APPSC Group 1 · Screening Paper II · Topic 2

2 APPSC Group 1 Science and Technology questions with answers

61 questions from APPSC G1 Paper II Mock 1 with answers and APPSC G1 Paper II 2024 question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.

Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.

2.1.1Science policy, institutions and Indian scientistsNotes

  1. Match List I (ISRO centre) with List II (main role):

    List I:

    • A. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
    • B. U R Rao Satellite Centre
    • C. National Remote Sensing Centre
    • D. Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR

    List II:

    • 1. Launch base
    • 2. Design and building of satellites
    • 3. Launch vehicle development
    • 4. Acquiring and processing remote sensing data
    1. AA-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    2. BA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    3. CA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    4. DA-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

    VSSC (Thiruvananthapuram) develops launch vehicles, URSC (Bengaluru) builds satellites, NRSC (Hyderabad) handles remote sensing data and SDSC SHAR (Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh) is the launch base.

    Source: ISRO, Centres (isro.gov.in)

  2. Consider the following statements about India's Department of Atomic Energy (DAE):

    1. It was set up in 1954 under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.

    2. The Atomic Energy Commission was first constituted in 1958, after the DAE.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A2 only
    2. BBoth 1 and 2
    3. C1 only
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 1 only

    DAE was set up on 3 August 1954 under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The Atomic Energy Commission was first constituted in August 1948 under the Atomic Energy Act, 1948; a Government Resolution of 1 March 1958 re-established it within the DAE with full powers. So the AEC first came before the DAE, and statement 2 is wrong.

    Source: Department of Atomic Energy, History (dae.gov.in)

  3. Which one of the following pairs of DRDO laboratory and its main area of work is NOT correctly matched?

    1. ADefence Research and Development Laboratory, Hyderabad : Missiles
    2. BCentre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics, Bengaluru : AI and robotics
    3. CGas Turbine Research Establishment, Bengaluru : Aero gas turbine engines
    4. DArmament Research and Development Establishment, Pune : Submarine sonar systems
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. Armament Research and Development Establishment, Pune : Submarine sonar systems

    ARDE Pune works on conventional armaments (guns, rockets, warheads); naval sonar is the work of NPOL, Kochi. The other three pairs are correct; GTRE developed the Kaveri engine.

    Source: DRDO, Laboratories and Establishments (drdo.gov.in)

  4. Match List I (CSIR laboratory) with List II (location):

    List I:

    • A. National Physical Laboratory
    • B. National Aerospace Laboratories
    • C. Central Drug Research Institute
    • D. National Geophysical Research Institute

    List II:

    • 1. Lucknow
    • 2. Hyderabad
    • 3. New Delhi
    • 4. Bengaluru
    1. AA-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    2. BA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    3. CA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    4. DA-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

    NPL is in New Delhi (it keeps Indian Standard Time), NAL in Bengaluru, CDRI in Lucknow and NGRI in Hyderabad.

    Source: CSIR, Laboratories (csir.res.in)

  5. Consider the following statements :

    I. India retained the 40th position in Global Innovation Index among the top innovative economies globally as per Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023.

    II. As per WIPO Report 2022, India is ranked at 7th position in terms of Resident Patent Filing activity in the world.

    III. India improved its ranking to 60th position in 2023 from 79th position in 2019 as per Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2023 Report.

    IV. India secured 42nd position out of the 55 countries in the Global Intellectual Property Index 2024 as per the 12th edition of International Intellectual Property Index.

    Which among the above statements are incorrect ?

    1. AI, II and IV
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CII and IV only
    4. DNone of the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. None of the above

    All four are correct: India stayed 40th in GII 2023, was 7th in resident patent filings (WIPO 2022), rose to 60th in NRI 2023 from 79th in 2019, and was 42nd of 55 in the US Chamber's 12th International IP Index (2024).

