A religious sect tried to change the name of Visakhapatnam to Mohammed Patnam during a religious festival. During which period did this incident take place?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1857 Revolt
As per the final key, the attempt to rename Visakhapatnam during a religious festival took place during the 1857 Revolt.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q21, final key
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Who among the following founded the nationalist newspaper Andhra Patrika?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao
Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao founded Andhra Patrika (1908, Bombay; later a daily from Madras).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q22, final key
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The formation of the Balabharathi Samiti was a regional reflection of which national event?
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Answer B. Partition of Bengal
Balabharati Samiti was formed in Andhra during the Swadeshi wave that followed the Partition of Bengal (1905).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q23, final key
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What was the primary inspiration behind the formation of district associations like the Krishna District Association in Andhra?
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Answer B. Formation of the Indian National Congress
After the Indian National Congress was founded in 1885, district associations such as the Krishna District Association (1892) were formed to carry its work locally.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q24, final key
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Who among the following actively supported or helped suppress the 1857 Revolt in Hyderabad?
Selected from the following:
1.Nizam of Hyderabad
2.Salar Jung
3.Sepoys of Residency
4.Turabuz Khan
5.Kurnool Davidson
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1, 2, 5
The Nizam, his minister Salar Jung and Resident Colonel Davidson helped put down the revolt; Turrebaz Khan led the rebels.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q43, final key
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Assertion (A): The Carnatic Wars were fought between the English and the French in India.
Reason (R): These wars were a result of the war of succession among the rulers of Carnatic.
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Answer C. A is true, but R is false
The three Carnatic Wars (1746-63) were Anglo-French contests in south India. They grew mainly out of European wars (Austrian Succession, Seven Years' War) and Anglo-French rivalry; only the second was tied to local succession disputes, so R as a general cause is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q51, final key
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Assertion (A): The Vijayanagaram estate was handed over to Narayana Babu after negotiations with the Company.
Reason (R): He agreed to pay arrears amounting to 5 lakh rupees.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
After Vijayarama Raju II fell at Padmanabham (1794), the Company restored the Vizianagaram estate to his son Narayana Babu (Narayana Gajapati Raju) after negotiations; he also agreed to clear arrears. APPSC treats both as true but the arrears as not the explanation of the restoration.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q52, final key
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Assertion (A): Even though the British East India Company occupied the region, during their rule they focused extensively on irrigation infrastructure to boost agricultural productivity.
Reason (R): Significant irrigational works undertaken by the Company were the construction of anicuts over the rivers Godavari and Krishna in 1847 and 1853 respectively.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A is false, but R is true
Company rule largely neglected irrigation for decades; the Godavari (Dowleswaram, begun 1847) and Krishna (Vijayawada, begun 1853) anicuts by Arthur Cotton were notable exceptions. So the claim of extensive focus is false while R is true.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q53, final key
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Assertion (A): The Justice Party was led by Dr. T.M. Nair, P. Theagaraya Chetti, and C.N. Mudaliar, and it mainly stood for the interests of the non-Brahmin and middle castes in the Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The party was formed to protest against the high number of Brahmins in government jobs, schools, and politics during British rule.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
The Justice Party (South Indian Liberal Federation, 1916) was founded by T.M. Nair, P. Theagaraya Chetti and C. Natesa Mudaliar to speak for non-Brahmin castes. It arose precisely in protest against Brahmin dominance in jobs, education and politics, so R explains A.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q54, final key
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Match the Following
Column I Column II 1. Mahalwari System A. Introduced in North-Western Provinces by Holt Mackenzie 2. Ryotwari System B. Developed by Captain Reed & Thomas Munro in Madras 3. Peshkush C. Tribute/tax paid by princely states to Mughals/British 4. Agency Areas D. Tribal areas governed by British special regulation 5. Taluqdar E. Landlord or middleman under Mughal and British systems Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
Holt Mackenzie's Mahalwari settlement (1822) was for the North-Western Provinces; Read and Munro built the Ryotwari system in Madras; peshkush was tribute paid by subordinate rulers; Agency areas were tribal tracts under special regulation; a taluqdar was a landholding intermediary.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q56, final key
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Who among the following were the first to establish a factory in Masulipatnam?
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Answer C. Dutch
The Dutch set up their factory at Masulipatnam in 1605-06, before the English (1611) and the French (1669).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q73, final key
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In which year did the Dutch establish their first factory at Pulicat, which was later abandoned?
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Answer A. 1610
The Dutch set up a factory at Pulicat in 1610 under an agreement with the Vijayanagara ruler and later built Fort Geldria there.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q74, final key
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Which of the following settlements were not established during the 17th century by the French?
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Answer D. Mahe
The French founded factories at Masulipatnam (1669), Pondicherry (1674) and Chandernagore (1690s), all in the 17th century. Mahe came only in 1721, in the 18th century.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q75, final key
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Consider the following statements,
1. Berhampur, Peddapuram and Dharmavaram were important centres of silk weaving in Andhra.
2. During 19th century the silk industry decline because of the tough competition from Chinese and Japanese silk.
3. The most noteworthy feature of Silk Industry in Andhra was that it was a rural Industry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer C. 1 and 2
Berhampur, Peddapuram and Dharmavaram were noted silk-weaving centres, and the 19th-century industry declined under competition from cheaper Chinese and Japanese silk. Silk weaving was mainly an urban, town-based craft, so statement 3 is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q76, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. Eluru was an important centre of carpet and rug making in Andhra.
2. This craft was developed by the immigrants from Persia who migrated during Muslim rule
3. Kurnool was an also an important centre of Carpet making in Andhra during modern times.
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Answer C. 1 and 2
Eluru (along with Masulipatnam) was the leading carpet centre of Andhra, a craft brought by Persian weavers who settled under Muslim rule. Kurnool is not recorded as a major carpet centre, so APPSC treats statement 3 as false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q77, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. During 19th century the textile industry of Andhra suffered heavily and declined gradually.
