Free mock test · Group 1
APPSC G1 Paper II Mock 1 with answers
- 120 questions
- 120 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this test (3)
Questions and answers
- Q1 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
What is the greatest number of pieces into which a cube-shaped cake can be cut with 4 straight plane cuts, if the pieces are not moved between cuts?
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Answer D. 15
With plane cuts the maximum pieces are 2, 4, 8 for 1, 2, 3 cuts. A fourth plane meets the first three planes in 3 lines, which divide it into at most 7 regions; so it adds 7 pieces: 8 + 7 = 15.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q2 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Statements:
1. All engineers are graduates.
2. Raju is an engineer.
Conclusions:
I. Raju is a graduate.
II. All graduates are engineers.
Considering the statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
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Answer A. Only I follows
Only I follows. Raju is an engineer and every engineer is a graduate, so Raju is a graduate. An 'All' statement cannot be reversed.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q3 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to differ from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. ('Only a few X are Y' means that some X are Y and some X are not Y.)
Statements:
1. All lakes are ponds.
2. Only a few ponds are wells.
Conclusions:
I. All lakes being wells is a possibility.
II. Some wells are not ponds.
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Answer A. Only I follows
Only I follows. The lakes may all lie inside the part of the ponds that are wells, so the possibility exists. All wells may be ponds, so II is not definite.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q4 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Draw a rectangle, join its opposite corners by both diagonals, and join the mid-points of its top and bottom sides by a vertical line. How many triangles can be counted?
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Answer D. 12
The rectangle with both diagonals has 8 triangles (4 small ones and 4 made of two small ones). The vertical line through the centre splits the top and bottom small triangles into right triangles with a vertex at the centre, adding 4 triangles: two on top (each half of the top triangle) and two at the bottom. Total = 12.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q5 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Which letter comes seventh? A, Z, C, X, E, V, ?
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Answer A. G
Two series alternate: A, C, E, ? (+2) and Z, X, V (-2). The 7th term belongs to the first series: G.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q6 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Which number should come in place of the question mark? 2, 4, 10, 28, 82, ?
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Answer C. 244
Rule: x 3 - 2. 2 -> 4 -> 10 -> 28 -> 82 -> 82 x 3 - 2 = 244.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q7 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Take the three statements below to be true even if they seem to differ from commonly known facts.
1. Some actors are singers.
2. All singers are dancers.
3. No dancer is a painter.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from them with certainty?
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Answer D. Some actors are not painters
Some actors are singers, all singers are dancers, and no dancer is a painter; so the actors who are singers are not painters, i.e. some actors are not painters.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q8 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
If P means '+', Q means '-', R means 'x' and S means '÷', what is the value of 36 S 4 R 3 P 8 Q 5?
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Answer B. 30
Replace the letters: 36 ÷ 4 x 3 + 8 - 5. Left to right for ÷ and x: 9 x 3 = 27. Then 27 + 8 - 5 = 30.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q9 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A window of a school in Eluru was broken by one of four students, Anil, Bala, Chandra and Durga. Anil says, 'Bala broke it.' Bala says, 'Durga broke it.' Chandra says, 'I did not break it.' Durga says, 'Bala is lying.' If only one of the four statements is true, who broke the window?
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Answer B. Chandra
Check each culprit and count the true statements: Anil 2, Bala 3, Chandra 1, Durga 2. Only 'Chandra' gives exactly one true statement.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q10 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Find the next letter in the series: B, E, H, K, N, ?
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Answer C. Q
Positions are 2, 5, 8, 11, 14 (step +3), so the next is 17 = Q.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q11 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Which letter group comes next? DKM, FJN, HIO, ?
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Answer B. JHP
Letter by letter: D -> F -> H -> J (+2); K -> J -> I -> H (-1); M -> N -> O -> P (+1). Next term: JHP.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q12 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
If A @ B means A is the father of B, A # B means A is the daughter of B, A $ B means A is the sister of B and A % B means A is the husband of B, then in the expression P @ Q $ R # S, how is S related to P?
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Answer A. Wife
P @ Q: P is Q's father. Q $ R: Q and R are sisters, so P is R's father too. R # S: R is S's daughter. R's two parents are P (father) and S, so S is P's wife.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q13 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A five-pointed star (a pentagram) is drawn with five straight lines, each line joining two points of the star; there is no outer border. How many triangles are there in the figure?
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Answer B. 10
The 5 tips of the star are 5 small triangles. There are also 5 larger triangles, each with two points of the star (joined by one line) as two vertices and a crossing point of the other lines as the third. Total = 5 + 5 = 10.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q14 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Statements:
1. All mobiles are phones.
2. No phones are laptops.
3. Some laptops are tablets.
Conclusions:
I. Some tablets are not phones.
II. No mobiles are laptops.
Considering the statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
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Answer C. Both I and II follow
Both I and II follow. The tablets that are laptops are not phones, so some tablets are not phones. Mobiles lie inside phones and phones are separate from laptops, so no mobile is a laptop.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q15 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Find the next letter in the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
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Answer A. U
Positions 1, 3, 6, 10, 15 increase by 2, 3, 4, 5. Next is 15 + 6 = 21 = U.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q16 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Find the wrong term in the series: 10, 18, 34, 66, 130, 256, 514
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Answer C. 256
Rule: next = previous x 2 - 2 (10, 18, 34, 66, 130, 258, 514). The term 256 should be 258.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q17 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
The numbers 5, 7, 11, 19, 35 follow a rule. Which number follows 35?
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Answer B. 67
Differences: 2, 4, 8, 16. Next difference 32: 35 + 32 = 67. (Equivalently, each term is 2 x previous - 3.)
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q18 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Read the information and answer the question.
A family in Kurnool has eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W in three generations. There are three married couples.
(i) P is married to Q, and R is the only son of P and Q.
(ii) Q is the mother of S.
(iii) U is the son-in-law of Q.
(iv) R is the husband of T.
(v) V is a girl and T is her mother.
(vi) W is the son of S.
How is U related to R?