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q69, final key

  6. Among the following, identify the lead institutions which are in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory as a part of LIGO-India project :

    I. Institute for Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar

    II. Kepler's Observatory & Research Centre, Haryana

    III. Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune

    IV. Raja Ramanna Center for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore

    V. Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BII, III and V
    3. CI, III and IV
    4. DII, III and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. I, III and IV

    LIGO-India is led by IPR Gandhinagar, IUCAA Pune and RRCAT Indore (with DCSEM), working with the US LIGO Laboratory; the detector is being built in Hingoli, Maharashtra.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q71, final key

  7. Who among the following is the first Indian woman to get a Ph.D. in a science discipline ?

    1. AKamala Sohonie
    2. BAnandibai Joshee
    3. CJanaki Ammal
    4. DMaharani Chakravorty
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Kamala Sohonie

    Biochemist Kamala Sohonie earned a Ph.D. from Cambridge in 1939, and is commonly cited as the first Indian woman to get a Ph.D. in a science subject (Janaki Ammal's 1931 Michigan degree was a D.Sc.).

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q73, final key

  8. Which of the following programme by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is to encourage and support senior women scientists to conduct research in interdisciplinary areas of science and technology ?

    1. AINSPIRE-SHE
    2. BGATI
    3. CSERB-POWER
    4. DWIDUSHI
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. WIDUSHI

    WIDUSHI (Women Scientists Programme for senior women) under DST's WISE-KIRAN supports women scientists aged about 50–60 to do research in interdisciplinary areas.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q80, final key

2.2.1ICT, e-governance and cyber securityNotes

  1. Consider the following statements about CERT-In:

    I. It has been operational since 2004.

    II. It is the national agency for incident response under section 70B of the IT Act, 2000.

    III. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    Statements I and II are correct; CERT-In works under MeitY, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

    Source: Information Technology Act, 2000 s.70B

  2. Consider the following statements about cyber laws in India:

    I. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes the Data Protection Board of India.

    II. CERT-In is the national agency for incident response under section 70B of the IT Act, 2000.

    III. Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 was upheld by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BIII only
    3. CI and II only
    4. DII and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. III only

    Only statement III is not correct: section 66A was struck down, not upheld, in Shreya Singhal (2015).

    Source: Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 ss.2(i), 2(j), 18; Information Technology Act, 2000 s.70B; Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1

  3. Match the following with the person associated with them:

    List I

    a. World Wide Web

    b. Linux operating system kernel

    c. First network e-mail using '@'

    d. Analytical Engine

    List II

    I. Charles Babbage

    II. Ray Tomlinson

    III. Tim Berners-Lee

    IV. Linus Torvalds

    1. Aa-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
    2. Ba-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    4. Da-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

    Tim Berners-Lee invented the WWW, Linus Torvalds created Linux, Ray Tomlinson sent the first network e-mail with '@', and Charles Babbage designed the Analytical Engine.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Fundamentals of Human Geography p.78

  4. Which of the following state's online civic tax payment software suffered a cyber-attack recently ?

    1. AMadhya Pradesh
    2. BOdisha
    3. CUttar Pradesh
    4. DTamil Nadu
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Madhya Pradesh

    In January 2024 a ransomware attack hit Madhya Pradesh's e-Nagarpalika portal, used by urban bodies for online civic tax payments, halting services for days.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q79, final key

  5. A multimodal AI tool that can respond in 11 Indian languages developed indigenously by BharatGPT ecosystem and Seetha Mahalakshmi Healthcare (SML) is :

    1. AKrutrim
    2. BBhashini
    3. COpenHathi
    4. DHanooman
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. Hanooman

    Hanooman is the multimodal generative AI model built by the BharatGPT consortium (led by IIT Bombay) with Seetha Mahalakshmi Healthcare, able to respond in 11 Indian languages.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q82, final key

2.3.1Space and defence technologyNotes

  1. Match List I (defence public sector undertaking) with List II (headquarters):

    List I

    a. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

    b. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited

    c. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers

    d. Bharat Dynamics Limited

    List II

    I. Hyderabad

    II. Bengaluru

    III. Kolkata

    IV. Mumbai

    1. Aa-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
    2. Ba-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II
    3. Ca-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
    4. Da-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I

    HAL is at Bengaluru, Mazagon Dock at Mumbai, GRSE at Kolkata and Bharat Dynamics Limited at Hyderabad.

