APPSC G1 Paper I 2024 question paper with answers

Consider the following statements on the late Harappan cultures :

I. The late Harappan cultures are primarily Chalcolithic in which tools of stone and copper are used.

II. They do not show metal objects requiring complicated casting.

III. The Chalcolithic people in the later Harappan phase lived in villages.

IV. In the late Harappan phase at Bhagwanpura in Haryana, burnt bricks were not found.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following types of pottery :

I. Black and Red Ware

II. Black Slipped Ware

III. Painted Grey Ware

IV. Red Ware

V. Northern Black Polished Ware

Which of the above types of pottery were associated with the Later Vedic people ?

Identify the incorrect statement on the contributions of Jainism :

Match the following :

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following art and architectural forms :

I. Rock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Orissa

II. Yakshi figure from Didarganj near Patna

III. Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh

IV. 80-pillared hall at Kumrahar near Patna

Which of the above art and architectural forms belong to the Mauryan period ?

Consider the following items :

I. Turban

II. Trousers

III. Heavy long coat

IV. Helmet

V. Boots

Which of the items listed above were introduced by the Shakas and Kushans from Central Asia ?

In the Satavahana's inscriptions, the terms 'Katakas' and 'Skandhavaras' mean

Consider the following statements :

I. During the reign of Chandragupta-I, the Sakas were defeated.

II. Samudragupta's South Indian conquest did not lead to any permanent annexation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

In the Sangam literature, Vellalars were :

Match the following :

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following is wrongly matched with respect to Rashtrakutas ?

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Cholas :

Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi was built by :

The Persian traveller Abdur Razzaq visited Vijayanagara in the reign of :

Match the following :

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements on Sher Shah's land revenue administration :

I. Land was classified into three categories on the basis of produce from the land.

II. Land was measured according to a uniform system.

III. 1/4 of the produce was collected as tax.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following Mughal structures :

I. Tomb of Salim Chishti

II. Buland Darwaza

III. Tomb of Humayun

IV. Jami Masjid

Which of the above buildings were constructed during the reign of Akbar ?

Match the following :

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Match the following :

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Identify the correct chronology of Later Mughals :

In Shivaji's administration, Dabir was :

Identify the correct chronology of establishment of French settlements :

Consider the following Indian states :

I. Awadh

II. Jhansi

III. Satara

IV. Nagpur

V. Sindh

Which of the above states were annexed by the British due to the policy of Doctrine of Lapse ?

Identify the wrong matching of poets and their languages in the 18th century :

Consider the following statements on the contributions of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar :

I. His great contribution was for the upliftment of women in India.

II. He organized a powerful movement for the enactment of Widow Remarriage Act.

III. To propagate his social ideas, he published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali weekly newspaper.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

Which of the following statements is incorrect on William Bentinck's reforms ?

Consider the following events :

I. Swadeshi Movement

II. Surat Split

III. Lucknow Pact

IV. Home Rule Movement

Which of the above main events took place during the extremist phase ?

Consider the following events :

I. Visit of Simon Commission to India

II. Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session

III. Launch of Dandi March

Which of the above main events took place during the tenure of Lord Irwin ?

Consider the following Revolutionaries :

I. Bhagat Singh

II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal

III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

IV. Ram Prasad Bismil

V. Chandra Shekhar Azad

Who among the above founded 'Hindustan Republican Association' in 1924 ?

Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding 'Praja Mandals' ?

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip' ?

I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the 'Whip' has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the 'Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998'.

II. The role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs.

III. All political parties - whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whips in the Parliament.

IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid :

I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation.

II. A Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party.

III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government.

IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President's consideration ?

I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy.

II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not obtained under Article 304.

III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288.

IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) :

I. CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

II. Some public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all.

III. The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit.

IV. The Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. The GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution.

II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council.

III. In the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

IV. The GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India :

I. The Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned.

III. Since its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body.

IV. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States :

I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States.

II. Article 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act.

III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States.

IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation ?