2. It lost foreign market but thrived in local market because of the policies of British.
3. It witnessed a huge demand in international markets.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
Andhra's handloom textiles declined through the 19th century: export markets were lost to machine-made goods and British tariff and free-trade policies hurt the home market too. So only statement 1 is correct.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q78, final key
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Who among the following was hanged in Aurangabad during the revolt of 1857?
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Answer B. Fida Ali
At Aurangabad in June 1857, jamedar Mir Fida Ali of the Hyderabad Contingent cavalry, who attacked his British officer, was court-martialled and hanged.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q79, final key
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Who among the following was the Nizam of Hyderabad during the outbreak of the revolt of 1857 in Hyderabad?
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Answer B. Afzal-ud-Dawlah
Nasir-ud-Daula died on 16 May 1857 and Afzal-ud-Daula became Nizam; he, with minister Salar Jung I, ruled when the Residency was attacked in July 1857 and stayed loyal to the British.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q80, final key
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On 17th July, 1857, the attack on the British Residency of Hyderabad was led by ?
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Answer A. Tura Baz Khan
Rohilla leader Turrebaz Khan, with Maulvi Allauddin, led about 500 men against the British Residency at Hyderabad on 17 July 1857; he was later caught and shot.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q81, final key
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The following statements contain an assertion followed by a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the below given options:
Assertion (A): The Textile Industry of Andhra which flourished during 17th-18th centuries witnessed a decline in the 19th century in both foreign and local markets.
Reason (R): In the foreign markets it decline because of competition with machine made goods while in local markets it declined because of high tariffs.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both A and R are True and R is correct explanation of A
Andhra textiles lost overseas markets to cheap Lancashire machine cloth, and at home British tariffs and duties hurt handloom weavers, which explains the decline in both markets.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q82, final key
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The following statement contain an assertion followed by a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the below given options:
Assertion (A): The Carpet and Rug making in 17th and 18th century Andhra was entirely done with the local of Krishna and Godaveri districts.
Reason (R): Bulbandi, Nabashkhany and Gopalraokhany were important varieties of carpets made in Andhra.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A is False but R is True
Carpet making in Andhra was developed by Persian immigrant weavers, so it was not done entirely by locals of the Krishna and Godavari districts. Bulbandi, Nabashkhany and Gopalraokhany were indeed known Andhra carpet varieties.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q83, final key
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The following statements contain an assertion followed by a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the below given options:
Assertion (A): The Port of Masulipatnam rose to the prominence as a centre of maritime trade during last quarter of sixteenth century.
Reason (R): Portugese were the first to recieve the farman from Golkonda rulers to establish the factory at Masulipatnam.
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Answer C. A is True but R is False
Masulipatnam grew into Golconda's chief port in the late 16th century. The first farman for a factory there went to the Dutch (1606), not the Portuguese, so R is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q84, final key
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The following statements contain an assertion followed by a reason. Read the statements carefully and answer from the below given options.
Assertion (A): The Moturpha was a tax imposed by British on trade and cccupations in Andhra.
Reason (R): Despite levying several taxes British never imposed salt monopoly in the Andhra region.
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Answer C. A is True but R is False
Moturpha was a tax on trades, professions and looms collected in the Madras Presidency, including Andhra. The British did impose a salt monopoly in Madras (from 1805), so R is false.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q85, final key
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In which year was the Justice Party formed?
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Answer B. 1916
The South Indian Liberal Federation, known as the Justice Party after its paper Justice, was founded in Madras in November 1916.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q86, final key
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Consider the following statements about Justice Party:
1. Justice Party was formed in the year 1910.
2. Justice Party opposed the Congress on the basis of Brahman domination of the organisation.
3. It claimed separate communal representation on the lines Muslims were granted under Morley Minto Reforms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer D. 2 and 3
The Justice Party was formed in 1916, not 1910. It opposed the Congress as Brahmin-dominated and demanded separate (communal) representation for non-Brahmins like that given to Muslims in 1909.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q87, final key
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In which year did the Justice Party form the government in Madras ?
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Answer B. 1920
The Justice Party won the first elections under the Montagu-Chelmsford dyarchy in 1920 and formed the ministry in Madras (A. Subbarayalu Reddiar, then the Raja of Panagal).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q88, final key
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The populist trend of Self Respect Movement in South India started under the leadership of:
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Answer C. EV Ramaswamy
E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar) launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 after leaving the Congress, giving the non-Brahmin movement a mass, populist turn.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q89, final key
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Among the following, who was not one of the founders of the Justice Party (South Indian Liberal Federation) established in 1916?
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Answer D. K. Kamaraj
T.M. Nair, P. Theagaraya Chetty and C. Natesa Mudaliar founded the Justice Party in 1916. K. Kamaraj, born in 1903, was a later Congress leader.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q90, final key
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What was the main objective behind the formation of the Justice Party in 1917?
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Answer B. To counter Brahmin supremacy in politics
The Justice Party aimed to break Brahmin dominance in politics, jobs and education and to secure representation for non-Brahmins; it was loyal to the British and opposed Home Rule.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q91, final key
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During which of the following movements did the Forest Satyagraha of Palnadu happen in Andhra?
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Answer B. Non-Cooperation Movement
The Palnadu forest satyagraha (1921-22), led by Kanneganti Hanumanthu against forest grazing taxes, was part of the Non-Cooperation Movement in Andhra.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q92, final key
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Who among the following was the leader of the Rampa Rebellion?
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Answer A. Alluri Sitarama Raju
Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa (Manyam) rebellion of 1922-24 among the hill tribes of the Godavari Agency; Aggi Raju was one of his lieutenants.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q93, final key
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Which European power was the first to establish trade contacts with the Andhra region?