    Source: Department of Defence Production DPSU list

  2. Assertion (A): The first deterrence patrol of INS Arihant in 2018 completed India's nuclear triad.

    Reason (R): INS Arihant gave India the ability to launch nuclear weapons from the sea, adding to its existing land-based and air-based delivery means.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    INS Arihant's first deterrence patrol (November 2018) completed India's nuclear triad. A triad means delivery from land, air and sea, and Arihant supplied the sea-based leg, so R explains A.

    Source: PIB 5 Nov 2018

  3. Consider the following statements about Mission Shakti:

    I. India destroyed one of its own satellites in low Earth orbit.

    II. India was the third country, after the USA and Russia, to show this capability.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I only

    Only statement I is correct; India was the fourth country (after the USA, Russia and China) to demonstrate ASAT capability.

    Source: MEA FAQ on Mission Shakti, 2019

  4. Match List I (defence system) with List II (type):

    List I

    a. Tejas

    b. Prachand

    c. Arjun

    d. Pinaka

    List II

    I. Multi-barrel rocket launcher

    II. Main battle tank

    III. Light combat helicopter

    IV. Light combat aircraft

    1. Aa-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
    2. Ba-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    4. Da-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

    Tejas is a light combat aircraft, Prachand a light combat helicopter, Arjun a main battle tank and Pinaka a multi-barrel rocket launcher.

    Source: HAL and DRDO product pages

  5. Assertion (A): INS Arihant can stay submerged for much longer periods than a Kalvari-class submarine.

    Reason (R): INS Arihant is nuclear-powered, while Kalvari-class submarines are diesel-electric.

    Choose the correct option.

    1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true, but R is false
    4. DA is false, but R is true
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    Both are true and R explains A: a nuclear reactor does not need air, while a diesel-electric submarine must come up to snorkel depth to run its diesels and recharge batteries.

    Source: Indian Navy submarine arm overview

  6. Consider the following statements about 'Women Engineered SATellite' (WESAT) :

    I. WESAT is the first Indian satellite to be fully designed and developed by women students of Lal Bahadur Shastri Institute of Technology for Women, Kerala.

    II. WESAT was launched aboard the PSLV-C58/XPoSAT Mission as one of the secondary payloads on 1st January, 2024.

    III. WESAT is meant to study how rainfall refills underground water in rural areas of India.

    Which among the above statements are correct ?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DAll the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    WESAT, built by women students of LBS Institute of Technology for Women, Thiruvananthapuram, flew on PSLV-C58 on 1 January 2024. Its job is to measure solar ultraviolet radiation, not groundwater recharge.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q63, final key

  7. Consider the following statements about the indigenous Green propulsion system that was successfully demonstrated in space on ISRO's PSLV-C58 mission :

    I. It was developed by Bellatrix Aerospace Private Limited under the Technology Development Fund scheme of DRDO.

    II. Green propulsion system is an innovative technology which is a non-toxic and environmentally-friendly propulsion system for low orbit space.

    III. Green propulsion system is ideal for space missions with high thrust requirement.

    Which among the above statements are correct ?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DAll the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. All the above

    The 1N-class green propulsion thruster flown on POEM-3 of PSLV-C58 was built by Bellatrix Aerospace under DRDO's TDF scheme; the official release described it as non-toxic, eco-friendly and ideal for low-orbit missions with high thrust needs.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q67, final key

  8. Identify the spacecraft deployed by the NASA to study the physical changes in 'God of Chaos' asteroid which will be nearing the Earth's orbit by 2029 :

    1. AOSIRIS-APEX
    2. BNew Shepard
    3. CVoskhod
    4. DPioneer 13
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. OSIRIS-APEX

    OSIRIS-REx, renamed OSIRIS-APEX after returning its Bennu sample, will meet asteroid Apophis ('God of Chaos') after its close Earth flyby in April 2029.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q72, final key

  9. Consider the following statements regarding GSAT-N2 :

    I. It is the first demand driven satellite mission that is fully funded and owned by New Space India Limited (NSIL).

    II. GSAT-N2 satellite will be lifted by using SpaceX's Falcon-9 rocket and is scheduled in the 2nd quarter of 2025.

    III. The collaboration of NSIL with SpaceX was made due to the current limitation of India's rockets, which are lacking in the capacity to lift large communication satellites.

