TGPSC MPSO / ASO · Paper I · Topic 11

TGPSC MPSO / ASO Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance questions with answers

9 questions from TGPSC ASO Paper I Mock 1 with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.

11.1.1Constitution: making, features & rightsNotesPractise this chapter · Set 1 free

  1. Match List I (committee of the Constituent Assembly) with List II (chairman):

    List I

    a. Credentials Committee

    b. House Committee

    c. Order of Business Committee

    d. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly

    List II

    I. G.V. Mavalankar

    II. K.M. Munshi

    III. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya

    IV. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. Aa-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
    2. Ba-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    4. Da-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

    Credentials Committee - Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar; House Committee - B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya; Order of Business Committee - K.M. Munshi; Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly - G.V. Mavalankar.

  2. Consider the following statements about the right to education:

    I. Article 21A makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

    II. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act was enacted in 2009 to give effect to Article 21A.

    III. Before Article 21A was added, the Supreme Court in the Unni Krishnan case (1993) had read a right to primary education into Article 21.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I, II and III

    All three are correct. Unni Krishnan (1993) recognised the right to education up to 14 years as part of Article 21; the 86th Amendment (2002) made it Article 21A, and the RTE Act followed in 2009.

    Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; Constitution of India Part III

  3. Which of the following are features of the parliamentary system of government adopted in India?

    I. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha

    II. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister

    III. Membership of ministers in the legislature

    IV. A fixed term for the executive that the legislature cannot cut short

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. AI and II only
    2. BI, II, III and IV
    3. CII, III and IV only
    4. DI, II and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I, II and III only

    Features I, II and III belong to the parliamentary system. A fixed executive term is a feature of the presidential system; in India the government can be removed by a no-confidence motion.

11.2.1Union & State governmentNotesPractise this chapter · Set 1 free

  1. Consider the following statements about parliamentary privileges:

    I. In Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024), a seven-judge bench held that a legislator who takes a bribe to vote or speak in the House is not protected by the privilege of immunity.

    II. That judgment overruled the decision in P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State (1998).

    III. As originally enacted, Article 105(3) linked the privileges of each House to those of the British House of Commons.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I, II and III

    All three are correct. Sita Soren (2024) held that bribery is not protected by legislative privilege and overruled P.V. Narasimha Rao. Article 105(3) referred to the House of Commons until the 44th Amendment changed its wording.

    Source: Constitution of India Art. 105

  2. Consider the following statements about voting in a House of a State Legislature:

    I. The Speaker or the Chairman does not vote in the first instance, but has and exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.

    II. Proceedings of the House are valid even if it is later found that a person who was not entitled to do so sat or voted in it.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Both I and II

    Both are correct. Article 189(1) gives the presiding officer only a casting vote, and Article 189(2) says proceedings are not invalid because a person not entitled sat, voted or took part.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 189; Polity reference p.106

11.1.7JudiciaryNotesPractise this chapter · Set 1 free

  1. The Gauhati High Court has jurisdiction over which of the following States?

    I. Nagaland

    II. Meghalaya

    III. Mizoram

    IV. Arunachal Pradesh

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. AI and III only
    2. BI, III and IV only
    3. CII, III and IV only
    4. DI, II, III and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. I, III and IV only

    The Gauhati High Court serves Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh. Meghalaya has had its own High Court since 2013.

    Source: Constitution of India Art. 231

  2. Arrange the following in chronological order of their establishment:

    I. Federal Court of India

    II. Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta

    III. High Court at Calcutta

    IV. Supreme Court of India

    Select the correct answer:

    1. AII, I, III, IV
    2. BIII, II, I, IV
    3. CII, III, I, IV
    4. DII, III, IV, I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. II, III, I, IV

    The Supreme Court at Calcutta came in 1774 under the Regulating Act, the Calcutta High Court in 1862, the Federal Court under the GoI Act 1935, and the Supreme Court of India on 28 January 1950.

11.1.7Constitutional bodies, elections & special provisionsNotesPractise this chapter · Set 1 free

  1. Consider the following statements about Article 324:

    I. Before each general election to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies, the President may, after consultation with the Election Commission, appoint Regional Commissioners to assist the Commission.

    II. Article 324(5) provides that, subject to any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine.

    III. Regional Commissioners are permanent members of the Election Commission with the same powers as the Election Commissioners.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    Statements I and II are correct (Article 324(4) and (5)). Regional Commissioners are appointed only to assist the Election Commission around elections; they are not members of the Commission. Statement II is the text of Art. 324(5); Parliament has since made such a law (the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023), which the opening words of the clause allow.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 324

  2. Match List I (Office) with List II (Article of the Constitution):

    List I

    a. Attorney-General for India

    b. Comptroller and Auditor-General

    c. Advocate-General of a State

    d. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

    List II

    I. Article 165

    II. Article 148

    III. Article 76

    IV. Article 350B

    Select the correct answer:

    1. Aa-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
    2. Ba-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
    4. Da-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV

    Attorney-General is Article 76, CAG Article 148, Advocate-General Article 165, and the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities Article 350B.

    Source: Constitution

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