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Answer B. Brother-in-law
U is Q's son-in-law, and Q's only daughter is S (R is the only son). So U is the husband of R's sister: R's brother-in-law.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q19 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Six friends, Gita, Hari, Indu, Jagan, Kavya and Lokesh, sit around a circular table at a family function in Ongole, all facing the centre. They are a doctor, an engineer, a lawyer, a teacher, a farmer and a pilot, one profession each. The doctor sits immediately to the left of Gita. Jagan is the lawyer. Indu sits between the doctor and the lawyer, next to both of them. The pilot sits immediately to the right of Gita. The teacher sits immediately to the left of Jagan. Kavya is neither the teacher nor the pilot. Lokesh is an immediate neighbour of Jagan. Gita is not the engineer.
Who sits second to the right of the teacher?
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Answer D. Indu
Clockwise (towards each person's left) from Gita: Gita (farmer), Kavya (doctor), Indu (engineer), Jagan (lawyer), Lokesh (teacher), Hari (pilot). Facing the centre, right = anticlockwise: from Lokesh, one seat right is Jagan, two seats right is Indu.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q20 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A two-digit number is four times the sum of its digits. If 18 is added to the number, its digits are reversed. What is the number?
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Answer A. 24
10a + b = 4(a + b) gives b = 2a. Adding 18 reverses the digits, so 9(b - a) = 18 and b = a + 2. Then a = 2, b = 4; the number is 24.
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q21 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Mahatma Gandhi's date of birth is 2 October 1869. Find the day of the week of his birth.
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Answer A. Saturday
Odd days: 1600 years = 0 and 200 years = 3, so 1800 years = 3; 1801-1868 = 68 years with 17 leap years = 85 = 1 odd day; 1 January to 2 October 1869 = 275 days = 2 odd days. Total = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6, i.e. Saturday.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q22 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A number leaves a remainder of 47 when divided by 342. What remainder will it leave when divided by 18?
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Answer C. 11
N = 342k + 47 and 342 is a multiple of 18 (18 x 19). So N mod 18 = 47 mod 18 = 11.
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q23 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Add up the factorials 1!, 2!, 3!, ..., 50!. Which digit is in the units place of the total?
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Answer C. 3
From 5! onwards each factorial ends in 0. 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! = 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 = 33, so the unit digit is 3.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q24 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
How many three-digit numbers have the sum of their digits equal to 5?
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Answer C. 15
Let the digits be a, b, c with a at least 1. Put a = a' + 1: a' + b + c = 4 has C(6, 2) = 15 solutions, all with digits below 10. (Checked by listing all three-digit numbers.)
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q25 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A number leaves a remainder of 24 when divided by a certain divisor. Twice the number leaves a remainder of 11 when divided by the same divisor. What is the divisor?
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Answer A. 37
If N = Dk + 24, then 2N = 2Dk + 48. This leaves 11, so 48 - 11 = 37 is a multiple of D bigger than 24: D = 37.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
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95 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q26 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Let x = (√3 + 1)/(√3 - 1). Then x + 1/x equals
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Answer D. 4
x = (√3 + 1)^2/(3 - 1) = (4 + 2√3)/2 = 2 + √3. Then 1/x = 2 - √3, so x + 1/x = 4.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q27 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
How many zeros are there at the end of 125! (125 factorial)?
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Answer A. 31
Trailing zeros = number of factors of 5 in 125! = 25 + 5 + 1 = 31 (factors of 2 are more plentiful).
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q28 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Find the reflex angle formed by the hands of a clock when the time is 5:15.
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Answer B. 292.5 degrees
Angle = |30 x 5 - 5.5 x 15| = |150 - 82.5| = 67.5 degrees. The reflex angle is 360 - 67.5 = 292.5 degrees.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q29 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
How many days are there from 26 January 2025 to 15 August 2025, counting both the days?
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Answer C. 202
Days: January 26-31 = 6, February 28, March 31, April 30, May 31, June 30, July 31, August 1-15 = 15. Total = 6+28+31+30+31+30+31+15 = 202.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q30 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
At what time between 7 o'clock and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be 10 degrees apart for the first time?
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Answer A. 36 4/11 minutes past 7
At 7:00 the minute hand is 210 degrees behind the hour hand and gains 5.5 degrees per minute. The gap first becomes 10 degrees when it has gained 200 degrees: M = 200/5.5 = 400/11 = 36 4/11 minutes past 7. (The second time, 10 degrees past the hour hand, is at 40 minutes past 7.)
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q31 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Read the information and answer the question.
An electronics shop in Vijayawada buys a mixer-grinder for Rs 4,000 and marks it 40% above the cost price. During a festival sale it gives two successive discounts of 15% and 10% on the marked price.
Instead of the two discounts, what single discount on the marked price would give the shop a profit of exactly 12%?
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Answer A. 20%
Required SP = 4,000 x 1.12 = 4,480. Discount = (5,600 - 4,480)/5,600 x 100 = 20%.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q32 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds and a 150 m long platform in 24 seconds. What is the length of the train?
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Answer B. 250 m
The extra 9 seconds are for the 150 m platform, so speed = 150/9 = 50/3 m/s. Length = 50/3 x 15 = 250 m.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q33 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Read the information and answer the question.
A cashew trader in Palasa buys 250 kg of cashew kernels at Rs 640 per kg and pays transport charges equal to 5% of the purchase cost. During grading, 10 kg is found unfit for sale. He fixes the marked price of the remaining kernels at 25% above his total cost per saleable kg. He sells half of the saleable kernels at the marked price and the other half at a discount of 10% on the marked price.
What is the trader's total cost per saleable kg?
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Answer B. Rs 700
Total cost = 250 x 640 = 1,60,000 plus 5% transport = Rs 1,68,000. Saleable kernels = 240 kg, so cost per saleable kg = 1,68,000/240 = Rs 700.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q34 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Rs 7,800 is divided among Anitha, Bharathi and Chaitanya in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4. What is Bharathi's share?
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Answer C. Rs 2,400
Multiply 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4 by 12 to get 6 : 4 : 3 (13 parts). Bharathi's share = 7,800 x 4/13 = Rs 2,400.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q35 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Read the information and answer the question.
In a test at a school in Visakhapatnam, five students A, B, C, D and E scored marks out of 100. The average of A and B is 64, of B and C is 71, of C and D is 76, of D and E is 72, and of A and E is 61.