    Which among the above given statements are correct ?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and III
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. I and III

    GSAT-N2 (GSAT-20) is NSIL's demand-driven Ka-band satellite, fully funded and owned by NSIL. It went on SpaceX's Falcon 9 because the ~4,700 kg satellite exceeded LVM3's GTO capacity; the launch was scheduled for the second quarter of 2024 (it flew in November 2024), not 2025.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q89, final key

2.4.1Energy: needs, resources and policyNotes

  1. Consider the following statements about geothermal energy:

    I. It exists because the Earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth.

    II. The average geothermal gradient in the upper crust is about 30 degrees C per kilometre.

    III. India's geothermal project at Manikaran is located in Uttarakhand.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    Statements I and II are correct; Manikaran is in the Parvati valley of Himachal Pradesh, not Uttarakhand.

    Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.67; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.98; AP SCERT Class 8 Geography p.76

  2. Match the following nuclear power stations with the State in which they are located:

    List I

    a. Kaiga

    b. Kakrapar

    c. Narora

    d. Rawatbhata

    List II

    I. Gujarat

    II. Karnataka

    III. Rajasthan

    IV. Uttar Pradesh

    1. Aa-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
    2. Ba-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
    3. Ca-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
    4. Da-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

    Kaiga is in Karnataka, Kakrapar in Gujarat, Narora in Uttar Pradesh and Rawatbhata in Rajasthan.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy p.71; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.66; AP SCERT Class 8 Geography p.74

  3. Match the reactors at each site (List I) with their reactor technology (List II):

    List I

    a. Tarapur (Units 1 and 2)

    b. Kudankulam

    c. Rawatbhata

    d. Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, Kalpakkam

    List II

    I. Pressurised heavy water reactor

    II. Sodium-cooled fast breeder reactor

    III. Boiling water reactor

    IV. VVER pressurised light water reactor

    1. Aa-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    2. Ba-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    4. Da-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

    Tarapur 1-2 are boiling water reactors, Kudankulam has Russian VVERs, Rawatbhata has PHWRs and the PFBR is a sodium-cooled fast breeder.

    Source: NPCIL plant pages; BHAVINI

  4. Assertion (A): Heavy industries and thermal power stations are usually located on or near coalfields.

    Reason (R): Coal is a bulky material that loses weight on use as it is reduced to ash.

    Choose the correct option.

    1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true, but R is false
    4. DA is false, but R is true
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    Both are true and R explains A: since coal is bulky and weight-losing, it is cheaper to set up plants near the coalfields.

    Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.64

  5. Match List I (type of hydrogen) with List II (how it is produced):

    List I

    a. Green hydrogen

    b. Grey hydrogen

    c. Blue hydrogen

    d. Brown hydrogen

    List II

    I. From natural gas, with the carbon dioxide released into the air

    II. From coal or lignite gasification

    III. From natural gas, with carbon capture and storage

    IV. By electrolysis of water using renewable electricity

    1. Aa-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
    2. Ba-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
    3. Ca-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    4. Da-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II

    Green hydrogen comes from electrolysis with renewable power, grey from natural gas without carbon capture, blue from natural gas with carbon capture and brown from coal.

    Source: MNRE Green Hydrogen Standard 2023

  6. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) for innovation and research in the renewable energy sector with :

    1. AIIT Madras
    2. BIIT Guwahati
    3. CIIT Bhubaneswar
    4. DIIT Bombay
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. IIT Bhubaneswar

    In 2024 IREDA signed an MoU with IIT Bhubaneswar to promote innovation, research and start-ups in renewable energy.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q68, final key

  7. India's indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) of 500 MWe capacity at Kalapakkam was developed by :

    1. ABhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
    2. BCentral Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CIMFR)
    3. CIndira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR)
    4. DBharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI)
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI)

