Free mock test · MPSO / ASO
TGPSC ASO Paper I Mock 1 with answers
- 150 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · 0 wrong
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this test (17)
- Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation20
- Basic English20
- General Science & Technology10
- Environment & Disaster Management10
- Indian Economy & Development10
- Geography of India10
- Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana10
- Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance9
- Current Affairs8
- History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement8
- Geography & Demography of Telangana7
- Modern India & the National Movement7
- Policies of Telangana State6
- Telangana Economy & Development5
- Social Exclusion, Rights & Inclusive Policies4
- International Relations & Events3
- Local Self-Government3
Questions and answers
- Q1 Current Affairs
Once a site is inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, which of the following is NOT correct?
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Answer A. The site passes under the sovereignty of UNESCO.
An inscribed site remains under the sovereignty of the country concerned; its protection becomes a wider international responsibility. The other three are duties expected of the State.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Lepakshi and Gandikota: AP's Push for UNESCO World Heritage Recognition' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q2 Current Affairs
With reference to the El Nino conditions tracked by India's Oceansat-3 in 2026, consider the following statements:
I. Under normal conditions, easterly trade winds move warm surface water westward across the equatorial Pacific.
II. Upwelling brings warm, nutrient-poor water to the ocean surface.
III. During El Nino, weakened trade winds reduce the supply of nutrient-rich water to the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; upwelling brings cold, nutrient-rich deeper water to the surface, so statement II is wrong.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Oceansat-3 Tracks El Nino's Impact on Marine Productivity (Deccan Chronicle; ISRO-NRSC)
- Q3 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the India AI Impact Summit held in February 2026:
I. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
II. It was described as the first global AI summit hosted in the Global South.
III. Its three guiding pillars were People, Planet and Progress.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer C. I, II and III
All three are correct. The India AI Impact Summit (16–20 February 2026) was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi; it was announced at the AI Action Summit in France, billed as the first global AI summit in the Global South, and built around People, Planet and Progress.
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (February 2026)
- Q4 Current Affairs
Arrange the following events of March 2026 in chronological order:
1. Telangana Budget 2026–27 presented in the Assembly
2. Shiv Pratap Shukla sworn in as Governor
3. Telangana Gaddar Film Awards 2025 winners announced
4. Netflix's Eyeline Studios opens in Hyderabad
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Answer C. 3, 2, 4, 1
Gaddar award winners announced (7 March), Governor sworn in (11 March), Eyeline Studios opened (12 March), Budget presented (20 March).
Source: IANS (7 Mar 2026); The News Minute (11 Mar 2026); Netflix newsroom (12 Mar 2026); PRS Telangana Budget Analysis 2026-27
- Q5 Current Affairs
El Nino, whose 2026 development was tracked by India's Oceansat-3, is the warm phase of ENSO marked by unusually warm surface waters in the:
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Answer C. Central and eastern equatorial Pacific
El Nino is the warm phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation with unusually warm surface waters in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Oceansat-3 Tracks El Nino's Impact (Deccan Chronicle); NCERT Class 11 India Physical Environment p.90
- Q6 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the 11th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog held in June 2026: I. It was chaired by the Prime Minister. II. For the first time since the Council was formed, the Chief Ministers of all the States attended together. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
The Governing Council is chaired by the Prime Minister, who chaired the 11th meeting. All 28 States and 5 Union Territories took part, and the Chief Ministers of all States attended together for the first time since the Council was set up.
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (June 2026)
- Q7 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the Telangana Cabinet meeting of 1 October 2026:
I. It approved two pending dearness allowance instalments for employees and pensioners.
II. The extra cost of the decision was put at about ₹2,500 crore a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: the Cabinet cleared two pending DA instalments (3.64% and 2.73%), at an extra cost of about ₹2,500 crore a year.
Source: UNI (1 Oct 2026); Deccan Chronicle, 'Telangana clears two pending DAs, gives 6.37% hike for staff, pensioners' (Oct 2026)
- Q8 Current Affairs
In July 2026, the 129th birth anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju was celebrated at his birthplace:
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Answer C. Pandrangi
His birthplace is Pandrangi village in Padmanabham mandal, Visakhapatnam district.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Alluri Sitarama Raju: 129th Birth Anniversary' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q9 International Relations & Events
Which one of the following pairs of India-Pakistan agreement or summit and the Indian leader involved is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Agra Summit, 2001 : Manmohan Singh
The Agra Summit of July 2001 was between Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Pervez Musharraf. Shastri signed at Tashkent with Ayub Khan, Indira Gandhi at Simla with Zulfikar Ali Bhutto, and Vajpayee at Lahore with Nawaz Sharif.
Source: MEA, India-Pakistan bilateral documents (Tashkent 1966, Simla 1972, Lahore 1999); Agra Summit 2001
- Q10 International Relations & Events
Consider the following statements about India's eastward engagement:
1. The Look East Policy was launched in the early 1990s under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao.
2. The Look East Policy was upgraded to the Act East Policy in 2004 under Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
The Look East Policy began in 1991-92 under P.V. Narasimha Rao; it was upgraded to the Act East Policy in 2014 by the Modi government.
Source: MEA, Act East Policy (PIB, 23 Dec 2015 Lok Sabha reply)
- Q11 International Relations & Events
Consider the following statements about the India–UK CETA:
I. It was signed in London in July 2025.
II. It came into force on the day it was signed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
Statement I is correct: it was signed on 24 July 2025. Statement II is wrong: it came into force on 15 July 2026.
Source: Ministry of Commerce, 2025–26
- Q12 General Science & Technology
Consider the following statements about levers:
1. In a Class II lever the load lies between the fulcrum and the effort, so its mechanical advantage is always greater than 1.
2. A Class III lever, such as a pair of fire tongs, always has a mechanical advantage greater than 1.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
In a Class II lever the effort arm is always longer than the load arm, so MA > 1. In a Class III lever the effort lies between fulcrum and load, so the effort arm is shorter and MA < 1; it gains speed or reach, not force.
Source: Standard mechanics: classes of levers and mechanical advantage
- Q13 General Science & Technology
An eye doctor prescribes spectacles of power -2.0 D. Which of the following correctly describes the lens?
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Answer D. Concave lens of focal length 50 cm, for myopia
Power P = 1/f (f in metres), so f = 1/(-2) = -0.5 m = -50 cm. A negative power means a concave (diverging) lens, which is used to correct myopia.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Science, Light: Reflection and Refraction
- Q14 General Science & Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Bakelite can be softened by heating and remoulded again and again.
2. Polythene and PVC are thermoplastics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. 2 only
Polythene and PVC soften on heating and can be reshaped, so they are thermoplastics. Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic: once moulded it cannot be softened again by heating.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Science ch.3
- Q15 General Science & Technology
Match List I (vitamin) with List II (deficiency disease):
List I:
- A. Thiamine (B1)
- B. Niacin (B3)
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin A
List II:
- 1. Rickets
- 2. Pellagra
- 3. Night blindness
- 4. Beriberi
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Answer A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Thiamine deficiency causes beriberi, niacin deficiency pellagra, vitamin D deficiency rickets and vitamin A deficiency night blindness.
Source: NCERT Class 6 Science ch.2; standard nutrition texts
- Q16 General Science & Technology
Assertion (A): Remote sensing satellites are generally placed in polar sun-synchronous orbits.
Reason (R): A sun-synchronous orbit lets the satellite pass over a place at about the same local solar time, giving similar lighting for images.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: same local time passes give comparable lighting, which suits Earth observation.
Source: ISRO PSLV page; NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy p.94
- Q17 General Science & Technology
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Waves used by bats to navigate - Infrasound
Bats emit and detect ultrasonic waves (above 20 kHz) to locate obstacles and prey, not infrasound.