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Answer B. Portuguese
The Portuguese, first Europeans to reach India by sea, were the first to trade on the Andhra coast, ahead of the Dutch (Masulipatnam 1605), English and French.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q129, final key
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In which century did the English East India Company gain control over the Northern Circars?
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Answer D. 18th century
The Company got the Northern Circars by the 1765 Mughal grant and the 1766 treaty with the Nizam, i.e. in the 18th century.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q130, final key
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Which European power did the English briefly amalgamate with at Pulicat in 1621?
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Answer B. Dutch
Under the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of Defence (1619) the English shared the Dutch factory at Pulicat from 1621 for a short time.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q132, final key
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What was the name of the fort established by Francis Day near Mahilapuram (now Mylapore)?
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Answer B. Fort St. George
Francis Day built Fort St. George at Madras in 1639-40 near Mylapore.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q133, final key
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Who was the prominent left-wing leader of the Andhra Socialist Party from its inception?
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Answer C. P. Sundarayya
The final key names P. Sundarayya as the prominent left-wing leader of the Andhra Socialist Party; he later became a leading communist.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q134, final key
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Among the following, who was not considered a moderate leader of the Andhra Maha Sabha?
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Answer C. Ravi Narayana Reddy
Ravi Narayana Reddy led the communist (radical) wing of the Andhra Mahasabha; the other three were moderate leaders.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q135, final key
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Who captured the leadership of the Andhra Mahasabha at the Bhuvanagiri (Bhongir) session in 1944?
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Answer C. Ravi Narayana Reddy
At the 1944 Bhongir session the communists under Ravi Narayana Reddy took over the Andhra Mahasabha and the moderates walked out.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q136, final key
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Assertion (A): After the Mutiny, the Minister's office, Dar-ul-Insha, saw a rise in official work, leading to the creation of the Munshi Khana.
Reason (R): The Munshi Khana was set up to handle correspondence with Taluqdars, alongside other offices like Kacheri Azla-i-Mustarida and Sadr Adalat-i-Azla-i-Mustarida.
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
After the 1857 rising the work of the Dar-ul-Insha grew and the Munshi Khana was set up to handle correspondence with Taluqdars, alongside offices such as Kacheri Azla-i-Mustarida and Sadr Adalat-i-Azla-i-Mustarida.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q149, final key
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Assertion (A): The Rohillas, led by Turrabaz Khan, managed to occupy advantageous positions in the Hyderabad Residency area, which allowed them to launch an effective attack on the Residency.
Reason (R): The Rohillas occupied two large houses belonging to local chukars, Abban Saheb and Jaigopaldas, which gave them strategic control over the gateway towards Putli Bowli and Dilsukh gardens.
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
In the July 1857 attack on the Hyderabad Residency, the Rohillas under Turrebaz Khan seized two large houses of Abban Saheb and Jaigopaldas commanding the gateway, which gave them their positions for the attack.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q150, final key
1.6Andhra State and AP formation
- Q189 Paper II Mock 1, Q4
The first Andhra Mahasabha at Bapatla (1913) was presided over by a member of the Madras Legislative Council. Who was he?
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Answer B. Bayya Narasimheswara Sarma
B.N. Sarma (Bayya Narasimheswara Sarma) presided over the first Andhra Mahasabha at Bapatla in 1913.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key P1 Q44; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.204
- Q190 Paper II Mock 1, Q9
The Eight-Point Formula of 1969 on the Telangana issue was announced by:
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Answer A. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the Eight-Point Formula in 1969.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.365; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.266
- Q191 Paper II Mock 1, Q14
Match the persons with what they are known for:
List I
a. P. Sundarayya
b. Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao
c. M. Chenna Reddy
d. Fazl Ali
List II
I. Founding of the Visalandhra Mahasabha
II. Chairman of the States Reorganisation Commission
III. Author of 'Visalandhralo Prajarajyam'
IV. Telangana Praja Samithi
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Sundarayya - Visalandhralo Prajarajyam; Kaleswara Rao - Visalandhra Mahasabha; Chenna Reddy - TPS; Fazl Ali - SRC.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.44; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.254; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.357; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.354
- Q192 Paper II Mock 1, Q19
Who was the first Chairman of the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council?
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Answer B. Madapati Hanumantha Rao
Madapati Hanumantha Rao was the first Chairman of the AP Legislative Council.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.356
- Q193 Paper II Mock 1, Q24
Consider the following statements about the Sri Bagh Pact:
I. Andhra University was to have centres at Waltair and Anantapur.
II. Irrigation projects for Rayalaseema and Nellore were to get priority for ten years.
III. The waters of the Godavari, Krishna and Pennar were to be used for these projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; the pact named the Tungabhadra, Krishna and Pennar, not the Godavari.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.215; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.213
- Q194 Paper II Mock 1, Q29
Consider the following statements about the early Andhra Mahasabhas:
I. The first session was held at Bapatla in 1913 under B.N. Sarma.
II. The third session was held at Kakinada in 1915.
III. The fifth session was held at Nellore in 1917 under Konda Venkatappayya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; the 1915 (third) session met at Visakhapatnam, while Kakinada hosted the 1916 session.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.202; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key P1 Q44; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.204
- Q195 Paper II Mock 1, Q34
Consider the following statements about N. Sanjeeva Reddy:
I. He was Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra State in 1953.
II. He was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh.
III. He later became President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.221; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.25; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.264; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.267
- Q196 Paper II Mock 1, Q39
Assertion (A): When Andhra State was formed in 1953, Kurnool became its capital and the High Court went to Guntur.
Reason (R): The Sri Bagh Pact of 1937 named Guntur as the seat of the High Court of a future Andhra province.
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Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
A is true but R is false. The Sri Bagh Pact did not name any town; it gave Rayalaseema the choice between the capital and the High Court. In 1953 Kurnool became the capital, and the High Court was set up at Guntur in 1954.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.221; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.223; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.38
- Q197 Paper II Mock 1, Q44
Arrange the venues of the early Andhra Mahasabha sessions in chronological order:
A. Kakinada
B. Bapatla
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Vijayawada
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Answer C. B, D, C, A
The order is Bapatla (1913), Vijayawada (1914), Visakhapatnam (1915) and Kakinada (1916).