What is the average mark of all five students?
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Answer A. 68.8
Pair totals: 128, 142, 152, 144, 122; their sum 688 counts each student twice, so the total = 344. Average = 344/5 = 68.8.
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q36 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 18 minutes respectively. Both are opened together. After how many minutes should B be closed so that the tank is full exactly 9 minutes after the start?
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Answer A. 4.5 minutes
A works for all 9 minutes: 9/12 = 3/4. B must fill 1/4, which takes 18/4 = 4.5 minutes.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q37 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A trader sells a bicycle at a loss. The loss is equal to one-third of the selling price. What is his loss percentage?
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Answer A. 25%
Loss = S/3, so CP = S + S/3 = 4S/3. Loss% = (S/3)/(4S/3) x 100 = 25%.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q38 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Read the information and answer the question.
Three teams P, Q and R are lining a canal near Polavaram. Working alone, P can finish the job in 30 days, Q in 40 days and R in 60 days. In the actual plan, P and Q start the work together; after 8 days P leaves and R joins Q, and Q and R finish the job together. The total payment of Rs 60,000 is shared in proportion to the work done by each team.
Under the actual plan, for how many days do Q and R work together?
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Answer A. 12.8 days
In 8 days P and Q do 8 x (4 + 3)/120 = 56/120. Left: 64/120. Q and R do (3 + 2)/120 per day, so they need 64/5 = 12.8 days.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q39 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
In a 1 km race, A beats B by 40 m, and B beats C by 50 m. By how many metres does A beat C?
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Answer D. 88 m
When A runs 1,000 m, B runs 960 m. C runs 950 m for every 1,000 m of B, so C runs 960 x 0.95 = 912 m. A beats C by 88 m.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q40 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Read the information and answer the question.
A cashew trader in Palasa buys 250 kg of cashew kernels at Rs 640 per kg and pays transport charges equal to 5% of the purchase cost. During grading, 10 kg is found unfit for sale. He fixes the marked price of the remaining kernels at 25% above his total cost per saleable kg. He sells half of the saleable kernels at the marked price and the other half at a discount of 10% on the marked price.
What is the trader's overall profit percentage on his total outlay?
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Answer B. 18.75%
Receipts = 120 x 875 + 120 x 787.50 = 1,05,000 + 94,500 = Rs 1,99,500. Profit = 1,99,500 - 1,68,000 = Rs 31,500, which is 31,500/1,68,000 x 100 = 18.75%.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q41 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Ramesh's salary is 40% more than Bhaskar's salary. Chandu's salary is 20% less than Ramesh's salary. By what percentage is Chandu's salary more than Bhaskar's salary?
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Answer D. 12%
Take Bhaskar = 100. Ramesh = 140. Chandu = 140 x 0.80 = 112. So Chandu earns 12% more than Bhaskar.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q42 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A boat goes 36 km downstream in 3 hours and 20 km upstream in 4 hours on the Godavari. What is the speed of the stream?
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Answer A. 3.5 km/h
Downstream = 36/3 = 12 km/h, upstream = 20/4 = 5 km/h. Stream = (12 - 5)/2 = 3.5 km/h.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q43 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A loan grows at 10% a year with interest added yearly. The interest charged in the second year alone is Rs 1,320. Find the amount originally borrowed.
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Answer C. Rs 12,000
Interest for the 2nd year = 10% of the amount after 1 year = 0.10 x 1.10P = 0.11P. So 0.11P = 1,320 and P = Rs 12,000.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q44 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
₹3,600 is divided among A, B and C so that A gets 2/3 of what B and C together get, and B gets 1/4 of what A and C together get. What is B's share?
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Answer D. ₹720
A = 2/(2+3) x 3,600 = 1,440. B = 1/(1+4) x 3,600 = 720. C = 3,600 - 1,440 - 720 = 1,440. Check: 720 = (1,440 + 1,440)/4.
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q45 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A pipe can fill a tank in 8 hours. Because of a leak at the bottom, it takes 10 hours to fill. In how many hours can the leak alone empty the full tank?
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Answer B. 40 hours
Leak rate = 1/8 - 1/10 = 1/40 of the tank per hour, so the leak empties it in 40 hours.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q46 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Ajay can do a job in 10 days and Vijay in 15 days. They do it together and receive Rs 4,500. What is Ajay's share if payment is in proportion to work done?
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Answer A. Rs 2,700
Rates 1/10 : 1/15 = 3 : 2. Ajay's share = 4,500 x 3/5 = Rs 2,700.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q47 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
An employee's salary is first increased by 20% and then the new salary is decreased by 20%. What is the net effect on the original salary?
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Answer A. 4% decrease
Net change = a + b + ab/100 = 20 + (-20) + (20 x -20)/100 = -4%, i.e. a 4% decrease (1.20 x 0.80 = 0.96).
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q48 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A and B together can do a work in 12 days, B and C together in 15 days, and C and A together in 20 days. In how many days can A alone do it?
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Answer C. 30 days
2(A + B + C) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = 12/60 = 1/5, so A + B + C = 1/10. A = 1/10 - (B + C) = 1/10 - 1/15 = 1/30, i.e. 30 days.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q49 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
The population of a village is 50,000. The annual birth rate is 4.5% and the annual death rate is 2.5% of the population at the start of each year. What will the population be after 2 years?
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Answer A. 52,020
Net growth = 4.5% - 2.5% = 2% per year. Population = 50,000 x (1.02)^2 = 52,020.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q50 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Rs 20,000 is invested for 2 1/2 years at 10% a year. Interest is added to the principal at the end of each full year, and simple interest is paid for the remaining half-year. How much interest is earned in all?
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Answer B. Rs 5,410
For the last half-year, interest is simple at 5% on the amount after 2 years. Amount = 20,000 x 1.1 x 1.1 x 1.05 = Rs 25,410, so CI = Rs 5,410.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
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70 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q51 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Rs 24,000 is deposited at compound interest at 10% for the first year and 12% for the second year, compounded annually. What is the compound interest for 2 years?
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Answer D. Rs 5,568
Amount = 24,000 x 1.10 x 1.12 = Rs 29,568, so CI = 29,568 - 24,000 = Rs 5,568.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q52 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
What is the area of a triangle whose sides are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm?