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science, Sound
- Q18 General Science & Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Iron rusts only when both air (oxygen) and water are present.
2. Rusting of iron is a physical change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
Iron nails kept in dry air or in boiled (air-free) water do not rust; both oxygen and moisture are needed. Rust is a new substance (hydrated iron(III) oxide), so rusting is a chemical change.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Science ch.3
- Q19 General Science & Technology
Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. If a healthy adult's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, what is the pulse pressure?
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Answer C. 40 mm Hg
In the reading 120/80 mm Hg, 120 is systolic and 80 is diastolic pressure, so pulse pressure = 120 - 80 = 40 mm Hg.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Science, Life Processes (normal blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg); pulse pressure defined in the stem
- Q20 General Science & Technology
Assertion (A): Aditya-L1 has been placed in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point L1.
Reason (R): A satellite around L1 can view the Sun continuously without any eclipse.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: from L1 the Sun can be observed continuously without occultation or eclipse.
Source: ISRO Aditya-L1 page
- Q21 General Science & Technology
Assertion (A): India's three-stage nuclear programme aims to use thorium on a large scale in its third stage.
Reason (R): India has large thorium reserves but limited uranium reserves.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: the programme was designed to use India's large thorium reserves because uranium is limited.
Source: DAE three-stage programme; NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy p.71
- Q22 Environment & Disaster Management
Consider the following statements about the carbon cycle:
I. The fast carbon cycle, through photosynthesis and respiration, operates over days to years.
II. Formation of coal, oil and gas from buried organisms is part of the slow carbon cycle.
III. The atmosphere holds the largest share of the total global carbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; the atmosphere holds only a very small fraction (about 1 per cent) of global carbon, far less than the oceans.
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science p.283
- Q23 Environment & Disaster Management
Match List I with List II:
List I
a. Gause
b. MacArthur
c. Connell
d. Verhulst and Pearl
List II
I. Logistic growth model
II. Competitive exclusion principle
III. Resource partitioning among warblers
IV. Competition between barnacles on the coast of Scotland
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Answer D. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
Gause gave competitive exclusion, MacArthur showed resource partitioning in warblers, Connell studied barnacles in Scotland and logistic growth is named after Verhulst and Pearl.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.211; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.215; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.207
- Q24 Environment & Disaster Management
Consider the following statements:
Statement A: Incineration is the most suitable option for wet kitchen waste.
Statement B: Waste-to-energy plants work best with dry, high-calorific waste.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer B. B only
Wet waste has high moisture and low calorific value and is best composted or bio-methanated; waste-to-energy suits dry high-calorific waste.
Source: SWM Rules 2016; CPHEEO MSW Manual
- Q25 Environment & Disaster Management
Match the following agreements with the year of their adoption:
List I
a. Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Paris Agreement
List II
I. 1997
II. 1985
III. 2015
IV. 1987
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Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985, the Montreal Protocol in 1987, the Kyoto Protocol in 1997 and the Paris Agreement in 2015.
Source: Treaty texts; NCERT Class 8 Curiosity p.224
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Start free - Q26 Environment & Disaster Management
Match the SDG numbers in List I with their themes in List II.
List I
a. SDG 11
b. SDG 14
c. SDG 15
d. SDG 16
List II
I. Sustainable cities and communities
II. Life below water
III. Peace, justice and strong institutions
IV. Life on land
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Answer A. a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
SDG 11 - Sustainable cities; SDG 14 - Life below water; SDG 15 - Life on land; SDG 16 - Peace, justice and strong institutions.
Source: UNGA Resolution A/RES/70/1 (2030 Agenda)
- Q27 Environment & Disaster Management
Match List I (tiger reserve / national park) with List II (State):
List I
a. Bandhavgarh
b. Sariska
c. Manas
d. Periyar
List II
I. Rajasthan
II. Kerala
III. Madhya Pradesh
IV. Assam
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Bandhavgarh is in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska in Rajasthan, Manas in Assam and Periyar in Kerala.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.2 p.27
- Q28 Environment & Disaster Management
Match the following terms with their meaning:
List I
a. Leachate
b. Refuse derived fuel
c. Extended Producer Responsibility
d. Bio-mining
List II
I. Liquid formed by water percolating through waste
II. Producers manage their products after use
III. Fuel from the combustible fraction of solid waste
IV. Excavating and treating old dumpsite waste
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Answer B. a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
Leachate is liquid from waste, RDF is fuel from combustible waste, EPR makes producers responsible after use, and bio-mining treats legacy dumpsite waste.
Source: SWM Rules 2016; SBM-U 2.0 guidelines
- Q29 Environment & Disaster Management
Assertion (A): Thawing of permafrost can speed up global warming.
Reason (R): Thawing permafrost releases stored carbon as carbon dioxide and methane.
Choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Permafrost holds large carbon stores; thawing releases CO2 and methane, a positive feedback.
Source: IPCC AR6 WGI ch.5
- Q30 Environment & Disaster Management
Consider the following statements about hydrogen:
I. Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.
II. Grey hydrogen is produced from natural gas without capturing the carbon dioxide.
III. Blue hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture and storage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct: green hydrogen uses renewable electrolysis, grey hydrogen uses natural gas without carbon capture, and blue hydrogen uses fossil fuels with carbon capture.
Source: MNRE National Green Hydrogen Mission
- Q31 Environment & Disaster Management
Consider the following statements:
1. Hazard and disaster are synonyms, so every hazard event is a disaster.
2. Reducing vulnerability cannot lower disaster risk unless the hazard itself is reduced.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. Neither 1 nor 2
A hazard (e.g. a cyclone over an empty sea) need not cause a disaster; and since risk is a function of hazard, exposure and vulnerability (offset by capacity), reducing vulnerability reduces risk even if the hazard is unchanged.
Source: UNDRR Terminology (2017); NIDM disaster management basics
- Q32 Indian Economy & Development
According to NCERT, as part of financial sector reforms the foreign investment limit in Indian banks was raised to around
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Answer B. 74 per cent
NCERT states the foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 74 per cent.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.3 (p.58)
- Q33 Indian Economy & Development
Consider the following statements about India between 1950-51 and 1990-91:
Statement I: The share of agriculture in GDP declined sharply.
Statement II: The share of the workforce in agriculture fell below 50 per cent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only Statement I is correct. Agriculture's share of GDP fell from 59% to about 35%, but its share of the workforce was still about two-thirds in 1990-91.
Source: NCERT Class 11 IED ch.2 (p.43-47)
- Q34 Indian Economy & Development
Consider the following statements about consumer price indices in India:
I. CPI for Industrial Workers is compiled by the Labour Bureau.
II. The CPI-IW series with base 2016 replaced the series with base 2001.
III. CPI (Rural), CPI (Urban) and CPI (Combined) are compiled by the Labour Bureau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
I and II are correct. CPI (Rural, Urban and Combined) are compiled by the NSO, MoSPI.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.2 National Income Accounting (CPI, WPI, PPI, IIP) (Types of CPI)
- Q35 Indian Economy & Development
Match List I with List II:
List I
a. Base Erosion and Profit Shifting
b. Place of Effective Management
c. General Anti-Avoidance Rules
d. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
List II
I. A treaty that prevents the same income from being taxed in two countries
II. A test of where key management and commercial decisions of a company are made
III. Strategies of multinationals to move profits to low-tax jurisdictions
IV. Provisions to deny tax benefits from arrangements made mainly to avoid tax
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Answer C. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
BEPS is profit shifting to low-tax places, PoEM tests where key decisions are made, GAAR denies benefits of tax-avoidance arrangements, and a DTAA prevents double taxation.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.5 p.59
- Q36 Indian Economy & Development
Consider the following statements regarding the sixth edition of the Balance of Payments and International Investment Position Manual (BPM6):
I. Under it, the balance of payments is divided into the current account, the capital account and the financial account.
II. Under it, transactions in financial assets such as bonds and equity shares are placed in the financial account.
III. It was published by the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer A. III only
Statement III is incorrect: BPM6 was published by the International Monetary Fund, not the World Bank. Statements I and II are correct.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.6 (Open Economy)
- Q37 Indian Economy & Development
Assertion (A): Old-age pensions paid by the government are added while computing Personal Income from National Income.