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.202; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key P1 Q44; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.207
- Q198 Paper II Mock 1, Q49
N.T. Rama Rao founded the Telugu Desam Party on 29 March 1982. Who was Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh at that time?
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Answer B. Bhavanam Venkataram
When the TDP was founded on 29 March 1982, Bhavanam Venkataram was Chief Minister.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.272; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.267
- Q199 Paper II Mock 1, Q54
'Sri Bagh', the place where the 1937 pact was signed, was the Madras residence of:
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Answer D. Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao
Sri Bagh was the Madras residence of Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.214
- Q200 Paper II Mock 1, Q59
Match the persons with the bodies they headed:
List I
a. S.K. Dhar
b. Fazl Ali
c. K.N. Wanchoo
d. A.N. Khosla
List II
I. Committee on the financial issues of forming Andhra State
II. Linguistic Provinces Commission, 1948
III. Committee on the Krishna-Pennar project
IV. States Reorganisation Commission
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
Dhar - Linguistic Provinces Commission; Fazl Ali - SRC; Wanchoo - Andhra State finances; Khosla - Krishna-Pennar project.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.232; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.257; NCERT Politics in India since Independence ch.1 p.21; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.222
- Q201 Paper II Mock 1, Q64
Consider the following statements:
I. The Visalandhra Mahasabha was founded at Vijayawada in 1949.
II. The States Reorganisation Commission was headed by S.K. Dhar.
III. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 created 14 states.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. II only
Only II is not correct: the SRC was headed by Fazl Ali; S.K. Dhar headed the 1948 commission.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.254; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.357; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.354; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.257
- Q202 Paper II Mock 1, Q69
Which of the following pairs of Andhra Mahasabha venue and year is NOT correct?
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Answer B. Visakhapatnam - 1916
The Visakhapatnam session of the Andhra Mahasabha was held in 1915, not 1916.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.202; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key P1 Q44; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.207
- Q203 Paper II Mock 1, Q74
Consider the following statements:
Statement A: Andhra was the first state formed on a linguistic basis after independence.
Statement B: The creation of Andhra encouraged other linguistic groups to demand their own states, which led to the States Reorganisation Commission.
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer C. Both A and B
Both are correct: Andhra (1953) was the first linguistic state after independence and its formation spurred the demands that led to the SRC.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 History p.277; NCERT Politics in India since Independence ch.1 p.21
- Q204 Paper II Mock 1, Q79
Arrange the following in chronological order:
A. Konda Venkatappayya's resolution in the Madras Assembly for an Andhra province
B. Sri Bagh Pact
C. Report of the JVP Committee
D. Appointment of the Khosla Committee
Select the correct answer:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. B, A, C, D
Sri Bagh Pact (1937), Madras Assembly resolution (1938), JVP report (1949), Khosla Committee (1951).
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.211; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.215; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.337
- Q205 Paper II Mock 1, Q84
Potti Sriramulu undertook his fast of 1952 at Madras in the house of:
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Answer D. Bulusu Sambamurthy
Potti Sriramulu fasted in 1952 at the Madras house of Bulusu Sambamurthy.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 History p.276; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.217
- Q206 Paper II Mock 1, Q89
Match the dates with the events:
List I
a. 20 February 1956
b. 1 November 1956
c. 30 September 1955
d. 26 November 1949
List II
I. Report of the States Reorganisation Commission
II. Founding of the Visalandhra Mahasabha
III. Gentlemen's Agreement
IV. Formation of Andhra Pradesh
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Gentlemen's Agreement (20 Feb 1956), Andhra Pradesh (1 Nov 1956), SRC report (30 Sept 1955), Visalandhra Mahasabha (26 Nov 1949).
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.261; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.354; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.255
- Q207 Paper II Mock 1, Q94
Swami Sitaram, who fasted for a separate Andhra State in 1951, ended his fast at the request of:
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Answer D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
Swami Sitaram ended his 1951 fast for Andhra State at the request of Acharya Vinoba Bhave.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.218; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.38
- Q208 Paper II Mock 1, Q99
Consider the following statements:
I. Damodaram Sanjivayya was Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh in 1960-62.
II. Kasu Brahmananda Reddy was Chief Minister during the 1969 Telangana agitation.
III. P.V. Narasimha Rao was Chief Minister of Andhra State when the Gentlemen's Agreement was signed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
I and II are correct; Bezawada Gopala Reddy was CM of Andhra State in February 1956.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.266; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.267; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.356; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.269
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Which leader of the Andhra movement was popularly called 'Desabhakta'?
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Answer A. Konda Venkatappayya
Konda Venkatappayya was known as 'Desabhakta'.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.178
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Which of the following pairs of Andhra Mahasabha session and president is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer B. Third session, Visakhapatnam - Mocharla Ramachandra Rao
Mocharla Ramachandra Rao presided over the fourth session at Kakinada (1916), not the third session at Visakhapatnam.
Source: APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key P1 Q44; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.204; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.207; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.25
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Match the following committees with the subjects they examined:
List I
a. Dhar Commission (1948)
b. JVP Committee (1948-49)
c. Wanchoo Committee (1952-53)
d. Khosla Committee (1951)
List II
I. Financial and administrative issues of forming Andhra State
II. Formation of provinces on a linguistic basis
III. Krishna-Pennar project
IV. Congress review of the linguistic provinces question
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
Dhar - linguistic provinces; JVP - Congress review; Wanchoo - financial issues of Andhra State; Khosla - Krishna-Pennar project.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.232; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.257; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.220; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.221
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Who presided over the fifth Andhra Mahasabha held at Nellore in 1917?