    The 500 MWe PFBR at Kalpakkam, whose core loading began in March 2024, was built and is run by BHAVINI; IGCAR did the design work, but official releases credit BHAVINI with building it.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q70, final key

  8. NITI Aayog's 'Methanol Economy' programme is aimed at :

    I. Reducing India's oil import bill.

    II. Reducing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emission.

    III. Converting coal reserves and municipal solid waste into methanol.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I, II and III

    NITI Aayog's Methanol Economy programme seeks to cut India's oil import bill and greenhouse gas emissions by producing methanol from domestic coal reserves and municipal solid waste, so all three aims are correct.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q83, final key

  9. Consider the following statements :

    Statement I : India has tremendous Solar power generation potential.

    Statement II : India experiences clear sunny weather for 250 to 300 days per year and this exposure to the Sun is estimated to be worth 5000 Tn kilowatt hour of energy in a year over India's land area.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AStatement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
    2. BStatement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
    3. CStatement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

    India receives about 5,000 trillion kWh of solar energy a year over its land area, with 250 to 300 clear sunny days in most regions. This abundant sunshine is exactly why its solar power potential is so large, so II correctly explains I.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q90, final key

2.5.1Environment, climate change and disaster managementNotes

  1. Assertion (A): The grazing food chain begins with dead organic matter.

    Reason (R): The detritus food chain is made up of decomposers, mainly fungi and bacteria.

    1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true, but R is false
    4. DA is false, but R is true
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. A is false, but R is true

    A is false because the grazing food chain begins with producers; R is true because the detritus food chain, which begins with dead organic matter, is made of decomposers.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.221; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.222

  2. Match the institutions in List I with their headquarters in List II.

    List I

    a. National Biodiversity Authority

    b. Forest Survey of India

    c. Zoological Survey of India

    d. CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute

    List II

    I. Kolkata

    II. Nagpur

    III. Chennai

    IV. Dehradun

    1. Aa-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    2. Ba-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    4. Da-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

    NBA - Chennai, FSI - Dehradun, ZSI - Kolkata, NEERI - Nagpur.

    Source: Official websites of NBA, FSI, ZSI and NEERI

  3. For species–area relationships analysed over very large areas such as entire continents, the slope (Z) of the regression line is found to be in the range of:

    1. A0.1 to 0.2
    2. B0.01 to 0.05
    3. C0.6 to 1.2
    4. D2.0 to 3.0
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 0.6 to 1.2

    Over entire continents the slope is much steeper, with Z between 0.6 and 1.2 (1.15 for fruit-eating birds and mammals of tropical forests), compared with 0.1 to 0.2 within a region.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.232

  4. Match List I with List II:

    List I

    a. Lichen

    b. Cattle egret and grazing cattle

    c. Tick on a dog

    d. Flamingoes and fishes feeding on zooplankton

    List II

    I. Commensalism

    II. Competition

    III. Mutualism

    IV. Parasitism

    1. Aa-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
    2. Ba-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
    4. Da-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II

    Lichen is mutualism, egret and cattle is commensalism, a tick on a dog is parasitism and flamingoes with fishes is competition.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.213; NCERT Class 8 Science (Curiosity) p.223; NCERT Class 11 Biology p.33

  5. Match the following recently extinct animals with the region where they lived:

    List I

    a. Dodo

    b. Quagga

    c. Thylacine

    d. Steller's sea cow

    List II

    I. Mauritius

    II. Australia

    III. Africa

    IV. Russia

    1. Aa-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
    2. Ba-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
    3. Ca-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
    4. Da-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV

    Dodo - Mauritius, quagga - Africa, thylacine - Australia and Steller's sea cow - Russia.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.233

  6. Consider the following statements based on NCERT:

    I. If Robert May's global estimate is accepted, only about 22 per cent of all species have been recorded so far.

    II. Nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many species of animals have been recorded from India.

    III. India probably has more than 3,00,000 plant species that are yet to be discovered and described.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is wrong: NCERT estimates more than 1,00,000 plant species and more than 3,00,000 animal species yet to be discovered in India.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.231

  7. Match List I (area/zone) with List II (ambient noise limit at NIGHT under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000):

    List I

    a. Industrial area

    b. Commercial area

    c. Residential area

    d. Silence zone

    List II

    I. 45 dB(A)

    II. 70 dB(A)

    III. 40 dB(A)

    IV. 55 dB(A)

    1. Aa-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
    2. Ba-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
    3. Ca-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
    4. Da-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III

    Night-time limits are 70 dB(A) for industrial, 55 for commercial, 45 for residential areas and 40 for silence zones (day limits are 75, 65, 55 and 50).