Reason (R): Such pensions are received by households, but they are not part of National Income because they are not payments for factor services.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Pensions are transfer payments: households receive them, but they are excluded from National Income, so they must be added to get Personal Income. R gives NCERT's own reason for A.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.36)
- Q38 Indian Economy & Development
Consider the following statements about payment systems in India:
I. NPCI was set up as an initiative of the RBI and the Indian Banks' Association under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
II. UPI was developed by NPCI.
III. RTGS is operated by NPCI.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Only III is not correct. RTGS and NEFT are operated by the RBI, while UPI, IMPS and NACH are NPCI systems.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.3 Money and Banking (Digital payment)
- Q39 Indian Economy & Development
Consider the following statements:
I. Subject to the assignment of certain taxes to the States, all revenues received by the Union Government form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. The Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the President to meet unforeseen expenditure.
III. Money in the Public Account of India, such as provident fund deposits, can be paid out only after appropriation by Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Payments from the Public Account are made by executive action without parliamentary appropriation.
Source: Constitution Arts. 266-267; Polity reference (Parliament; Federal Dynamics) (p.98)
- Q40 Indian Economy & Development
Assertion (A): The SDR is a currency used by member countries to pay for goods in international markets.
Reason (R): The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement member countries' official reserves.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
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Answer D. A is false, but R is true
A is false and R is true. The SDR is not a currency for buying goods; it is a reserve asset (a book-keeping entry) that can be exchanged among official holders for usable currencies.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter
- Q41 Indian Economy & Development
Consider the following:
Assertion (A): The calorie norm for the poverty line is higher for rural areas than for urban areas in India.
Reason (R): People in rural areas generally do more physical work.
Choose the correct answer.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: rural norms (2,400 kcal) are higher than urban (2,100 kcal) because rural work is more physical.
Source: AP SCERT Class 9 Economics ch.3 Poverty as a Challenge (p.74)
- Q42 Telangana Economy & Development
Arrange the following districts in descending order of GDDP (2022-23 advance estimates):
1. Medchal–Malkajgiri
2. Hyderabad
3. Ranga Reddy
4. Sangareddy
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Answer C. 3, 2, 1, 4
Ranga Reddy (≈ Rs 2.83 lakh crore) > Hyderabad (≈ 2.29) > Medchal–Malkajgiri (≈ 0.89) > Sangareddy (≈ 0.60).
Source: Raghu, Telangana Economy (2024) unit 5 (SEO 2024)
- Q43 Telangana Economy & Development
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Constant prices – include the effect of inflation
Constant prices remove the effect of inflation; current prices include it.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Economy (2024) unit 5
- Q44 Telangana Economy & Development
Consider the following statements about the Bhu Bharati Act:
I. Its Bill was passed by the Assembly in December 2024.
II. Its portal replaced Dharani from 14 April 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
The Bhu Bharati Bill was passed by the Assembly on 20 December 2024 (assent reported as 3 January 2025); the Act and portal replaced Dharani from 14 April 2025.
Source: Telangana Bhu Bharati (Record of Rights in Land) Act, 2025; press reports (Deccan Chronicle, The South First, April 2025)
- Q45 Telangana Economy & Development
Match the budget term with its meaning:
List I:
A. BE
B. RE
C. Revenue expenditure
D. Capital outlay
List II:
1. Spending that creates assets
2. Mid-year revised estimate
3. Spending that creates no asset, such as salaries
4. Estimate presented with the budget
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Answer C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
BE = budget estimate; RE = revised estimate; revenue expenditure creates no asset; capital outlay creates assets.
Source: PRS; Raghu, Telangana Economy (2024) unit 5
- Q46 Telangana Economy & Development
Consider the following statements:
I. Jagirs in Hyderabad State were abolished in 1949 under the military administration.
II. Inams in the Telangana area were abolished by an Act of 1955.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Jagirs were abolished by the 1358 F Regulation (15 Aug 1949) under military rule; the A.P. (Telangana Area) Abolition of Inams Act was passed in 1955.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Economy (2024) unit 1.2 pp.81–125; Hyderabad (Abolition of Jagirs) Regulation, 1358 F (in force 15 Aug 1949), recited in Sarwarlal v State of Hyderabad (SC, 1960)
- Q47 Geography of India
Of the 57 oceanic deeps explored so far, according to NCERT, how many are in the Indian Ocean?
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Answer C. 6
Of the 57 deeps explored, 32 are in the Pacific, 19 in the Atlantic and 6 in the Indian Ocean.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.12 Water (Oceans)
- Q48 Geography of India
Consider the following statements about the movement of the Indian plate:
I. India began its northward journey after the break-up of Pangaea.
II. The collision of the Indian plate with the Asian landmass caused a rapid uplift of the Himalayas.
III. The Deccan Traps were formed when the subcontinent was close to the Tropic of Cancer.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is incorrect: the Deccan Traps formed (from about 60 million years ago) when the subcontinent was still far south, close to the equator, not near the Tropic of Cancer.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.4
- Q49 Geography of India
Match List I with List II:
List I (Feature)
a. Delhi ridge
b. Rajmahal hills
c. Gir range
d. Cardamom hills
List II (Outer extent of the Peninsular plateau)
I. Northwest
II. East
III. South
IV. West
Select the correct code:
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Answer A. a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
The Delhi ridge marks the northwest, the Rajmahal hills the east, the Gir range the west and the Cardamom hills the south of the Peninsular plateau.
Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.2 (Structure and Physiography)
- Q50 Geography of India
Consider the following statements about laterite soils:
I. Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very deep and alkaline.
II. Laterite soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain.
III. After soil conservation, laterite soils in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu are useful for tea and coffee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II and III only
Statements II and III are correct; lateritic soils are acidic (pH below 6.0), not alkaline.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.1 Resources and Development
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Start free - Q51 Geography of India
Consider the following statements about the distribution of minerals in India:
I. Over 97 per cent of India's coal reserves occur in the valleys of the Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari.
II. The vast alluvial plains of north India are rich in minerals of economic use.
III. Most of the major mineral resources lie to the east of a line linking Mangaluru and Kanpur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; the northern alluvial plains have almost no economic minerals.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.5 Mineral and Energy Resources; Indian Geography: Human & Economic (reference) - Minerals, Energy and Industries
- Q52 Geography of India
Match List I with List II:
List I (Idea)
a. Revision of the nebular hypothesis (1796)
b. Steady state concept of the universe
c. Evidence that the universe is expanding
d. Sea floor spreading
List II (Scientist)
I. Harry Hess
II. Edwin Hubble
III. Fred Hoyle
IV. Laplace
Select the correct code:
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Laplace revised the nebular hypothesis in 1796, Hoyle proposed the steady state concept, Hubble gave evidence that the universe is expanding, and Hess proposed sea floor spreading.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.2, ch.4
- Q53 Geography of India
Match the ports in List I with the divisions of the western coast on which they lie in List II:
List I (Port)
a. Kandla (Deendayal)
b. Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva)
c. Marmagao
d. Kochi
List II (Coastal division)
I. Goan coast
II. Malabar coast
III. Kachchh and Kathiawar coast
IV. Konkan coast
Select the correct code:
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Kandla lies on the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast, JNPT on the Konkan coast, Marmagao on the Goan coast and Kochi on the Malabar coast.
Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.2 (Structure and Physiography)
- Q54 Geography of India
Match the following terms with their descriptions:
List I (Term)
a. Mahawat
b. October heat
c. Break in monsoon
d. Burst of monsoon
List II (Description)
I. Sudden onset of heavy monsoon rain in early June
II. Winter rain in the north-west from western disturbances
III. Rainless interval during the rainy season
IV. Oppressive weather after the monsoon retreats
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Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
Mahawat is winter rain from western disturbances, October heat is the oppressive post-monsoon weather, a break is a rainless spell within the rainy season, and the burst is the sudden onset of the monsoon.
Source: AP SCERT Class 9 Geography ch.4 Climate (NCERT Contemporary India I); Indian Geography (reference) ch.3 Climate
- Q55 Geography of India
Match the type of farming in List I with its feature in List II:
List I
a. Primitive subsistence farming
b. Intensive subsistence farming
c. Commercial farming
d. Plantation farming
List II
I. Single crop on a large area using migrant labour
II. High doses of HYV seeds and chemical fertilisers for the market
III. Hoe, dao and digging sticks with family labour
IV. Labour-intensive farming where population pressure on land is high
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Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Primitive subsistence farming uses simple tools and family labour, intensive subsistence farming is found where population pressure is high, commercial farming uses heavy modern inputs, and plantations grow one crop on a large area.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.4 Agriculture; Indian Geography: Human & Economic (reference) - Agriculture
- Q56 Geography of India
Consider the following statements about roads in India:
I. National Highways are built and maintained by the Central Government.
II. State Highways link state capitals with district headquarters.
III. Rural roads form about 80 per cent of the total road length.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.7 Transport and Communication; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.7 Lifelines of National Economy; Indian Geography (reference) ch.7 Trade, Transport and Communication
- Q57 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Assertion (A): Telangana's present area is smaller than the Census 2011 area of its ten districts.
Reason (R): Seven mandals of the then Khammam district were transferred to Andhra Pradesh in 2014 for the Polavaram project.
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Answer C. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
The Census 2011 area of the ten districts was about 1,14,840 sq km; after the 2014 transfer of seven Khammam mandals for Polavaram it is 1,12,077 sq km.
Source: Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2014 (indiacode); Government of Telangana state portal, State profile (2026); Raghu Regional Geography (2026-27) ch.1
- Q58 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Consider the following statements about the 2016 reorganisation of districts:
1. Each new district was notified by a separate G.O. under the Telangana Districts (Formation) Act, 1974.
2. Hyderabad district was split into two districts in 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
Each district had its own G.O. dated 11 October 2016 under the 1974 Act; Hyderabad district was left unchanged.
Source: Telangana Gazette, Revenue (DA-CMRF) G.O.s of 11 October 2016 under s.3, Telangana Districts (Formation) Act 1974
- Q59 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Match the waterfalls with their districts:
A. Kuntala
B. Bogatha
C. Mallela Theertham
D. Pochera
1. Nagarkurnool
2. Mulugu
3. Adilabad (Boath mandal)
4. Adilabad (Neradigonda mandal)
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Answer A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Kuntala is in Neradigonda (Adilabad), Bogatha in Mulugu, Mallela Theertham in Nagarkurnool and Pochera in Boath (Adilabad).
Source: Telangana Tourism (telanganatourism.gov.in) waterfall pages
- Q60 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Consider the following statements:
I. Kawal Tiger Reserve is larger than Amrabad Tiger Reserve.
II. Amrabad Tiger Reserve lies on the Krishna in the Nallamala hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. Only II
Amrabad (2,611 sq km) is larger than Kawal (2,015 sq km); Amrabad is on the Krishna in the Nallamala.
Source: Telangana Forest Department, List of Protected Areas of the State and Tiger Reserves (forests.telangana.gov.in)
- Q61 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Consider the following statements:
1. Telangana shares a boundary with Odisha.
2. Karnataka lies to the west of Telangana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. 2 only
Telangana's neighbours are Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka (west) and Andhra Pradesh; it does not border Odisha.
Source: Government of Telangana state portal, State profile (2026)
- Q62 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Consider the following statements:
I. The Krishna Pushkaralu were held from 12 to 23 August 2016.
II. The next Godavari Pushkaralu after 2015 are due in 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: Pushkaralu come once in 12 years; Krishna 2016, Godavari 2015 and next 2027.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Regional Geography (2026-27) ch.4; Telangana state profile (EPTRI DPR, 2016)
- Q63 Geography & Demography of Telangana
Consider the following statements:
I. Telangana's forest cover decreased between ISFR 2021 and ISFR 2023.
II. Most of Telangana's forests are tropical dry deciduous.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: cover fell by about 100 sq km, and dry deciduous forests dominate.
Source: Forest Survey of India, ISFR 2023 Vol.2, Telangana (Tables 10.25.2-10.25.3)
- Q64 Modern India & the National Movement
Match List I (Battle) with List II (Maratha opponent defeated by the British):
List I
a. Khirki (1817)
b. Sitabuldi (1817)
c. Mahidpur (1817)
d. Sipri (1781)
List II
I. Peshwa
II. Scindia
III. Bhonsle
IV. Holkar
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Answer B. a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
In the Third Anglo-Maratha War the British defeated the Peshwa at Khirki, the Bhonsle at Sitabuldi and Holkar at Mahidpur. At Sipri (1781), in the first war, they defeated Mahadji Scindia.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.17
- Q65 Modern India & the National Movement
Consider the following statements about the debate on education in the early nineteenth century:
I. Warren Hastings supported the setting up of institutions for Oriental learning.
II. James Mill defended the teaching of Sanskrit and Arabic literature.
III. Macaulay saw the teaching of English as a way of changing the tastes and values of Indians.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer A. II only
Only statement II is incorrect: James Mill attacked the Orientalists and wanted useful and practical education.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.6
- Q66 Modern India & the National Movement
Match List I (Congress session) with List II (President):
List I
a. Benaras, 1905
b. Lahore, 1909
c. Bombay, 1915
d. Amritsar, 1919
List II
I. Motilal Nehru
II. S.P. Sinha
III. Madan Mohan Malaviya
IV. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Benaras 1905 - Gokhale; Lahore 1909 - Malaviya; Bombay 1915 - S.P. Sinha; Amritsar 1919 - Motilal Nehru.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.25; Modern India (reference) p.26; Modern India (reference) p.30
- Q67 Modern India & the National Movement
The Swaminarayan sect of Gujarat, which preached a theistic god and a moral code and was open to all castes, was founded by:
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Answer A. Swami Sahajanand
Swami Sahajanand (1781–1830) founded the Swaminarayan sect in Gujarat.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.91
- Q68 Modern India & the National Movement
Who is known as the 'Liberator of the Indian Press'?
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Answer A. Charles Metcalfe
Charles Metcalfe repealed the 1823 Licensing Regulations through the Press Act of 1835 and is called the Liberator of the Indian Press.
Source: Modern India (reference) ch.13
- Q69 Modern India & the National Movement
The Swaraj Party, formed in 1923 to contest elections to the legislative councils, was founded by:
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Answer D. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru founded the Swaraj Party in 1923 to enter the councils and oppose them from within.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Exploring Society Part 2 p.82; Modern India (reference) p.45
- Q70 Modern India & the National Movement
In the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency, who formed an association for widow remarriage in the 19th century?