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Answer D. 84 cm²
s = (13 + 14 + 15)/2 = 21. By Heron's formula, area = √(21 × 8 × 7 × 6) = √7056 = 84 cm².
Source: NCERT Mathematics Class IX (Ch. 10 Heron's Formula, Ch. 11 Surface Areas and Volumes) and Class X (Ch. 11 Areas Related to Circles, Ch. 12 Surface Areas and Volumes); every number computed and checked in Python
- Q53 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A cylindrical pillar has a radius of 7 cm and a height of 10 cm. Taking π = 22/7, what is its curved surface area?
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Answer D. 440 cm²
CSA = 2πrh = 2 × (22/7) × 7 × 10 = 440 cm².
Source: NCERT Mathematics Class IX (Ch. 10 Heron's Formula, Ch. 11 Surface Areas and Volumes) and Class X (Ch. 11 Areas Related to Circles, Ch. 12 Surface Areas and Volumes); every number computed and checked in Python
- Q54 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Rain falls to a depth of 2 cm on a flat roof measuring 22 m × 20 m. All the water is collected in a cylindrical tank with a base diameter of 2 m. To what height does the water rise in the tank? (Take π = 22/7.)
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Answer C. 2.8 m
Volume of water = 22 × 20 × 0.02 = 8.8 m³. Tank base area = (22/7) × 1² = 22/7 m². Height = 8.8 × 7/22 = 2.8 m.
Source: NCERT Mathematics Class IX (Ch. 10 Heron's Formula, Ch. 11 Surface Areas and Volumes) and Class X (Ch. 11 Areas Related to Circles, Ch. 12 Surface Areas and Volumes); every number computed and checked in Python
- Q55 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
A student of a Kurnool school scored 68, 74, 81, 59 and 78 marks in five subjects. How many marks must she score in the sixth subject so that her average over the six subjects is exactly 75?
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Answer B. 90
Required total = 6 x 75 = 450. Present total = 68 + 74 + 81 + 59 + 78 = 360. Marks needed = 450 - 360 = 90.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q56 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Number of tourists (in thousands) who visited Araku Valley in three years (hypothetical data): 2021 - 40, 2022 - 55, 2023 - 66. What was the percentage increase in tourists from 2022 to 2023?
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Answer A. 20%
Increase = 66 - 55 = 11 thousand; percentage increase = 11/55 x 100 = 20%.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q57 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
From the frequency table below, find the mean.
x: 1, 2, 3, 4
f: 3, 5, 8, 4
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 2.65
Mean = Σfx / Σf = (1×3 + 2×5 + 3×8 + 4×4) / 20 = 53 / 20 = 2.65.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q58 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Consider the following statements about the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI):
1. Its four dichotomies include Thinking-Feeling and Judging-Perceiving.
2. It is a projective technique in which the person makes up stories about ambiguous pictures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
The MBTI, based on Carl Jung's theory of psychological types, is a self-report questionnaire that sorts people into 16 types using four dichotomies: Extraversion-Introversion, Sensing-Intuition, Thinking-Feeling and Judging-Perceiving. Telling stories about ambiguous pictures describes the TAT.
Source: The Myers-Briggs Company, MBTI Manual (3rd ed., 1998); C. G. Jung, Psychological Types (1921)
- Q59 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Consider the following statements about the assessment of personality:
1. The reliability of a test refers to the consistency of its results when it is administered repeatedly.
2. The validity of a test refers to whether it measures what it claims to measure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both 1 and 2
Reliability is the consistency (stability) of scores over time or across items; validity is the extent to which a test measures what it is meant to measure. Both are basic requirements of a good psychological test.
Source: NCERT Psychology Class XI, ch. 2 'Methods of Enquiry in Psychology' (reliability and validity)
- Q60 General Mental and Psychological Abilities
Which one of the following pairs (problem-solving tool - main purpose) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. SWOT analysis - scheduling project activities along the critical path
SWOT analysis examines Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats for planning; scheduling activities along a critical path is done with CPM/PERT. The other three pairs are correct.
Source: K. Ishikawa, Guide to Quality Control (1968); J. M. Juran, Quality Control Handbook; S. R. Covey, The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People (1989)
- Q61 Science and Technology
Match List I (ISRO centre) with List II (main role):
List I:
- A. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
- B. U R Rao Satellite Centre
- C. National Remote Sensing Centre
- D. Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR
List II:
- 1. Launch base
- 2. Design and building of satellites
- 3. Launch vehicle development
- 4. Acquiring and processing remote sensing data
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Answer D. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
VSSC (Thiruvananthapuram) develops launch vehicles, URSC (Bengaluru) builds satellites, NRSC (Hyderabad) handles remote sensing data and SDSC SHAR (Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh) is the launch base.
Source: ISRO, Centres (isro.gov.in)
- Q62 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about India's Department of Atomic Energy (DAE):
1. It was set up in 1954 under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
2. The Atomic Energy Commission was first constituted in 1958, after the DAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. 1 only
DAE was set up on 3 August 1954 under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The Atomic Energy Commission was first constituted in August 1948 under the Atomic Energy Act, 1948; a Government Resolution of 1 March 1958 re-established it within the DAE with full powers. So the AEC first came before the DAE, and statement 2 is wrong.
Source: Department of Atomic Energy, History (dae.gov.in)
- Q63 Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs of DRDO laboratory and its main area of work is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Armament Research and Development Establishment, Pune : Submarine sonar systems
ARDE Pune works on conventional armaments (guns, rockets, warheads); naval sonar is the work of NPOL, Kochi. The other three pairs are correct; GTRE developed the Kaveri engine.
Source: DRDO, Laboratories and Establishments (drdo.gov.in)
- Q64 Science and Technology
Match List I (CSIR laboratory) with List II (location):
List I:
- A. National Physical Laboratory
- B. National Aerospace Laboratories
- C. Central Drug Research Institute
- D. National Geophysical Research Institute
List II:
- 1. Lucknow
- 2. Hyderabad
- 3. New Delhi
- 4. Bengaluru
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Answer C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
NPL is in New Delhi (it keeps Indian Standard Time), NAL in Bengaluru, CDRI in Lucknow and NGRI in Hyderabad.