I. The principle of 'one man, one vote' reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation.

II. The Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs.

III. The Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements with regard to India's Foreign Policy :

I. India's Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions.

II. The 'Connect Central Asia Policy' has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the 'India-Central Asia Summit' mechanism.

III. Under the 'Security and Growth for All in the Region' (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region.

IV. India's Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence.

Which of the above statements are valid ?

Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India ?

I. The development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan.

II. India's support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen.

III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security.

IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

I. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities.

II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government.

III. Under the 'FutureSkills Prime' Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency.

IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants.

Select the answer using the codes given below :

In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. The Indian President possesses 'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills.

II. The Indian President can exercise 'Absolute Veto' with respect to the Government Bills at all times.

III. The Indian President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' indefinitely whereas the American President possesses 'Qualified Veto'.

IV. The objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

I. It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental rights.

II. The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone.

III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R. Coelho Case' (2007).

IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons ?

I. The 'Union of India' includes just States and Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well.

II. The expression 'Union of India' is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression 'Territory of India' is not found in the Constitution of India.

III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the 'Union of India' but not the 'Territory of India'.

IV. The Union Territories are covered by the expression 'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of India'.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to 'Equality' ?

I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey.

II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of 'Equality before the law' but does not mention the concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'.

III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute.

IV. The theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995).

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Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties ?

I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India.

II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions.

III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret.

IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments ?

I. The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38.

II. The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45.

III. The adding of Article 43B.

IV. The adding of Article 48A.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements :

I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973).

II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well.

III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

IV. The present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Chamapakan Dorairajan case (1951).

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are incorrect ?

With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements :

I. A private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President.

II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments – simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority.

III. For amendments that require ratification of half the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill.

IV. The State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States.

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?

Consider the following statements about the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution :

I. The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament.

II. Presently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

III. Parliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

IV. The Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma Prasad Case' (1992) has declared that the mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?

The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements ?

I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills.

II. Consideration of the CAG's report.

III. Initiating the removal of the Vice-President.

IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats ?

I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.

II. Loans from the State Government.

III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission's recommendations.

IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) :

In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels.

Reason (R) :

The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation.

Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India ?

I. It is a non-constitutional quasi judicial body.

II. One of its functions is to communicate its opinion to the President on subjects relating to legal administration.

III. Its reports are not submitted to the Parliament.

IV. It has no suo motu decision power to undertake research by itself.

Select the answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ?

I. The term 'democratic' as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism.

II. The term 'Republic' in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister.

III. The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified.

IV. The term 'Fraternity' as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only.

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In recent times, many leading agencies have reaffirmed high growth for the Indian Economy. Which of the following statement/statements can be the best reason/reasons for India's projected high growth ?

I. Strong Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)

II. Government's shift of focus from large capital expenditure towards private investment

III. Increase in domestic air passenger traffic along with a reduction in the volume of Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)

IV. Fading of the El Nino oscillation and better Rabi crop prospects

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With regard to the progress of Digital Payments in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. Promotion of Digital Payments has been transferred from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to the Department of Financial Services.

II. e-RUPI is an institution-based voucher management system instead of being person and purpose specific.

III. 'Hello! UPI' is an AI voice-enabled payment feature built by a consortium of private sponsored startups recognised by the NPCI.

IV. 'UPI LITE X' addresses challenges of remote areas by enabling offline UPI payments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Tourism in India has turned out to be a key service sub-sector. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the Tourism sector in India ?

I. NIDHI is a technology-driven system meant for providing services to Hospitality and Travel industry.

II. The Government has resolved to make India a one trillion USD tourism economy by 2047 with 100 million international investors.

III. The Hotel Occupancy Rate has been rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise in the average daily rate and revenue per available room.

IV. India's Services Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) has been in the expanding zone.

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The Interim Union Budget (FY25) has proposed initiatives to boost India's Green Energy Sector. Which of the following proposals are connected with developing India's Green Energy ?

I. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for utilizing solar energy projects

II. To set up coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030

III. Optional blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes

IV. Provision of financial assistance for procurement of biomass aggregation machinery

V. Setting up of a payment security system for expanding the bio-manufacturing system in the country

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following statement can best be described as having resulted in the recovery of India's external sector ?