    Source: Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, Schedule

  8. Match List I (Biosphere Reserve) with List II (State):

    List I

    a. Dehang-Debang

    b. Dibru-Saikhowa

    c. Cold Desert

    d. Agasthyamalai

    List II

    I. Assam

    II. Himachal Pradesh

    III. Arunachal Pradesh

    IV. Tamil Nadu and Kerala

    1. Aa-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
    2. Ba-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
    4. Da-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV

    Dehang-Debang is in Arunachal Pradesh, Dibru-Saikhowa in Assam, Cold Desert in Himachal Pradesh and Agasthyamalai in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

    Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.5 p.60 (Table 5.1)

  9. Consider the following statements about Seed Vaults :

    I. Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a facility on a remote Norwegian Spitsbergen Island, and it is the world's largest secure seed storage vault.

    II. India's Seed Vault is located in a high-altitude mountain pass on the Chang La in Ladakh.

    III. Indian Seed Vault is a joint venture of National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research.

    Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BI and III only
    3. CII only
    4. DNone of the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. None of the above

    All three are correct: Svalbard on Spitsbergen is the world's largest seed vault, and India's vault at Chang La in Ladakh was set up jointly by NBPGR and DRDO's DIHAR.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q61, final key

  10. Identify the new sites in India added to the list of Ramsar sites on the eve of World Wetland Day 2024 :

    I. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary

    II. Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary

    III. Pichvaram Mangrove

    IV. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve

    V. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and III only
    2. BII and IV only
    3. CI and IV only
    4. DI and V only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. I and IV only

    The five sites added in January 2024 were Karaivetti, Longwood Shola, Magadi Kere, Ankasamudra and Aghanashini. Thol, Pichavaram and Bhindawas were designated earlier (2021–22).

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q62, final key

  11. Which among the following is the world's first country to propose a tax for agricultural emissions to achieve the emission reduction target by 2050 ?

    1. ANew Zealand
    2. BMexico
    3. CBrazil
    4. DArgentina
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. New Zealand

    In 2022 New Zealand proposed pricing methane and nitrous oxide from farm animals and fertiliser, the first such plan in the world, as part of its 2050 net-zero target.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q64, final key

  12. Consider the following statements regarding Sun Halo :

    I. Sun Halo is an optical phenomenon that occurs due to sunlight refracting in millions of hexagonal ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere.

    II. Sun Halo takes the form of a ring with a radius of approximately 22 degrees around the Sun.

    III. Sun Halo is specifically produced by cumulonimbus clouds, which are thin, detached hair-like clouds.

    Which among the above statements is/are correct ?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DII and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    A 22° halo forms when sunlight refracts through hexagonal ice crystals in high cirrus or cirrostratus clouds. Cumulonimbus are towering storm clouds, not thin hair-like ones.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q75, final key

  13. Consider the following statements :

    Statement I : Coral reefs are often called the 'Rainforests of the Sea'.

    Statement II : Coral reefs break the power of the waves during storms and hurricanes, thus preventing coastal erosion.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AStatement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
    2. BStatement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

    Reefs are called rainforests of the sea for their very high biodiversity. Their role as wave breakers is true but is a separate fact, not the reason for the name.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q76, final key

  14. Consider the following statements regarding 30 by 30 initiative :

    I. 30 by 30 is a global initiative for governments for ensuring that at least 30% of the energy requirements should be met by renewable sources by 2030 to achieve Net Zero target.