Source: CSIR, Laboratories (csir.res.in)
- Q65 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about CERT-In:
I. It has been operational since 2004.
II. It is the national agency for incident response under section 70B of the IT Act, 2000.
III. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; CERT-In works under MeitY, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Source: Information Technology Act, 2000 s.70B
- Q66 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about cyber laws in India:
I. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes the Data Protection Board of India.
II. CERT-In is the national agency for incident response under section 70B of the IT Act, 2000.
III. Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 was upheld by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. III only
Only statement III is not correct: section 66A was struck down, not upheld, in Shreya Singhal (2015).
Source: Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 ss.2(i), 2(j), 18; Information Technology Act, 2000 s.70B; Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1
- Q67 Science and Technology
Match the following with the person associated with them:
List I
a. World Wide Web
b. Linux operating system kernel
c. First network e-mail using '@'
d. Analytical Engine
List II
I. Charles Babbage
II. Ray Tomlinson
III. Tim Berners-Lee
IV. Linus Torvalds
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Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Tim Berners-Lee invented the WWW, Linus Torvalds created Linux, Ray Tomlinson sent the first network e-mail with '@', and Charles Babbage designed the Analytical Engine.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Fundamentals of Human Geography p.78
- Q68 Science and Technology
Match List I (defence public sector undertaking) with List II (headquarters):
List I
a. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
b. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
c. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
d. Bharat Dynamics Limited
List II
I. Hyderabad
II. Bengaluru
III. Kolkata
IV. Mumbai
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
HAL is at Bengaluru, Mazagon Dock at Mumbai, GRSE at Kolkata and Bharat Dynamics Limited at Hyderabad.
Source: Department of Defence Production DPSU list
- Q69 Science and Technology
Assertion (A): The first deterrence patrol of INS Arihant in 2018 completed India's nuclear triad.
Reason (R): INS Arihant gave India the ability to launch nuclear weapons from the sea, adding to its existing land-based and air-based delivery means.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
INS Arihant's first deterrence patrol (November 2018) completed India's nuclear triad. A triad means delivery from land, air and sea, and Arihant supplied the sea-based leg, so R explains A.
Source: PIB 5 Nov 2018
- Q70 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about Mission Shakti:
I. India destroyed one of its own satellites in low Earth orbit.
II. India was the third country, after the USA and Russia, to show this capability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct; India was the fourth country (after the USA, Russia and China) to demonstrate ASAT capability.
Source: MEA FAQ on Mission Shakti, 2019
- Q71 Science and Technology
Match List I (defence system) with List II (type):
List I
a. Tejas
b. Prachand
c. Arjun
d. Pinaka
List II
I. Multi-barrel rocket launcher
II. Main battle tank
III. Light combat helicopter
IV. Light combat aircraft
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Tejas is a light combat aircraft, Prachand a light combat helicopter, Arjun a main battle tank and Pinaka a multi-barrel rocket launcher.
Source: HAL and DRDO product pages
- Q72 Science and Technology
Assertion (A): INS Arihant can stay submerged for much longer periods than a Kalvari-class submarine.
Reason (R): INS Arihant is nuclear-powered, while Kalvari-class submarines are diesel-electric.
Choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: a nuclear reactor does not need air, while a diesel-electric submarine must come up to snorkel depth to run its diesels and recharge batteries.
Source: Indian Navy submarine arm overview
- Q73 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about geothermal energy:
I. It exists because the Earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth.
II. The average geothermal gradient in the upper crust is about 30 degrees C per kilometre.
III. India's geothermal project at Manikaran is located in Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; Manikaran is in the Parvati valley of Himachal Pradesh, not Uttarakhand.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.67; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.98; AP SCERT Class 8 Geography p.76
- Q74 Science and Technology
Match the following nuclear power stations with the State in which they are located:
List I
a. Kaiga
b. Kakrapar
c. Narora
d. Rawatbhata
List II
I. Gujarat
II. Karnataka
III. Rajasthan
IV. Uttar Pradesh
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Kaiga is in Karnataka, Kakrapar in Gujarat, Narora in Uttar Pradesh and Rawatbhata in Rajasthan.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy p.71; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.66; AP SCERT Class 8 Geography p.74
- Q75 Science and Technology
Match the reactors at each site (List I) with their reactor technology (List II):
List I
a. Tarapur (Units 1 and 2)
b. Kudankulam
c. Rawatbhata
d. Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, Kalpakkam
List II
I. Pressurised heavy water reactor
II. Sodium-cooled fast breeder reactor
III. Boiling water reactor
IV. VVER pressurised light water reactor
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Tarapur 1-2 are boiling water reactors, Kudankulam has Russian VVERs, Rawatbhata has PHWRs and the PFBR is a sodium-cooled fast breeder.
Source: NPCIL plant pages; BHAVINI
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45 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Heavy industries and thermal power stations are usually located on or near coalfields.
Reason (R): Coal is a bulky material that loses weight on use as it is reduced to ash.
Choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: since coal is bulky and weight-losing, it is cheaper to set up plants near the coalfields.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.64
- Q77 Science and Technology
Match List I (type of hydrogen) with List II (how it is produced):
List I
a. Green hydrogen
b. Grey hydrogen
c. Blue hydrogen
d. Brown hydrogen
List II
I. From natural gas, with the carbon dioxide released into the air
II. From coal or lignite gasification
III. From natural gas, with carbon capture and storage
IV. By electrolysis of water using renewable electricity
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
Green hydrogen comes from electrolysis with renewable power, grey from natural gas without carbon capture, blue from natural gas with carbon capture and brown from coal.
Source: MNRE Green Hydrogen Standard 2023
- Q78 Science and Technology
Assertion (A): The grazing food chain begins with dead organic matter.
Reason (R): The detritus food chain is made up of decomposers, mainly fungi and bacteria.
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Answer D. A is false, but R is true
A is false because the grazing food chain begins with producers; R is true because the detritus food chain, which begins with dead organic matter, is made of decomposers.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.221; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.222
- Q79 Science and Technology
Match the institutions in List I with their headquarters in List II.