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Answer B. Veerasalingam Pantulu
Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage in the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.7 'Women, Caste and Reform' p.93; AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) ch.19 'Social and Religious Reform Movements' p.224
- Q71 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Match the theory of the Satavahana home with a scholar who proposed it:
List I:
- A. Telangana
- B. Coastal Andhra
- C. Maharashtra
- D. Vidarbha
List II:
- 1. V.V. Mirashi
- 2. R.G. Bhandarkar
- 3. P.T. Srinivasa Iyengar
- 4. P.V. Parabrahma Sastry
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Answer A. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Telangana - Parabrahma Sastry; Coastal Andhra - Bhandarkar; Maharashtra - Srinivasa Iyengar; Vidarbha - Mirashi.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Socio-Cultural History (2022) ch.2 (original home)
- Q72 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Which of the following titles appear in the Nasik inscription for Gautamiputra Satakarni?
1. Ekabrahmana
2. Kshaharata-vamsa-niravasesha-kara
3. Navanagaraswami
4. Benakatakasvami
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer B. 1, 2 and 4 only
Ekabrahmana, Kshaharata-vamsa-niravasesha-kara and Benakatakasvami are Gautamiputra's; Navanagaraswami is Pulumavi's.
Source: Nasik cave inscription of Gautami Balasri (Epigraphia Indica; D.C. Sircar, Select Inscriptions)
- Q73 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Consider the following statements about the Deed of Submission (1636):
I. Golconda agreed to pay annual tribute to the Mughals.
II. The khutba was to be read in the Shah of Persia's name.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
Golconda paid tribute and read the khutba in the Mughal emperor's name instead of the Persian Shah's.
Source: H.K. Sherwani, History of the Qutb Shahi Dynasty (1974)
- Q74 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Andhra Mahila Sabha begins its work
2. Sarojini Naidu goes to England on the Nizam's scholarship
3. Jagirs abolished
4. Mahbubia Girls School founded
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Answer D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Nizam's scholarship to Sarojini Naidu (1895), Mahbubia (1907), Andhra Mahila Sabha (1930), jagir abolition (1949).
Source: Raghu, Telangana Socio-Culture History (2022) ch.15
- Q75 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Match the term with its meaning:
List I:
- A. Epigraphy
- B. Numismatics
- C. Palaeography
- D. Microlith
List II:
- 1. Study of old scripts
- 2. Tiny stone tool
- 3. Study of inscriptions
- 4. Study of coins
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Answer A. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Epigraphy - inscriptions; numismatics - coins; palaeography - old scripts; microlith - tiny stone tool.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Socio-Cultural History (2022) ch.1
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Start free - Q76 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Consider the following statements:
I. The Bayyaram tank was built by Mailamba.
II. Mailamba was Ganapatideva's daughter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
Mailamba built the Bayyaram tank; she was Ganapatideva's sister, not his daughter.
Source: TOSS Intermediate History (2024) ch.25; Raghu, Telangana Socio-Cultural History ch.7
- Q77 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Consider the following statements:
I. The revenue of sarf-e-khas villages went to the state treasury.
II. Paigah jagirs were granted to maintain troops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. Only II
Sarf-e-khas revenue went to the Nizam personally; paigah jagirs maintained troops.
Source: TOSS Intermediate History (2024) ch.28 (28.5.1, revenue reforms); Raghu, Telangana Socio-Culture History (2022) ch.15
- Q78 History of Telangana & the Statehood Movement
Consider the following statements:
I. The first Andhra Mahasabha met at Jogipet under Suravaram Pratapa Reddy.
II. The second met at Devarakonda under Burgula Ramakrishna Rao.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: Jogipet 1930 (Suravaram) and Devarakonda 1931 (Burgula).
Source: Andhra Mahasabha conference tables: Raghu (2022) ch.17; Raghu Charitra (Telugu) pp.373-381
- Q79 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Match List I (committee of the Constituent Assembly) with List II (chairman):
List I
a. Credentials Committee
b. House Committee
c. Order of Business Committee
d. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly
List II
I. G.V. Mavalankar
II. K.M. Munshi
III. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
IV. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer D. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Credentials Committee - Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar; House Committee - B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya; Order of Business Committee - K.M. Munshi; Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly - G.V. Mavalankar.
Source: PW Polity ch.2 Making of the Constitution
- Q80 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about the right to education:
I. Article 21A makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
II. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act was enacted in 2009 to give effect to Article 21A.
III. Before Article 21A was added, the Supreme Court in the Unni Krishnan case (1993) had read a right to primary education into Article 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct. Unni Krishnan (1993) recognised the right to education up to 14 years as part of Article 21; the 86th Amendment (2002) made it Article 21A, and the RTE Act followed in 2009.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
- Q81 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about parliamentary privileges:
I. In Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024), a seven-judge bench held that a legislator who takes a bribe to vote or speak in the House is not protected by the privilege of immunity.
II. That judgment overruled the decision in P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State (1998).
III. As originally enacted, Article 105(3) linked the privileges of each House to those of the British House of Commons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct. Sita Soren (2024) held that bribery is not protected by legislative privilege and overruled P.V. Narasimha Rao. Article 105(3) referred to the House of Commons until the 44th Amendment changed its wording.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 105
- Q82 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
The Gauhati High Court has jurisdiction over which of the following States?
I. Nagaland
II. Meghalaya
III. Mizoram
IV. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer B. I, III and IV only
The Gauhati High Court serves Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh. Meghalaya has had its own High Court since 2013.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 17 (Indian Judicial System); Constitution of India Art. 231
- Q83 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about Article 324:
I. Before each general election to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies, the President may, after consultation with the Election Commission, appoint Regional Commissioners to assist the Commission.
II. Article 324(5) provides that, subject to any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine.
III. Regional Commissioners are permanent members of the Election Commission with the same powers as the Election Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct (Article 324(4) and (5)). Regional Commissioners are appointed only to assist the Election Commission around elections; they are not members of the Commission. Statement II is the text of Art. 324(5); Parliament has since made such a law (the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023), which the opening words of the clause allow.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 324
- Q84 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Which of the following are features of the parliamentary system of government adopted in India?
I. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha
II. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
III. Membership of ministers in the legislature
IV. A fixed term for the executive that the legislature cannot cut short
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer D. I, II and III only
Features I, II and III belong to the parliamentary system. A fixed executive term is a feature of the presidential system; in India the government can be removed by a no-confidence motion.
Source: PW Polity ch.4 System of Government
- Q85 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about voting in a House of a State Legislature:
I. The Speaker or the Chairman does not vote in the first instance, but has and exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
II. Proceedings of the House are valid even if it is later found that a person who was not entitled to do so sat or voted in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct. Article 189(1) gives the presiding officer only a casting vote, and Article 189(2) says proceedings are not invalid because a person not entitled sat, voted or took part.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 189; Polity reference p.106
- Q86 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Arrange the following in chronological order of their establishment:
I. Federal Court of India
II. Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta
III. High Court at Calcutta
IV. Supreme Court of India
Select the correct answer:
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Answer C. II, III, I, IV
The Supreme Court at Calcutta came in 1774 under the Regulating Act, the Calcutta High Court in 1862, the Federal Court under the GoI Act 1935, and the Supreme Court of India on 28 January 1950.
Source: PW Polity ch.17 (The Indian Judicial System) (Historical background)
- Q87 Indian Constitution, Polity & Governance
Match List I (Office) with List II (Article of the Constitution):
List I
a. Attorney-General for India
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General
c. Advocate-General of a State
d. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
List II
I. Article 165
II. Article 148
III. Article 76
IV. Article 350B
Select the correct answer:
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Answer C. a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
Attorney-General is Article 76, CAG Article 148, Advocate-General Article 165, and the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities Article 350B.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies; Constitution
- Q88 Local Self-Government
Consider the following statements about the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957):
I. The Zila Parishad should be directly elected by the people.
II. The Zila Parishad should be an advisory body chaired by the District Collector.
III. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. II and III only
Statements II and III are correct: the Committee proposed a three-tier system with an advisory Zila Parishad chaired by the Collector; only the village panchayat was to be directly elected.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.121
- Q89 Local Self-Government
Residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament by which Article of the Constitution?