    II. 30 by 30 initiative was launched by High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People.

    III. India is the first among the BRICS countries to join the High Ambition Coalition (HAC).

    Which among the above statements are correct ?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DAll the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. II and III only

    30x30 aims to protect 30% of the world's land and ocean by 2030, not a renewable-energy share. It is championed by the High Ambition Coalition for Nature and People, which India joined in 2021 as the first BRICS member.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q77, final key

  15. Identify the Biosphere Reserves in India, which are not a part of Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO :

    I. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

    II. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve

    III. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve

    IV. Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve

    V. Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI, II and IV
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CI, IV and V
    4. DII, IV and V
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. II, IV and V

    Nokrek (2009) and Khangchendzonga (2018) are in UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves; Cold Desert, Dibru-Saikhowa and Great Rann of Kutch are not.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q78, final key

  16. Which of the following statement is correct regarding 'Impatiens Karuppusamyi', seen in the news recently ?

    1. AA new aquatic flora discovered by the National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) in Thamirabarani river of Tamil Nadu.
    2. BA new species of Hoof fungus grown on plant species discovered by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve.
    3. CA new species of Bamboo-dwelling bat discovered by Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) in Madumalai Tiger Reserve.
    4. DA new species of plant discovered by researchers of Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. A new species of plant discovered by researchers of Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

    Impatiens karuppusamyi is a new balsam (flowering plant) species described by Botanical Survey of India researchers from the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in the southern Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q85, final key

  17. Consider the following statements regarding Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative :

    I. Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative was launched at COP27 and it is a collaboration between the Vulnerable Twenty (V20) group, the Group of Seven (G7) and other supporting countries.

    II. The Global Shield will increase protection for vulnerable people and countries by substantially enhancing Climate and Disaster Risk Finance and Insurance (CDRFI).

    Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNone of the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. None of the above

    The Global Shield against Climate Risks was launched at COP27 (Sharm el-Sheikh, 2022) by the V20 and the G7 with other supporters, and it works by scaling up pre-arranged Climate and Disaster Risk Finance and Insurance. Both statements are correct, so none is incorrect.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q86, final key

  18. Which among the following in India have been named as 'Hope Spots' by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and Mission Blue ?

    1. ALakshadweep Islands and Raghopur Diyara Island
    2. BAndaman and Nicobar Islands and Keibul Lamjao Island
    3. CAndaman and Nicobar Islands and Diu Island
    4. DLakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

    In 2023 Mission Blue, in partnership with IUCN, declared the Lakshadweep Islands and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as India's first 'Hope Spots', ocean areas critical for marine biodiversity.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q87, final key

  19. Consider the following statements regarding Conference of Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP14) :

    I. The 14th session of CMS COP14 was held from 12th to 17th February, 2024 at Samarkand, Uzbekistan.

    II. The CMS COP14 was convened under the slogan "Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home".

    III. CMS COP14 was the first global biodiversity gathering since the adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)-2022.

    Which among the above statements are correct ?

    1. AI and II
    2. BI and III
    3. CII and III
    4. DAll the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. I and III

    CMS COP14 met in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, from 12 to 17 February 2024 and was billed as the first global biodiversity meeting after the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022). Its slogan was "Nature knows no borders"; the phrase in II was the slogan of COP13 (Gandhinagar, 2020).

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q88, final key

2.6.1Biotechnology, nanotechnology, genetics and healthNotes

  1. Consider the following statements about the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):

    I. It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

    II. It was set up under the Seeds Act, 1966.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I only

    Only statement I is correct: GEAC works under MoEFCC and draws its powers from the 1989 Rules made under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Seeds Act.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.196; Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro-organisms, Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989 (under EP Act 1986) Rule 4

  2. Match List I (scientist) with List II (contribution):

    List I:

    • A. Edward Jenner
    • B. Karl Landsteiner
    • C. Alexander Fleming
    • D. Robert Koch

    List II:

    • 1. Penicillin
    • 2. Smallpox vaccine
    • 3. ABO blood groups
    • 4. Identification of the tuberculosis bacterium
    1. AA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    2. BA-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    3. CA-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    4. DA-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

    Jenner developed the smallpox vaccine (1796), Landsteiner discovered the ABO blood groups, Fleming discovered penicillin and Koch identified the tubercle bacillus (1882).