List I
a. National Biodiversity Authority
b. Forest Survey of India
c. Zoological Survey of India
d. CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
List II
I. Kolkata
II. Nagpur
III. Chennai
IV. Dehradun
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
NBA - Chennai, FSI - Dehradun, ZSI - Kolkata, NEERI - Nagpur.
Source: Official websites of NBA, FSI, ZSI and NEERI
- Q80 Science and Technology
For species–area relationships analysed over very large areas such as entire continents, the slope (Z) of the regression line is found to be in the range of:
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Answer C. 0.6 to 1.2
Over entire continents the slope is much steeper, with Z between 0.6 and 1.2 (1.15 for fruit-eating birds and mammals of tropical forests), compared with 0.1 to 0.2 within a region.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.232
- Q81 Science and Technology
Match List I with List II:
List I
a. Lichen
b. Cattle egret and grazing cattle
c. Tick on a dog
d. Flamingoes and fishes feeding on zooplankton
List II
I. Commensalism
II. Competition
III. Mutualism
IV. Parasitism
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Lichen is mutualism, egret and cattle is commensalism, a tick on a dog is parasitism and flamingoes with fishes is competition.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.213; NCERT Class 8 Science (Curiosity) p.223; NCERT Class 11 Biology p.33
- Q82 Science and Technology
Match the following recently extinct animals with the region where they lived:
List I
a. Dodo
b. Quagga
c. Thylacine
d. Steller's sea cow
List II
I. Mauritius
II. Australia
III. Africa
IV. Russia
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
Dodo - Mauritius, quagga - Africa, thylacine - Australia and Steller's sea cow - Russia.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.233
- Q83 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements based on NCERT:
I. If Robert May's global estimate is accepted, only about 22 per cent of all species have been recorded so far.
II. Nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many species of animals have been recorded from India.
III. India probably has more than 3,00,000 plant species that are yet to be discovered and described.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is wrong: NCERT estimates more than 1,00,000 plant species and more than 3,00,000 animal species yet to be discovered in India.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.231
- Q84 Science and Technology
Match List I (area/zone) with List II (ambient noise limit at NIGHT under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000):
List I
a. Industrial area
b. Commercial area
c. Residential area
d. Silence zone
List II
I. 45 dB(A)
II. 70 dB(A)
III. 40 dB(A)
IV. 55 dB(A)
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
Night-time limits are 70 dB(A) for industrial, 55 for commercial, 45 for residential areas and 40 for silence zones (day limits are 75, 65, 55 and 50).
Source: Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, Schedule
- Q85 Science and Technology
Match List I (Biosphere Reserve) with List II (State):
List I
a. Dehang-Debang
b. Dibru-Saikhowa
c. Cold Desert
d. Agasthyamalai
List II
I. Assam
II. Himachal Pradesh
III. Arunachal Pradesh
IV. Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
Dehang-Debang is in Arunachal Pradesh, Dibru-Saikhowa in Assam, Cold Desert in Himachal Pradesh and Agasthyamalai in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.5 p.60 (Table 5.1)
- Q86 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
I. It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
II. It was set up under the Seeds Act, 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct: GEAC works under MoEFCC and draws its powers from the 1989 Rules made under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Seeds Act.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.196; Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro-organisms, Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989 (under EP Act 1986) Rule 4
- Q87 Science and Technology
Match List I (scientist) with List II (contribution):
List I:
- A. Edward Jenner
- B. Karl Landsteiner
- C. Alexander Fleming
- D. Robert Koch
List II:
- 1. Penicillin
- 2. Smallpox vaccine
- 3. ABO blood groups
- 4. Identification of the tuberculosis bacterium
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Jenner developed the smallpox vaccine (1796), Landsteiner discovered the ABO blood groups, Fleming discovered penicillin and Koch identified the tubercle bacillus (1882).
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 and ch.10; history of medicine
- Q88 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about biofertilisers:
I. Azotobacter and Azospirillum fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil.
II. The mycorrhizal fungus Glomus absorbs nitrogen from the soil and passes it to the plant.
III. Cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser in paddy fields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; Glomus absorbs phosphorus, not nitrogen, and passes it to the plant.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.170
- Q89 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Antibiotics are effective against viral infections such as the common cold.
2. Ringworm is caused by a parasitic worm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. Neither 1 nor 2
Antibiotics act against bacteria, not viruses, so they do not treat the common cold. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection (Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton), not a worm.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 (Human Health and Disease)
- Q90 Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Immunity produced by vaccination is active immunity.
2. Active immunity develops faster than passive immunity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
A vaccine makes the body produce its own antibodies and memory cells, which is active immunity. Active immunity is slow to develop, whereas passive immunity (ready-made antibodies) acts at once.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 (Immunity)
- Q91 Current Events
In the context of Andhra Pradesh's 2026 push for UNESCO status for Lepakshi and Gandikota, consider the following statements about the World Heritage Convention:
I. Nominated natural sites are evaluated by ICOMOS.
II. The Convention was adopted in 1972 and came into force in 1975.
III. India accepted the Convention in 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. II and III only
II and III are correct: the Convention was adopted in 1972, came into force in 1975 and India accepted it on 14 November 1977. Natural sites are evaluated by IUCN; ICOMOS evaluates cultural sites.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Lepakshi and Gandikota: UNESCO push' (source: Deccan Chronicle); UNESCO WHC Operational Guidelines
- Q92 Current Events
Under the 2026 MoU between the AP State Council of Higher Education and Australia's Rebound on student mental health, which of the following is NOT a stated feature?
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Answer A. A fee-based programme covering all universities in the State
The Rebound MoU is a free-of-cost, technology-enabled pilot in selected higher educational institutions, so a fee-based State-wide programme is not a feature. The other three are listed features.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Andhra Pradesh-Australia MoUs' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q93 Current Events
In July 2026, Andhra Pradesh opened 'APEX Korea', its first permanent overseas investment facilitation and outreach centre, in which South Korean city?
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Answer B. Busan
APEX Korea was set up in Busan, a major maritime and industrial hub of South Korea.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'APEX Korea: AP' (source: The Hindu)
- Q94 Current Events
Which one of the following statements about India's mango exports in 2025-26 is NOT correct?
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Answer D. Exports to the United States rose because of lower tariffs.