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Answer B. Article 248
Article 248 (read with Entry 97 of the Union List) vests residuary powers, including residuary taxation, in Parliament.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.63; Constitution of India Art. 248
- Q90 Local Self-Government
Consider the following statements about the size of a gram panchayat under the Telangana Panchayat Raj Act, 2018:
I. The smallest gram panchayat (population up to 300) has 5 members.
II. The largest gram panchayats (population above 25,000) have 19 members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
Gram panchayat strength runs from 5 (up to 300 people) to 21 (above 25,000) under section 7.
Source: Telangana Panchayat Raj Act, 2018 (Act 5 of 2018), s.7
- Q91 Social Exclusion, Rights & Inclusive Policies
Which Chinese Buddhist pilgrim wrote that 'untouchables' had to sound a clapper in the streets so that people could avoid seeing them?
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Answer C. Fa Xian
Fa Xian wrote that 'untouchables' had to sound a clapper in the streets; Xuan Zang later noted that executioners and scavengers lived outside the city.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part 1, Kinship, Caste and Class
- Q92 Social Exclusion, Rights & Inclusive Policies
Consider the following statements about reservation for women in Panchayats under Article 243D:
I. Not less than one-third of the seats filled by direct election in every Panchayat are reserved for women.
II. The seats reserved for women include seats reserved for women of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
III. The Constitution itself mandates 50% reservation for women in all Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. III only
The Constitution mandates not less than one-third; 50% exists only under some State laws.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 243D; NCERT Class 10 Democratic Politics p.35
- Q93 Social Exclusion, Rights & Inclusive Policies
A caste group in a village gives up meat and liquor, adopts vegetarianism and the sacred thread, and begins to claim a higher rank in the local hierarchy. This is an example of:
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Answer D. Sanskritisation
Adopting the customs of higher castes and then claiming a higher rank is Sanskritisation in Srinivas's sense.
Source: Srinivas, Social Change in Modern India (1966)
- Q94 Social Exclusion, Rights & Inclusive Policies
'Equal pay for equal work for both men and women' is a Directive Principle under:
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Answer B. Article 39(d)
Art. 39(d) directs equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 39
- Q95 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Arrange these districts of Telangana in descending order of Scheduled Tribe population (Census 2011):
1. Adilabad
2. Bhadradri Kothagudem
3. Mahabubabad
4. Nalgonda
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Answer A. 2, 3, 1, 4
Bhadradri Kothagudem 3,92,034 > Mahabubabad 2,89,176 > Adilabad 2,24,622 > Nalgonda 2,09,252.
Source: Census of India 2011, Primary Census Abstract (Telangana); Arihant KYS ch.27
- Q96 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Match the persons with their work against social evils:
List I:
A. Bhagya Reddy Varma
B. Arige Ramaswamy
C. Hemalatha Lavanam
D. Vattikota Alwar Swamy
List II:
1. Novel 'Prajala Manishi' depicting vetti
2. Samskar's rehabilitation of joginis in Nizamabad
3. Arranged the marriage of a Mala girl rescued from dedication
4. Adi Hindu conference resolution of 1922 against dedication
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Answer A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Bhagya Reddy Varma – 1922 resolution; Arige Ramaswamy – marriage of a rescued Mala girl; Hemalatha Lavanam – Samskar; Vattikota Alwar Swamy – Prajala Manishi.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Society, Culture and Literature (7th ed.) ch.31; TGH-AW-01
- Q97 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Forest Rights Act
2. Samatha judgment of the Supreme Court
3. Telangana's G.O. raising ST reservation to 10%
4. PESA Act
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Answer C. 4, 2, 1, 3
PESA 1996, Samatha 1997, FRA 2006, G.O. 33 in 2022.
Source: PESA Act 1996; Samatha v State of AP (1997); FRA 2006; G.O. Ms. No. 33 (2022)
- Q98 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Match List I (temple) with List II (place):
List I:
A. Jagadamba temple
B. Ujjaini Mahankali temple
C. Simhavahini Mahankali temple
D. Peddamma temple
List II:
1. Lal Darwaza
2. Jubilee Hills
3. Golconda Fort
4. Secunderabad
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Answer D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Jagadamba–Golconda; Ujjaini Mahankali–Secunderabad; Simhavahini–Lal Darwaza; Peddamma–Jubilee Hills.
Source: Deccan Chronicle, Bonalu 2026; Telangana Tourism (YAT&C Dept) festival pages
- Q99 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Which of the following is NOT correctly paired?
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Answer C. Oggu Katha - Madiga community
Oggu Katha belongs to the Golla and Kuruma communities, not the Madigas.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Society, Culture and Literature (7th ed.) ch.35-36
- Q100 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Consider the following statements about the jogini custom:
1. Most girls dedicated were from Dalit families.
2. The girl was dedicated to a village goddess such as Yellamma or Pochamma.
3. After puberty she was free to marry a man of her choice.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer A. 1 and 2 only
Joginis were mostly Dalit girls dedicated to village goddesses; after puberty they were not allowed to marry and were sexually exploited.
Source: The News Minute, 'Joginis: the religious sex slaves of Telangana'; Deccan Chronicle on the V. Raghunath Rao Commission; Raghu, Telangana Society, Culture and Literature (7th ed.) ch.31
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Start free - Q101 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Consider the following statements:
I. The Utnoor ITDA is in Adilabad district.
II. The Eturnagaram ITDA is in Mulugu district.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Utnoor is in Adilabad and Eturnagaram in Mulugu.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Society, Culture and Literature (7th ed.) ch.32 (pp.173–179) (p.173)
- Q102 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Consider the statements:
I. The 'bangaram' offered at Medaram is gold equal to the devotee's weight.
II. Saralamma is also called Sarakka.
Which is/are correct?
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Answer B. Only II
Only II is correct: Saralamma is also called Sarakka; the bangaram ('gold') offered at Medaram is actually jaggery.
Source: Telangana Tourism festival pages (Medaram, Nagoba); Raghu, Telangana Society-Culture-Literature (7th ed.) ch.33
- Q103 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Consider the following statements about Warangal Chapata Chilli:
I. It is called 'tomato chilli' because of its round, plump shape.
II. It is prized mainly for its very high pungency.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
Only I is correct: the chilli is round like a small tomato and is prized for its deep red colour and mild heat, not for high pungency.
Source: GI Registry (ipindia.gov.in) state-wise list as on 31 Dec 2025 and application details, application 984
- Q104 Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts & Literature of Telangana
Statement I: Falaknuma Palace was built by the sixth Nizam, Mir Mahbub Ali Khan.
Statement II: Falaknuma has served as a Taj hotel since 2010.
Which is/are correct?
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Answer B. Only II
Only II is correct: Viqar-ul-Umra built Falaknuma; it passed to the sixth Nizam later and became a Taj hotel in 2010.
Source: Raghu, Telangana Society, Culture and Literature ch.39-40 (p.268); Falaknuma Palace (Taj, opened Nov 2010)
- Q105 Policies of Telangana State
Consider the following statements about the Aarogyasri changes of July 2024:
I. 163 new procedures were added.
II. Package rates of 1,375 procedures were revised.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
In July 2024, 163 procedures were added (total 1,835) and package rates of 1,375 procedures were revised.
Source: Government of Telangana, 9 December 2023 (Rs 10 lakh cover); Aarogyasri Health Care Trust; News on AIR, 23 July 2024 (163 procedures)
- Q106 Policies of Telangana State
Which of the following are features of the Bhu Bharati Act, 2025?