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 and ch.10; history of medicine

  3. Consider the following statements about biofertilisers:

    I. Azotobacter and Azospirillum fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil.

    II. The mycorrhizal fungus Glomus absorbs nitrogen from the soil and passes it to the plant.

    III. Cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser in paddy fields.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. I and III only

    Statements I and III are correct; Glomus absorbs phosphorus, not nitrogen, and passes it to the plant.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.170

  4. Consider the following statements:

    1. Antibiotics are effective against viral infections such as the common cold.

    2. Ringworm is caused by a parasitic worm.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Antibiotics act against bacteria, not viruses, so they do not treat the common cold. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection (Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton), not a worm.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 (Human Health and Disease)

  5. Consider the following statements:

    1. Immunity produced by vaccination is active immunity.

    2. Active immunity develops faster than passive immunity.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. 1 only

    A vaccine makes the body produce its own antibodies and memory cells, which is active immunity. Active immunity is slow to develop, whereas passive immunity (ready-made antibodies) acts at once.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 (Immunity)

  6. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A) : A person with AB+ve blood group is called as 'Universal Recipient'.

    Reason (R) : A person with AB+ve blood group has A & B antigens and Antibodies in Plasma.

    1. A(A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. B(A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. DBoth (A) and (R) are false.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    AB+ve people are universal recipients because their red cells carry A and B antigens and their plasma has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies. R wrongly says the plasma has antibodies.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q51, final key

  7. Consider the following statements about Garbhini-GA2 :

    I. It is the first India-specific Artificial Intelligence (AI) model which accurately determines the age of a fetus in pregnant women in the second and third trimesters.

    II. Garbhini-GA2 was developed by the researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad.

    Which among the above statements is/are correct ?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNone of the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Both I and II

    Garbhini-GA2 (2024) is India's first population-specific model to estimate gestational age in the second and third trimesters, built by IIT Madras and THSTI Faridabad under the GARBH-Ini programme.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q65, final key

  8. Identify India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy for which Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) granted market approval :

    1. ANexCAR19
    2. BTECARTUS
    3. CIND YESCARTA
    4. DBREYANZI-BH
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. NexCAR19

    NexCAR19, developed by IIT Bombay, Tata Memorial Centre and ImmunoACT, received CDSCO approval in October 2023 for B-cell cancers.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q66, final key

  9. The smart, biodegradable, natural polymer-based nanoparticles from renewable resources for treating colorectal cancer were developed by researchers of :

    1. AIndian Institute of Technology, Mandi
    2. BIndian Institute of Technology, Bombay
    3. CIndian Institute of Technology, Madras
    4. DIndian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Tirupati
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi

    In 2024 IIT Mandi researchers reported biodegradable nanoparticles made from natural polymers that release anti-cancer drugs at colorectal tumour sites.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q74, final key

  10. Consider the following statements about ARTSENS device :

    I. It is a novel, non-invasive device to assess the health and age of the neurons and thereby provide early screening for central nervous system diseases.

    II. ARTSENS device was developed by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences (NIMHANS).

    III. ARTSENS device is powered by a proprietary non-imaging probe and an intelligent computing platform.

    Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and III
    4. DII only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II

    ARTSENS (ARTerial Stiffness Evaluation for Non-invasive Screening) was developed by IIT Madras's Healthcare Technology Innovation Centre. It assesses the health and age of blood vessels (arterial stiffness) for early cardiovascular screening, not neurons, so I and II are incorrect; III correctly describes its non-imaging probe and computing platform.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q81, final key

  11. Which among the following acts as a nodal agency for sourcing of the Aarogya Maitri Cubes developed indigenously under Project BHISHM ?

    1. AHLL Lifecare Limited
    2. BIndian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited
    3. CEmergent Medi-Tech India Pvt Limited
    4. DBiosurge Healthcare India Pvt Limited
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. HLL Lifecare Limited

    Under Project BHISHM (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog, Hita and Maitri), the portable Aarogya Maitri disaster-hospital cubes are sourced through HLL Lifecare Limited, a Central PSU under the Ministry of Health, as the nodal agency.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper II 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q84, final key

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