Exports to the US fell from Rs 95 crore to Rs 82 crore due to tariff-related issues.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'UAE Leads Indian Mango Imports' (source: Deccan Chronicle; data: DGCIS and APEDA)
- Q95 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the Andhra Pradesh-Australia MoUs of August 2026:
I. Four MoUs were signed, covering clean energy, inclusive education, student mental health and skill development.
II. One MoU proposes a Centre of Excellence for Solar Manufacturing at IIT Tirupati.
III. The student mental health MoU was signed between the AP State Council of Higher Education and the University of New South Wales.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer C. III only
Only III is incorrect: APSCHE signed the mental health MoU with Australia's Rebound, not with UNSW. Statements I and II are correct.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Andhra Pradesh-Australia MoUs' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q96 Current Events
Match the persons whom Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu met during his 2026 Singapore visit (List I) with their positions (List II):
List I
a. Karan Bajwa
b. Anacláudia Rossbach
c. Tan Eng Chye
d. Shilpak Ambule
List II
I. India's High Commissioner to Singapore
II. President, Google Cloud Asia-Pacific
III. President, National University of Singapore
IV. Executive Director, UN-Habitat
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
Karan Bajwa is President of Google Cloud Asia-Pacific, Anacláudia Rossbach is Executive Director of UN-Habitat, Tan Eng Chye is President of NUS and Shilpak Ambule is India's High Commissioner to Singapore.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Google to Set Up Task Force to Explore Technology Partnership with Andhra Pradesh (The Hindu)
- Q97 Current Events
Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) were among the technologies discussed between Denmark and APCRDA in 2026. Which one of the following is NOT a function of a BESS?
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Answer C. Producing electricity by burning natural gas
A BESS stores electricity and releases it later; it does not generate power by burning fuel.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: India-Denmark Partnership to Strengthen Amaravati's Power Infrastructure (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q98 Current Events
Consider the following statements about Andhra Pradesh's national rank in fibre production, as presented at Bharat Tex 2026:
I. Andhra Pradesh ranks second in silk production.
II. Andhra Pradesh ranks sixth in cotton production.
III. Andhra Pradesh ranks fifth in jute production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. I and II only
AP is 2nd in silk and 6th in cotton, but 7th (not 5th) in jute.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'AP Secures Rs 4,100-Crore Textile Investments at Bharat Tex 2026' (source: The Hindu)
- Q99 Current Events
The Union Cabinet approved the Central Government General Pool Office Accommodation Project in Amaravati in 2026. Consider the following statements:
I. The project cost is about ₹1,299 crore.
II. The office complex will have a built-up area of about 23.2 lakh square feet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both I and II
Both statements are correct: the project costs about ₹1,299 crore and has a built-up area of about 23.2 lakh sq ft.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Naidu Thanks PM Modi for Project Fund Allocation (Deccan Chronicle); origin: Union Cabinet
- Q100 Current Events
Bharat Tex 2026, where Andhra Pradesh signed textile investment MoUs, was organised by the Union Ministry of Textiles at:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Bharat Tex 2026 was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'AP Secures Rs 4,100-Crore Textile Investments at Bharat Tex 2026' (source: The Hindu)
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20 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Current Events
Consider the following statements about Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN):
I. It is the new name of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
II. The USOF was given statutory backing by the Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003.
III. The fund was renamed Digital Bharat Nidhi under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct. USOF was set up under the Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003 (with effect from 1 April 2002) and became Digital Bharat Nidhi under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Implementation of Amended Bharat Net Programme (ABP) in Andhra Pradesh (PIB)
- Q102 Current Events
Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?
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Answer C. Energy Efficiency Services Limited : Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
EESL is under the Union Ministry of Power, not the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy; the other pairs are correct.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Mega Sustainability Plan for Andhra Pradesh MSMEs (Deccan Chronicle); origin: EESL, Union Ministry of Power
- Q103 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the Krishna water-sharing situation reported in 2026:
I. The 66:34 formula was initially adopted as a one-year interim arrangement.
II. The meeting that estimated about 100 TMC-ft of remaining water was convened by the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
III. In the period the 66:34 formula has operated, the Krishna basin recorded eight deficit years and four surplus years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; the basin recorded eight surplus years and four deficit years, not the reverse.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Krishna Water Sharing: Andhra Pradesh Seeks Continuation of 66:34 Formula (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q104 Current Events
Consider the following statements about Andhra Pradesh's 'Mee Mart' initiative (2026):
I. It upgrades fair price (ration) shops into outlets that also sell other daily essentials.
II. It is implemented in partnership with NAFED.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. II only
Statement II is wrong: the partner is the National Cooperative Consumers Federation of India (NCCF), not NAFED. Statement I describes the scheme correctly.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Andhra Pradesh Launches ' (source: The Hindu)
- Q105 Current Events
In August 2026, Adivasis from eight villages built a 100-metre wooden bridge between Lothugedda and Boyapadu in Alluri Sitarama Raju district. In which mandal is this?
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Answer B. Chintapalli
The bridge was built in Chintapalli mandal of ASR district between 8 and 15 August 2026, after the earlier bridge was washed away in 2024.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Adivasis Build 100-Metre Wooden Bridge in ASR District (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q106 Current Events
In 2026, a seven-year-old girl died and 52 people fell ill after receiving chloroquine tablets at a medical camp in Gollaguppa village of Yetapaka mandal. This village is in which district?
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Answer A. Polavaram
Gollaguppa village is in Yetapaka mandal of Polavaram district; affected children were shifted to Bhadrachalam Area Hospital.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Chloroquine-Related Illness in Andhra Pradesh (The Hindu)
- Q107 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the facilities inaugurated at Tirumala on 16 September 2026:
I. The Pilgrim Experience Centre was set up at the Vaikuntham Queue Complex.
II. Of the 32 electric buses flagged off, Reliance Foundation donated 7 and Bharat Biotech donated 25.
III. The revamped Sri Venkateswara Museum was also inaugurated.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. II only
Only statement II is incorrect: Reliance Foundation donated 25 buses and Bharat Biotech 7.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Tirumala Introduces Digital Pilgrim Centre ... (The Hindu)
- Q108 Current Events
Who announced, during a visit to Tirumala in June 2026, the donation of 25 electric buses by Reliance Foundation for pilgrims?