1. Free legal aid for poor farmers in land appeals
2. Regularisation of certain old unregistered sale deeds (sada bainamas)
3. Abolition of all appeals below the civil court
4. A unique parcel number (Bhudhaar)
Select the correct answer:
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Answer B. 1, 2 and 4 only
Legal aid, sada bainama regularisation and Bhudhaar are features; Bhu Bharati added appeals rather than removing them.
Source: Telangana Bhu Bharati (Record of Rights in Land) Act, 2025, ss.14–15; G.O. Ms. Nos. 36 and 39, 14 April 2025; The South First, 15 April 2025
- Q107 Policies of Telangana State
Consider the following statements about Mission Shakti (central scheme) as run in Telangana:
I. SAMBAL covers safety services like One Stop Centres and the women helpline.
II. SAMARTHYA covers Shakti Sadan shelters and working women's hostels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
SAMBAL = safety (OSC, 181, BBBP); SAMARTHYA = empowerment (Shakti Sadan, Sakhi Niwas, Palna).
Source: Telangana Socio Economic Outlook 2026 (women and child development)
- Q108 Policies of Telangana State
Consider the following statements about free bus travel under Mahalakshmi:
I. It covers women, girls and transgender persons domiciled in Telangana.
II. It covers all TGSRTC buses, including AC and luxury services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
Free travel covers women, girls and transgender persons, but only in non-luxury buses (Palle Velugu, Express, city ordinary, Metro Express).
Source: G.O. Ms. No. 47, 8 December 2023; TGSRTC releases on Mahalakshmi free travel
- Q109 Policies of Telangana State
Consider the following statements about Rythu Bharosa:
I. It pays Rs 6,000 per acre in each of the two crop seasons.
II. It was launched on Republic Day, 26 January 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Rythu Bharosa pays Rs 6,000 per acre a season (Rs 12,000 a year) and began on 26 January 2025.
Source: Telangana cabinet decision and Rythu Bharosa guidelines, January 2025 (Deccan Chronicle, Siasat, The South First)
- Q110 Policies of Telangana State
Consider the following statements about T-Safe of Telangana Police:
I. It was launched on 12 March 2024 to monitor the trips of women travellers.
II. A woman must install a smartphone app to use it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only I
T-Safe was launched on 12 March 2024 for trip monitoring by the Women Safety Wing. It also works from any phone by dialling 100 (or 112) and choosing option 8.
Source: Telangana Police Women Safety Wing; The South First and Siasat reports (12-13 March 2024)
- Q111 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
In a certain code, BAT is written as 69 and ROAD is written as 152. Using the same rule, how is ANDHRA written?
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Answer A. 276
BAT: (2 + 1 + 20) x 3 = 69 and ROAD: (18 + 15 + 1 + 4) x 4 = 152, so code = (sum of letter positions) x (number of letters). ANDHRA: (1 + 14 + 4 + 8 + 18 + 1) x 6 = 46 x 6 = 276.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q112 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Read the information and answer the question.
Six friends J, K, L, M, N and O sit at equal distances around a circular table at a get-together in Machilipatnam. Exactly three of them face the centre and the other three face away from the centre.
(i) K sits opposite J.
(ii) J faces the centre, and O sits immediately to the right of J.
(iii) O and J face opposite directions.
(iv) N sits immediately to the left of K.
(v) M sits immediately to the right of N.
(vi) L faces the centre.
(vii) M faces the same direction as K.
Who sits immediately to the left of O?
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Answer D. L
For a person facing the centre, right is the anticlockwise side; for a person facing away, right is the clockwise side. A Python search gives one arrangement; going clockwise from J: J (centre), M (away), N (centre), K (away), L (centre), O (away). O faces away from the centre, so his left is the anticlockwise side, where L sits.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q113 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
If '+' means 'x', '-' means '+', 'x' means '÷' and '÷' means '-', then what is the value of 16 x 4 + 3 - 8 ÷ 2?
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Answer A. 18
16 x 4 + 3 - 8 ÷ 2 becomes 16 ÷ 4 x 3 + 8 - 2. By BODMAS: 4 x 3 = 12, 12 + 8 - 2 = 18.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q114 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
If A @ B means A is the father of B, A # B means A is the daughter of B, A $ B means A is the sister of B and A % B means A is the husband of B, then in the expression L @ M $ N, how is N related to L?
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Answer A. Cannot be determined
L @ M: L is M's father. M $ N: M is N's sister, so N is also L's child. N's gender is not known, so son or daughter cannot be fixed.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q115 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Statements:
1. Some cities are towns.
2. All towns are villages.
Conclusions:
I. All cities being villages is a possibility.
II. Some villages are cities.
Considering the statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
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Answer C. Both I and II follow
Both I and II follow. Some cities are towns and all towns are villages, so some cities are villages (and so some villages are cities). Nothing stops all cities from being villages, so I is a valid possibility.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q116 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
What is the minimum number of straight cuts needed to cut a cube into 64 identical small cubes, if the pieces are not moved between cuts?
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Answer A. 9
64 = 4 x 4 x 4, so each direction must be divided into 4 parts, which needs 3 cuts. Total = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 cuts.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q117 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
If Kavya walks to her office at 5 km/h she is 6 minutes late, but at 6 km/h she is 4 minutes early. How far is the office?
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Answer C. 5 km
Time difference = 6 + 4 = 10 minutes = 1/6 hour. d/5 - d/6 = d/30 = 1/6, so d = 5 km.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q118 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Sales of a cooperative society were Rs 50 lakh in 2023 and Rs 64 lakh in 2024 (hypothetical data). Two pie charts give the share of each item:
2023: Rice 40%, Pulses 25%, Oil 20%, Others 15%
2024: Rice 35%, Pulses 30%, Oil 20%, Others 15%
By how much did the sales of pulses increase from 2023 to 2024?
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Answer C. Rs 6.7 lakh
Pulses 2023 = 25% of 50 = 12.5 lakh; 2024 = 30% of 64 = 19.2 lakh. Increase = 19.2 − 12.5 = Rs 6.7 lakh.
Source: Hypothetical data; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q119 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Find the mean of the following distribution.
Class: 0–20 20–40 40–60 60–80 80–100
Frequency: 5 8 12 10 5
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Answer C. 51
Σfx = 5×10 + 8×30 + 12×50 + 10×70 + 5×90 = 2040; Σf = 40; mean = 51.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q120 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
In a certain code, LOTUS is written as MNUTT. Which word is written as SNTD in the same code?
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Answer D. ROSE
LOTUS -> MNUTT uses +1, -1, +1, -1, +1. To decode, reverse the steps: S-1 = R, N+1 = O, T-1 = S, D+1 = E, giving ROSE.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q121 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
In a code, North-East is called West, South-East is called North, and all the other directions are renamed in the same manner. What will South-West be called?
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Answer D. East
North-East (45°) becomes West (270°), a clockwise rotation of 225°. Check: South-East (135°) + 225° = 360° = North. So South-West (225°) + 225° = 450° = 90°, East.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q122 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
In a certain code, MANGO is written as NBOHP. How is GUAVA written in that code?
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Answer A. HVBWB
MANGO -> NBOHP shows each letter is moved one place forward (+1). So GUAVA -> HVBWB.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q123 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Showing a boy, Meena remarked, "My mother-in-law's husband has only one son, and this boy is that son's son." What is the boy to Meena?
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Answer C. Son
Meena's mother-in-law's husband is her father-in-law. His only son is Meena's husband. The son of Meena's husband is Meena's son.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q124 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Statements: A ≥ B > C; C < D ≤ E
Conclusions:
I. A > C
II. E > C
Which of the conclusions definitely follow(s)?
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Answer C. Both I and II follow
A ≥ B > C, so A > C. C < D ≤ E reads E ≥ D > C, so E > C. Both follow.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q125 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
A leap year begins on a Tuesday. On which day of the week does that year end?