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Answer D. Konda Venkatappayya
Konda Venkatappayya presided over the fifth Andhra Mahasabha at Nellore in 1917.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.209; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.337
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Consider the following statements about Andhra State (1953):
I. It was inaugurated by Nehru at Kurnool.
II. Its first Governor was C.M. Trivedi.
III. Its High Court was first set up at Vijayawada.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. III only
Only III is not correct: the Andhra High Court was set up at Guntur in 1954.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.221; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.223; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.38; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.25
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Assertion (A): The Gentlemen's Agreement provided for a Regional Council for Telangana.
Reason (R): The agreement was meant to protect the interests of Telangana in the proposed united state.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true and R explains A: the Regional Council was one of the safeguards for Telangana.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.263; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.262
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Assertion (A): In December 1952 the Central Government announced the formation of a separate Andhra State.
Reason (R): The death of Potti Sriramulu on 15 December 1952 led to widespread and intense protests in the Telugu districts.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true and R explains A: the protests after Sriramulu's death forced the Centre to concede Andhra State.
Source: NCERT Politics in India since Independence ch.1 p.19; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.38; AP SCERT Class 8 History p.277; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.218
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'Swami Sitaram', who began a fast unto death on 15 August 1951 for a separate Andhra State, was the name taken by:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Gollapudi Sitarama Sastri
Swami Sitaram was Gollapudi Sitarama Sastri, who began his fast on 15 August 1951.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.218; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.38
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After the 1937 elections, who became Speaker of the Madras Legislative Assembly under the Congress ministry of C. Rajagopalachari?
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Answer B. Bulusu Sambamurthy
Bulusu Sambamurthy became Speaker of the Madras Legislative Assembly in 1937.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.214
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Match the places with the events:
List I
a. Bapatla
b. Jogipet
c. Kurnool
d. Guntur
List II
I. Capital of Andhra State, 1953
II. Seat of the Andhra High Court, 1954
III. First Andhra Mahasabha in Hyderabad State, 1930
IV. First Andhra Mahasabha, 1913
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Bapatla - 1913 Mahasabha; Jogipet - 1930 Mahasabha in Hyderabad State; Kurnool - capital; Guntur - High Court.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.202; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.208; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.212
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One of the major reasons for the demand for a separate Andhra state was:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Unequal opportunities in education, employment, and administration
Andhras in Madras Presidency felt they had fewer opportunities than Tamils in education, jobs and administration, which fed the demand for a separate state.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q25, final key
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The concept of Andhrodyam began with which individual's writings in the Hindu newspaper about Telugu people's problems?
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Answer C. Jonnavittula Gurunatham
Jonnavittula Gurunatham's writings on the problems of Telugu people in The Hindu began the idea of the Andhra movement.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q26, final key
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In 1911, which prominent newspaper published a series of six powerful articles titled "The Present Conditions of the Andhras", highlighting regional issues and identity?
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Answer D. Krishna Patrika
As per the final key, Krishna Patrika ran the 1911 series of six articles 'The Present Conditions of the Andhras'.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q27, final key
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How did the Tamil press respond to the demand for a separate Andhra state during the early 20th century?
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Answer B. Raised doubts about Andhra’s ability to govern independently
The Tamil press opposed the demand, questioning whether the Andhras could run a state of their own.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q28, final key
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In 1910, which organisation took the initiative to publish the historical work Andhrula Charitra (History of the Andhras), contributing to the cultural awakening among the Andhras?
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Answer B. Vigyana Chandrika Mandali
Vignana Chandrika Mandali published Chilukuri Veerabhadra Rao's Andhrula Charitra in 1910.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q29, final key
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Who among the following described the Andhra Movement as a 'semi-nationalist movement'?
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Answer C. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Pattabhi Sitaramayya called the Andhra movement 'semi-nationalist'.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q31, final key
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Who presided over the first session of the Andhra Maha Sabha held at Bapatla in 1913?
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Answer C. Baiya Narasimheswara Sharma
The first Andhra Mahasabha at Bapatla (1913) was presided over by Bayya Narasimheswara Sarma.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q32, final key
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Which rivers were specifically mentioned in the Sri Bagh Pact for prioritising irrigation in Rayalaseema?
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Answer B. Krishna, Penna, Tungabhadra
The Sri Bagh Pact (1937) promised priority irrigation for Rayalaseema from the Krishna, Tungabhadra and Penna.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q33, final key
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Which committee was appointed by the Constituent Assembly and headed by a former judge of the Allahabad High Court and Dr. Panna Lal as members?
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Answer A. Linguistic Provinces Committee
The Constituent Assembly's Linguistic Provinces Commission (1948) was headed by S.K. Dhar, a retired Allahabad High Court judge, with Panna Lall among its members.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q34, final key
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When the Indian Constitution came into effect in 1950, the Telugu-speaking region was included under Madras State in Indian Constitution . Who among the following leaders went on a hunger strike in 1951 demanding a separate Andhra state for Telugu-speaking people, independent from Madras?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Swami Sitaram
Swami Sitaram fasted in 1951 for a separate Andhra state; Potti Sriramulu's fatal fast came in 1952.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q35, final key
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Select the place where the Visalandhra Mahasabha was founded, symbolising the organisational beginning of the movement.
1.Hyderabad
2.Warangal
3.Vijayawada
4.Chittoor
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Only 3
The Visalandhra Mahasabha was founded at Vijayawada (1949).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q45, final key
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Select the set of leaders who were directly involved in spreading the ideas of Visalandhra across both Andhra and Telangana regions.
1.Devulapalli Ramanuja Rao
2.Paga Pullareddy
3.T. Prakasam
4.Mukdum Mohinuddin
5.Sir Vijaya
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 1, 2 and 4
Devulapalli Ramanuja Rao, Paga Pulla Reddy and Makhdoom Mohiuddin spread the Visalandhra idea in both regions; Prakasam's role is not counted in the key.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q46, final key
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Identify the places where the Communist Party significantly influenced the Visalandhra Movement through literature, press, and political outreach.