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Answer D. Anant Ambani
Reliance Executive Director Anant Ambani announced the 25 electric buses (about Rs 27.5 crore); they were flagged off in September 2026.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Tirumala Introduces Digital Pilgrim Centre ... (The Hindu)
- Q109 Current Events
The freedom fighter popularly known as 'Andhra Gandhi', who formed the Ramadandu volunteer force and whose 137th birth anniversary was marked at Bapatla in 2026, is:
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Answer B. Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya
Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya, called Andhra Gandhi and Andhra Ratna, formed Ramadandu and led the Chirala-Perala movement.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Andhra Gandhi Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya: Legacy Recalled on 137th Birth Anniversary (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q110 Current Events
The Pune copper plates of Eastern Chalukya king Vishnuvardhana II, which contain the earliest known reference to Guntur, date to his first regnal year, that is:
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Answer B. 669 CE
The plates date to Vishnuvardhana II's first regnal year, 669 CE, taking Guntur's recorded history back to the seventh century.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Seventh-Century Inscription Reveals the Antiquity of Guntur' (source: The Hindu)
- Q111 Current Events
Arundev Pothula won the Best Child Artist award at the 72nd National Film Awards for the film:
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Answer B. 35 Chinna Katha Kaadu
Arundev Pothula won for 35 Chinna Katha Kaadu, which also won Best Children's Film.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Telugu Cinema at the 72nd National Film Awards' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q112 Current Events
Match the following related to ISRO's launch-vehicle upgrade programme:
List I
a. SC120
b. L110
c. C32
d. SE2000
List II
I. Existing core stage of LVM3
II. Uprated cryogenic upper stage
III. 2,000 kN-class engine
IV. Semi-cryogenic propulsion stage
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Answer C. a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
SC120 is the semi-cryogenic stage that will replace the L110 core stage of LVM3; C32 is the uprated cryogenic upper stage; SE2000 is the 2,000 kN-class engine powering SC120.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: ISRO Tests Semi-Cryogenic Engine Power Head (Deccan Chronicle; ISRO)
- Q113 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the Quantum-Secure Communications Test Bed announced for Amaravati in May 2026:
I. It was announced on National Technology Day.
II. SRM University-AP will set it up with C-DOT and Amaravati Quantum Valley.
III. Quantum Key Distribution lets two users share encryption keys so that any interception can be detected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II and III only
Statements II and III are correct. SRM University-AP, C-DOT and Amaravati Quantum Valley will set up the test bed, which was announced on World Telecommunication and Information Society Day, not National Technology Day.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Amaravati Quantum-Secure Communications Test Bed (The Hindu)
- Q114 Current Events
A preliminary ICAR-CMFRI study examined the mass death of fish on the Boyapadu coast of Anakapalli district in June 2026. Consider the following statements:
I. It linked the deaths mainly to hypoxia, or severe oxygen depletion.
II. About 94% of the dead fish were pony fish.
III. It established industrial effluents as the definitive cause.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; the study said the observations were not enough to establish industrial effluents as the definitive cause.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Hypoxia Likely Caused Mass Fish Deaths on Anakapalli Coast (The Hindu); origin: ICAR-CMFRI
- Q115 Current Events
Consider the following statements about Vikram-I, in news in 2026:
I. It is the maiden orbital launch vehicle of Hyderabad-based Skyroot Aerospace.
II. Its first stage was stacked at the Second Launch Pad of the Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
III. It is designed to carry small satellites into Low-Earth Orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
It was stacked at the First Launch Pad, the first privately developed orbital-class rocket stacked there.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Vikram-I Stacked at Sriharikota' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q116 Current Events
Which one of the following statements about an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around a national park is NOT correct?
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Answer B. It is a complete no-activity zone where all human activities are banned.
An ESZ is not necessarily a complete no-activity zone; activities in it are prohibited, regulated or permitted/promoted.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Indian Gaur Rescued ... Papikonda National Park (The Hindu); MoEFCC ESZ guidelines
- Q117 Current Events
Match the following beach sand minerals found in coastal Andhra Pradesh with their main use:
List I
a. Ilmenite
b. Monazite
c. Garnet
d. Sillimanite
List II
I. Industrial abrasive for sandblasting
II. Refractories
III. Source of titanium dioxide pigment
IV. Source of rare earth elements and thorium
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Ilmenite gives titanium dioxide, monazite contains rare earths and thorium, garnet is an abrasive and sillimanite is used in refractories.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Andhra Pradesh Emerging as a Major Centre for Beach Sand Mineral Exploration (The Hindu / BusinessLine)
- Q118 Current Events
The AP State Climate Change Cell suggested measures for the energy sector under the State Action Plan on Climate Change 2025-30. Consider the following:
I. Raising renewable energy to 40% of the total energy mix.
II. Two green hydrogen hubs with a combined capacity of 600 MW.
III. One lakh fast and slow EV charging stations.
Which of the above are among the suggested measures?
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Answer C. I and III only
I and III are suggested. The two green hydrogen hubs have a combined capacity of 60 MW, not 600 MW.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'AP State Climate Change Cell' (source: The Hindu)
- Q119 Current Events
Consider the following statements about Andhra Pradesh's Shoreline Management Plan (2026):
I. It was prepared by the Ministry of Earth Sciences based on site-specific studies.
II. Inlet management is proposed for the Vamsadhara and Nagavali river mouths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are true.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'AP Shoreline Management Plan' (source: Deccan Chronicle; NCCR / Ministry of Earth Sciences)
- Q120 Current Events
Consider the following statements about shoreline change in Andhra Pradesh, as assessed by the National Centre for Coastal Research:
I. Vizianagaram has only 3.26% of its coastline under erosion but shows high accretion.
II. Krishna district has 42.71% of its coastline under erosion.
III. Visakhapatnam district has a higher share of eroding coastline than Srikakulam district.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Statement III is wrong: Visakhapatnam has 26.85% erosion, less than Srikakulam's 32.14%.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'AP Shoreline Management Plan' (source: Deccan Chronicle; NCCR / Ministry of Earth Sciences)
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