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Answer A. Wednesday
A leap year has 366 days, so 31 December is the 366th day, i.e. 365 days after 1 January. 365 leaves 1 odd day, so 31 December is Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
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Start free - Q126 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
How many times does the digit 7 appear when all the integers from 1 to 100 are written down?
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Answer C. 20
Units place: 7, 17, ..., 97 (10 times). Tens place: 70 to 79 (10 times). Total 20 (77 contributes 2).
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q127 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
The monthly budget of a hostel is Rs 2,40,000 (hypothetical data). A pie chart shows its spending as follows: Food 40%, Salaries 25%, Electricity 12%, Maintenance 8%, Others 15%.
By how much does the spending on Food exceed the spending on Electricity?
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Answer A. Rs 67,200
Difference in share = 40% − 12% = 28%. Amount = 28/100 × 2,40,000 = Rs 67,200 (Food 96,000 − Electricity 28,800).
Source: Hypothetical data; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q128 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
A 'less than' cumulative frequency table is given.
Marks less than: 10 20 30 40 50
Number of students: 4 12 25 34 40
In which class does the median lie?
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Answer B. 20–30
N = 40, N/2 = 20. The cumulative frequency is 12 below 20 marks and 25 below 30 marks, so the 20th student lies in 20–30.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q129 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
If PEN is coded as 16-5-14, how is INK coded?
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Answer B. 9-14-11
P = 16, E = 5, N = 14, so each letter is coded by its position. INK -> 9-14-11.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q130 Logical Reasoning, Analytical Ability & Data Interpretation
Ravi is the brother of Sita. Sita is the daughter of Gopal, who is a man. How is Gopal related to Ravi?
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Answer D. Father
Brother and sister have the same parents. Gopal (a man) is Sita's parent, so he is Ravi's father.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q131 Basic English
Read the sentence in three parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
(a) The rich (b) should help (c) a poor.
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Answer C. (c) a poor.
"The + adjective" names a whole class: "the poor", not "a poor".
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q132 Basic English
Choose the word opposite in meaning to FLAMMABLE.
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Answer A. Non-flammable
'Flammable' and 'inflammable' both mean 'burns easily'; the opposite is 'non-flammable'.
Source: Original item; meanings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary; Wren & Martin (word-building)
- Q133 Basic English
Identify the sentence(s) with the correct question tag:
A. She doesn't like coffee, does she?
B. You were in Karimnagar, didn't you?
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only A
A is correct: A negative sentence with "doesn't" takes "does she". B is incorrect: The helping verb is "were", so the tag is "weren't you".
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q134 Basic English
Choose the word nearest in meaning to BAFFLE.
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Answer C. Puzzle
A synonym has the same meaning: 'baffle' means puzzle.
Source: Original item; meanings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary; Wren & Martin (word-building)
- Q135 Basic English
Choose the best replacement for the part in capitals. If no change is needed, choose "No improvement".
We took a boat ride on THE Godavari during the holidays.
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Answer D. No improvement
Use 'the' before the names of rivers (the Godavari, the Krishna).
Source: Original item; rule per Wren & Martin, High School English Grammar and Composition
- Q136 Basic English
Identify the sentence(s) with the correct use of conjunctions:
A. Neither he or his wife was at home.
B. Hardly had I reached when it rained.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer B. Only B
A is incorrect: "Neither" pairs with "nor". B is correct: "Hardly … when" is correct.
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q137 Basic English
Choose the word nearest in meaning to TRANQUIL.
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Answer C. Calm
A synonym has the same meaning: 'tranquil' means calm.
Source: Original item; meanings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary; Wren & Martin (word-building)
- Q138 Basic English
Choose the best replacement for the part in capitals.
Sita is ELDER THAN her cousin.
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Answer D. older than
'Elder' is used before a noun ('my elder sister'); 'older' is used with 'than'.
Source: Original item; rule per Wren & Martin, High School English Grammar and Composition
- Q139 Basic English
Read the sentence in three parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
(a) My mother (b) told me (c) to don't waste water.
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Answer C. (c) to don't waste water.
A negative order is reported as "not to + verb": told me not to waste water.
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q140 Basic English
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word in capitals.
The new bridge over the Godavari made travel between the two towns much more CONVENIENT.
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Answer C. Troublesome
An antonym has the opposite meaning: convenient – troublesome (inconvenient).
Source: Original item; meanings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary; Wren & Martin (word-building)
- Q141 Basic English
Read the passage and answer the question.
Sunitha opened a small tailoring shop in her village near Nalgonda. At first, few people came, and she often felt discouraged. She did not give up. She learned new designs from videos and offered to stitch school uniforms at a fair price. Within two years she had three helpers and more orders than she could finish.
Why did Sunitha's business grow?
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Answer C. She learned new designs and charged fair prices.
Look for the actions the passage gives just before the result.
Source: Original item; method per Wren & Martin (composition) and SCERT Class 10 English reading exercises
- Q142 Basic English
Read the sentence in three parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
(a) She is (b) more taller (c) than her mother.
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Answer B. (b) more taller
"More taller" is a double comparative; write "taller".
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q143 Basic English
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom in capitals.
Losing that job was A BLESSING IN DISGUISE; he started his own shop.
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Answer B. Something good that first seemed bad
An idiom's meaning is not literal: 'a blessing in disguise' is something good that first looked bad.
Source: Original item; meanings and spellings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary and Oxford Learner's Dictionary of Idioms
- Q144 Basic English
The sentences below are jumbled. Choose the order that makes a meaningful paragraph.
P. It was built in the thirteenth century under the Kakatiya kings.
Q. Because of this history and art, UNESCO declared it a World Heritage Site in 2021.
R. Ramappa Temple is a famous temple near Mulugu in Telangana.
S. The sculptors of that period also gave its pillars fine carvings.
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Answer A. RPSQ
The opening sentence names the topic; 'that period' in S points back to P; 'this history and art' in Q sums up P and S, so Q closes.
Source: Original item; method per Wren & Martin (composition) and SCERT Class 10 English reading exercises
- Q145 Basic English
Read the sentence in three parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
(a) Did you (b) went to (c) the market?
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Answer B. (b) went to
After "did", use the base form: go.
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q146 Basic English
Choose the word nearest in meaning to BRIEF.
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Answer D. Short
A synonym has the same meaning: 'brief' means short.
Source: Original item; meanings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary; Wren & Martin (word-building)
- Q147 Basic English
Identify the sentence(s) with correct subject–verb agreement.
A. Every student has a library card.
B. Each of the girls have a bicycle.
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Answer A. Only A
Every, each and 'each of' take a singular verb.
Source: Original item; rule per Wren & Martin, High School English Grammar and Composition
- Q148 Basic English
Read the sentence in three parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, choose "No error".
(a) He told me (b) that he (c) was leaving.
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Answer D. (d) No error
The sentence is correct: "told me that" + past tense.
Source: Medha AI original item; rule as in standard school grammar (Wren & Martin; NCERT/SCERT Class 9-10 English)
- Q149 Basic English
Choose the word opposite in meaning to VISIBLE.
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Answer A. Invisible
An antonym has the opposite meaning: visible – invisible (prefix in-).
Source: Original item; meanings checked against Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary; Wren & Martin (word-building)
- Q150 Basic English
Read the passage and fill the blank.
Ravi is ___(1)___ honest boy. He studies in Class 10 at a government school ___(2)___ Karimnagar. Last week he found a purse on the road. He ___(3)___ it to the police station at once. The police praised him ___(4)___ his honesty.
Choose the word that best fills blank (1).
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Answer A. an
Use 'an' before a vowel sound, even when the first letter is a consonant.
Source: Original item; method per Wren & Martin (composition) and SCERT Class 10 English reading exercises
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