1.Hyderabad
2.Vijayawada
3.Nagpur
4.Asirgabad
5.Nalgonda
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1, 2, 5
The Communist Party pushed Visalandhra through its press and literature in Hyderabad, Vijayawada and Nalgonda.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q47, final key
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Where did the first session of the Andhra Mahasabha take place in 1913?
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Answer C. Bapatla
The first Andhra Mahasabha met at Bapatla in May 1913 under B.N. Sarma and began the demand for a separate Andhra province.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q94, final key
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When did Swami Sitaram start his fast unto death with regards to the formation of the Andhra state?
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Answer A. 15th August, 1951
Swami Sitaram (Gollapudi Sitarama Sastry) began a fast for an Andhra state on 15 August 1951 and ended it after about five weeks at Vinoba Bhave's request; Potti Sriramulu's fast followed in 1952.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q95, final key
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On which date did the first linguistic state of Andhra come into existence?
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Answer C. 1st October, 1953
Andhra State was formed on 1 October 1953 with Kurnool as capital, after Potti Sriramulu's death in December 1952.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q96, final key
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Who among the following was not a member of the State Reorganisation Commission of 1953?
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Answer A. Tej Bahadur Sapru
The States Reorganisation Commission (1953) had Fazl Ali as chairman with H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar as members. Tej Bahadur Sapru had died in 1949.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q97, final key
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Who among the following was the first chief minister of Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer A. Sanjiva Reddy
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy became the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh on 1 November 1956 (T. Prakasam had been CM of the earlier Andhra State).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q98, final key
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In which year did the State Reorganisation Committee visit Hyderabad?
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Answer B. 1954
The States Reorganisation Commission, set up in December 1953, toured the country in 1954, including Hyderabad, and submitted its report in September 1955.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q99, final key
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Which of the following twin cities was recommended by the State Reorganisation Committee to be the capital of Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer C. Hyderabad and Secuderabad
Hyderabad and Secunderabad are the twin cities. The States Reorganisation Commission (1955) actually favoured keeping Hyderabad State (Telangana) separate for a time, but when Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1956 the Hyderabad-Secunderabad twin cities became its capital. Telangana is a region, not a city.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q100, final key
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In which year was the Gentlemen's Agreement signed?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 1956
The Gentlemen's Agreement between Andhra and Telangana leaders was signed on 20 February 1956 in Delhi, before Andhra Pradesh was formed.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q101, final key
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As per the gentlemen's agreement, what was the proportion of cabinet ministers between Andhra and Telengana?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 60:40
The agreement fixed cabinet berths in a 60:40 ratio between Andhra and Telangana.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q102, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. The Visalandhra movement was a movement that demanded to create a united state for Telugu speaking people in post colonial India.
2. The people of Telengana were also in favour of being the part of Visalandhra with its capital at Secunderabad.
3. Devalupalle Ramanuja Rao opposed the Visalandhra movement in Telengana.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1 only
Visalandhra sought one state for all Telugu speakers. Many in Telangana (and the SRC) were wary of merger, and Hyderabad, not Secunderabad, was the proposed capital, so statement 2 is wrong; per the final key statement 3 is also wrong.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q103, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. The State Reorganisation Committee submitted its report on 30th September 1955.
2. On 1st November 1956 with the addition of Telengana the full fledge state of Andhra came into existence.
3. Damodaram Sanjivayya became the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1 and 2
The SRC reported on 30 September 1955 and Andhra Pradesh was formed on 1 November 1956 by adding Telangana to Andhra State. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, not Damodaram Sanjivayya, was the first Chief Minister.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q104, final key
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Consider the following statements:
1. The Gentlemen's agreement was an agreement regarding the formation of Visalandhra with certain safeguards for Telengana.
2. The Portfolios of Home and Finance were reserved for Telengana as per the agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1 only
The agreement set out safeguards for Telangana in merging with Andhra. On portfolios it said two of Home, Finance, Revenue, Planning and Development, and Commerce and Industry would go to Telangana ministers; it did not reserve Home and Finance as such.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q105, final key
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Potti Sreeramula Vardhanti day is observed on ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. December 15
Potti Sreeramulu died on 15 December 1952 after a 58-day fast for a separate Andhra State, so his vardhanti is observed on 15 December.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q112, final key
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Who led the formation of the Visalandhra Mahasabha at Vijayawada in November 1949?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. A. Kaleswara Rao
Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao led the Visalandhra Mahasabha formed at Vijayawada in November 1949.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q137, final key
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In which state did Ramakrishna Rao become the Chief Minister?
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Answer B. Hyderabad State
Burgula Ramakrishna Rao was Chief Minister of Hyderabad State (1952-56).
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q138, final key
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When was the separate Andhra State formed?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. October 1, 1953
Andhra State was carved out of Madras State on 1 October 1953 with Kurnool as capital.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q139, final key
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In which year was the 'Gentlemen’s Agreement' signed?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1956
The Gentlemen's Agreement was signed on 20 February 1956.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q140, final key
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Who became the first Chief Minister of the newly inaugurated state of Andhra Pradesh in 1956?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Sanjiva Reddy
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy became the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh on 1 November 1956.
Source: APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II (Notification 05/2024), Q141, final key
1.1Welfare programmesNotes
- Q250 Paper II Mock 1, Q5
Ravi's family is listed as a Scheduled Caste in his State and professes Hinduism. Ravi later converts to Christianity. Under paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 as amended in 1990, Ravi:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Cannot be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste
Paragraph 3 of the SC Order 1950 says only persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism can be deemed SC, so a convert to Christianity cannot be deemed SC.
Source: Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950, para 3
- Q251 Paper II Mock 1, Q10
Consider the following statements about AP's finances for 2024-25 (Accounts, finalised by the Accountant General) as per the AP Budget 2026-27 documents:
I. The revenue deficit was 3.79% of GSDP.
II. The fiscal deficit was 5.11% of GSDP.
III. The primary deficit was 3.04% of GSDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. I, II and III
For 2024-25 (Accounts) the revenue deficit was 3.79%, fiscal deficit 5.11% and primary deficit 3.04% of GSDP, so all three are correct.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8
- Q252 Paper II Mock 1, Q15
Consider the following statements about Article 341 of the Constitution:
I. The President specifies the Scheduled Castes in relation to a State after consultation with the Governor.
II. Once issued, the list may be modified by a later notification of the President.
III. Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list any caste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. I and III only
Under Article 341 the President notifies the SC list after consulting the Governor; thereafter only Parliament by law can include or exclude castes, not a later Presidential notification.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 341(1)-(2)
- Q253 Paper II Mock 1, Q20
Which one of the following Articles on reservation and representation in legislatures is NOT correctly described?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Article 333 - Reservation of seats for SCs in the Council of States
Article 333 dealt with representation of the Anglo-Indian community in State Legislative Assemblies; there is no reservation for SCs in the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Constitution of India
- Q254 Paper II Mock 1, Q25
After the delimitation of 2008, how many seats in the Lok Sabha are reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, respectively?
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Answer B. 84 and 47
Since the 2008 delimitation, 84 Lok Sabha seats are reserved for SCs and 47 for STs; before it the numbers were 79 and 41.
Source: Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies Order, 2008
- Q255 Paper II Mock 1, Q30
Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana was launched on 23 September 2018 at:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Ranchi
AB PM-JAY was launched on 23 September 2018 at Ranchi, Jharkhand.
Source: AB PM-JAY (National Health Authority)
- Q256 Paper II Mock 1, Q35
Consider the following statements:
I. As per the AP Budget Speech 2026-27, nearly 40 crore women passengers benefited under the Stree Shakti Scheme as of January 2026.
II. The Stree Shakti Scheme has an allocation of Rs 1,420 crore in the AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 (BE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both I and II
Stree Shakti had nearly 40 crore women passengers by January 2026 and has Rs 1,420 crore in BE 2026-27.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.24; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.22; AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.21
- Q257 Paper II Mock 1, Q40
In which case did the Supreme Court first hold that reservation should generally be less than 50% and that caste cannot be the sole test of backwardness?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore (1962)
M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore (1962) held that reservation should generally stay below 50% and caste cannot be the only test.
Source: M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore (1962)
- Q258 Paper II Mock 1, Q45
Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Scheduled Castes:
I. It presents its reports to the President.
II. It became a separate body, distinct from the commission for Scheduled Tribes, through the 65th Amendment Act, 1990.
III. The President causes its reports to be laid before each House of Parliament with a memorandum on the action taken.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. II only
The NCSC reports to the President, who lays the reports before Parliament with an action-taken memorandum; the combined SC/ST commission of the 65th Amendment (1990) was split into NCSC and NCST only by the 89th Amendment (2003), so only II is incorrect.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 338, 338A; Polity reference p.137
- Q259 Paper II Mock 1, Q50
Consider the following statements:
I. The National Commission for Minorities got statutory status under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
II. The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions was set up under an Act titled the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions Act, 2004.
III. The Prime Minister's New 15-Point Programme for the welfare of minorities was announced in 1983.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
I and II are correct. The New 15-Point Programme was announced in 2006; the original 15-point programme dates from 1983.
Source: NCM Act 1992; NCMEI Act 2004; PM's New 15-Point Programme 2006
- Q260 Paper II Mock 1, Q55
Consider the following statements:
I. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 came into force in December 2013.
II. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis is a constitutional body.
III. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis was first set up under an Act of Parliament passed in 1993.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. II only
The 2013 manual scavengers Act came into force on 6 December 2013 and the NCSK was set up under the NCSK Act, 1993; the Commission was never a constitutional body and has been non-statutory since 2004, so only II is incorrect.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Social and Political Life III p.95; MS Act 2013 s.1; NCSK Act 1993
- Q261 Paper II Mock 1, Q60
According to the AP Budget Speech 2026-27, the AP Wealth Fund will start with a seed corpus of
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Rs 100 crore
The AP Wealth Fund has a seed corpus of Rs 100 crore and will invite private equity investors; it is modelled on sovereign funds such as Norway's and Abu Dhabi's.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.15; AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.4
- Q262 Paper II Mock 1, Q65
Consider the following provisions of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, as originally enacted:
I. Priority is to be given to women so that at least one-third of the beneficiaries are women.
II. If employment is not provided within fifteen days of the application, the applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance.
III. If work is provided beyond five kilometres from the applicant's residence, extra wages of ten per cent are payable.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. None of them
None of the statements is incorrect: Schedule II gives priority to women (at least one-third of beneficiaries) and extra 10% wages for work beyond 5 km, and Section 7 provides an unemployment allowance if work is not given within 15 days. The 2005 Act was replaced in 2025 by the Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act.
Source: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005; ref__6. Indian Economy
- Q263 Paper II Mock 1, Q70
Consider the following statements:
I. Capital expenditure including loans and advances in RE 2025-26 is about Rs 39,498 crore.
II. In 2022-23, capital expenditure including loans and advances was only about 4% of total expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both I and II
As per the AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27, capex (incl. loans and advances) was Rs 39,498 crore (13%) in RE 2025-26 and only 4% of total expenditure in 2022-23.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.12
- Q264 Paper II Mock 1, Q75
In the AP Budget 2026-27, the revenue deficit for 2026-27 (BE) as a percentage of GSDP is
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1.11%
The revenue deficit for BE 2026-27 is about Rs 22,002 crore, 1.11% of GSDP.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8
- Q265 Paper II Mock 1, Q80
Under the Thalliki Vandanam scheme of AP, the annual assistance per school-going child is
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Rs 15,000
Thalliki Vandanam gives Rs 15,000 per child per year to the mother's account.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.10; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.23; AP SES 2024-25 p.179
- Q266 Paper II Mock 1, Q85
How many trades of artisans and craftspeople were covered under the PM Vishwakarma scheme when it was launched in September 2023?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 18
PM Vishwakarma, launched on 17 September 2023, covered 18 traditional trades such as carpenter, blacksmith, potter and goldsmith.
Source: Ministry of MSME, PM Vishwakarma scheme guidelines (2023)
- Q267 Paper II Mock 1, Q90
In the AP Budget 2026-27, capital expenditure for 2026-27 (BE), INCLUDING loans and advances, is about
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Rs 53,915 crore
Capital expenditure including loans and advances is Rs 53,915 crore in BE 2026-27, up from Rs 39,498 crore in RE 2025-26.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.12
- Q268 Paper II Mock 1, Q95
The 2004 judgment in E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh, which held sub-classification of Scheduled Castes impermissible, was overruled in 2024 in:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh
State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (1 August 2024), a seven-judge bench, overruled E.V. Chinnaiah and allowed States to sub-classify SCs.
Source: Polity reference ch. Fundamental Rights; State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024)
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Match the following fiscal indicators of AP for 2026-27 (BE) with their values as a percentage of GSDP, as per the AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27:
List I
a. Revenue deficit
b. Fiscal deficit
c. Primary deficit
d. Public debt
List II
I. 1.11%
II. 3.84%
III. 36%
IV. 1.95%
Choose the correct code:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
In BE 2026-27 the revenue deficit is 1.11%, fiscal deficit 3.84%, primary deficit 1.95% and public debt about 36% of GSDP.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.12
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Consider the following statements about the judgment in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992):
I. It upheld 27% reservation for OBCs in central government jobs.
II. It directed that the creamy layer among OBCs be excluded from reservation.
III. It upheld the additional 10% reservation for poorer sections among the higher castes.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. III only
Indra Sawhney upheld 27% OBC reservation with exclusion of the creamy layer, but struck down the 10% quota for poorer sections of higher castes, so only III is incorrect.
Source: Polity reference ch. Fundamental Rights (Indra Sawhney)
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Consider the following statements about the extra housing assistance announced in the AP Budget Speech 2026-27:
I. SC and BC beneficiaries get an extra Rs 50,000.
II. ST beneficiaries get an extra Rs 75,000.
III. PVTG beneficiaries get an extra Rs 1,50,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
Extra housing aid is Rs 50,000 for SC and BC, Rs 75,000 for ST and Rs 1,00,000 for PVTG beneficiaries.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.23
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Consider the following statements about TRIFED:
I. It was set up in 1987 as a national-level cooperative body.
II. It now works under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
III. It deals with the marketing of tribal products and minor forest produce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct: TRIFED was set up in 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, works under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and markets tribal products and minor forest produce.
Source: MoTA Annual Report
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Consider the following statements about AP's public finances as per the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:
I. GST is the largest source of the State's own tax revenue in 2024-25 (RE).
II. Market loans form about three-fourths of the State's debt in 2024-25 (RE).
III. The debt-GSDP ratio fell from 2023-24 to 2024-25 (RE).
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. III only
GST gives 38% of own tax revenue and market loans are about 75% of debt; the debt-GSDP ratio rose from 34.58% (2023-24) to 35.15% (2024-25 RE).
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.29; AP SES 2024-25 p.31
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Under the AP Budget 2026-27, free power from 1 April 2026 is provided to weavers up to how many units per month for handlooms and power looms respectively?
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Answer C. 200 units and 500 units
From 1 April 2026 handlooms get up to 200 units and power looms up to 500 units of free power a month.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.18; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.26
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In the AP Budget 2026-27, the revenue expenditure estimated for 2026-27 (BE) is about
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Answer D. Rs 2,56,143 crore
Revenue expenditure in BE 2026-27 is Rs 2,56,143 crore.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.6
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Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court judgment in Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta (2018):
I. States need not collect quantifiable data showing the backwardness of SCs and STs for reservation in promotion.
II. The creamy layer principle can be applied to SCs and STs in matters of promotion.
III. The Court referred the M. Nagaraj judgment to a seven-judge bench for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Jarnail Singh (2018) held that quantifiable data on SC/ST backwardness is not needed and that the creamy layer principle can apply, but it declined to refer M. Nagaraj to a larger bench.
Source: Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta (2018)
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Match the years with AP's fiscal deficit as a percentage of GSDP as given in the AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27:
List I
a. 2022-23
b. 2023-24
c. 2024-25 (Accounts)
d. 2025-26 (RE)
List II
I. 4.01%
II. 4.41%
III. 4.57%
IV. 5.11%
Choose the correct code:
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Answer D. a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
Fiscal deficit was 4.01% (2022-23), 4.41% (2023-24), 5.11% (2024-25 Accounts) and 4.57% (2025-26 RE); BE 2026-27 is 3.84%.
Source: AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8
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Consider the following statements about monthly pension rates under NTR Bharosa as given in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:
I. Old age pension was raised from Rs 3,000 to Rs 4,000.
II. Pension for persons with disabilities was raised to Rs 6,000.
III. Pension for chronic disease patients such as those on dialysis is Rs 6,000.
IV. Pension for the fully disabled/bed-ridden was raised to Rs 15,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. III only
Old age pension is Rs 4,000, disability Rs 6,000, chronic diseases (e.g. dialysis) Rs 10,000 and fully disabled Rs 15,000 a month.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.258; AP SES 2024-25 p.244
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Consider the following statements:
I. As per the AP Budget Speech 2026-27, Imams receive an honorarium of Rs 10,000 per month.
II. Mouzzains and Pastors each receive Rs 5,000 per month.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Imams get Rs 10,000 a month and Mouzzains and Pastors Rs 5,000 a month each.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.19; AP SES 2024-25 p.259
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