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) :

Tax reforms directed towards a simple tax system will result in positive productivity gains.

Reason (R) :

They boost GDP growth and employment growth by removing deadweight costs and reduce distortions in resource allocation.

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) ?

I. NIP includes only economic infrastructure projects but not social infrastructure projects.

II. NIP is aimed to focus on key greenfield projects alone. Brownfield projects are excluded from the NIP's coverage.

III. NIP aims to offer investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, and to attract investments into India.

IV. India Investment Grid (IIG) as a platform has ceased to facilitate the NIP and instead 'Invest India' is presently facilitating NIP.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) :

Majority of the reported transactions on e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter-mandi and inter-state.

Reason (R) :

The Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017 provides for progressive agricultural marketing reforms that include greater focus on intra-mandi transactions.

The strategic objective of Asset Monetization Programme may be explained as :

In connection with SEBI, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. SEBI exempted regulations for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Muncipal Bonds in order to facilitate more efficient infrastructure financing through the capital markets.

II. SEBI introduced the framework in which listed large corporates will mandatorily meet 25% of their financing requirements through the issuance of debt securities.

III. SEBI increased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investment in order to encourage investor responsibility.

IV. SEBI along with the RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) :

'India Stack' has enabled an online, paperless and cashless digital access to various public and private services. This has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.

Reason (R) :

India Stack consists of two interconnected layers, and of these, the 'Payment Layer' has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.

Pick the correct sequence out of the following sequences with regard to the present prevailing inflation trends (in percentages) in India :

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms ?

I. EASE Reforms are governed by a board of directors, who are heads of premier Financial Institutions in India.

II. EASE Next programme had just one (01) priority – the Common Reforms Agenda.

III. Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is one of the four themes conceptualized as part of EASE 6.0.

IV. EASE Reforms are intended for both Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as NBFCs.

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Which of the following feature/features is/are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme ?

I. This scheme covers brownfield enterprises along with greenfield enterprises.

II. Non-Individual enterprises are also eligible to avail the benefit of this scheme provided certain conditions are complied with.

III. For drawal of Working Capital up to ₹ 10 lakh, the same may be sanctioned by way of Cash Credit Limit.

IV. Besides Primary Security, the loan may be secured by a guarantee of Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by the banks.

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Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) :

I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing the RBI-DPI with 2021 as the base year to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.

II. The RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad parameters that have in turn sub-parameters.

III. There has been a constant increase in the RBI-DPI since the time of its inception.

IV. 'Consumer Centricity' is one of the parameters in the RBI-DPI.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

Which of the following statement/statements qualifies/qualify as valid in connection with the banking mechanism in India ?

I. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) will result in increasing credit creation.

II. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applies only to the new deposit base while the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) specifically targets the new borrower lending base.

III. 'Tenor Premium' is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR).

IV. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is used as a long-term policy rate and is generally lower than the Bank Rate.

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In the context of India's fight against poverty, consider the following statements :

I. Unlike the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by NITI Aayog does not make use of 'Alkire-Foster' (AF) methodology.

II. The urban population witnessed a larger decline in poverty as compared to the rural population.

III. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) includes the coverage of food grain entitlements.

IV. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed by adding the incidence of multidimensional poverty and the intensity of poverty.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

In connection with the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. The fund will be established through reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec market.

II. The fund is to be exclusively availed by private agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.

III. Eligible activities for UIDF shall be connected to the Missions and Programmes of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

IV. The fund will be collectively managed by a cluster of Municipal Cooperative Banks.

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With regard to the Startup Ecosystem in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Centre will not be presiding over the selection process of the applications that are received under Startup Agri-Business Incubation Programme.

II. Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) Portal is an exclusive one-stop platform intended for guiding startups in the emerging Aritificial Intelligence (AI) sector only.

III. Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide financial assistance to startups for conducting 'proof of concept' trials.

IV. Fund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups is meant to contribute to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the SEBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) : The National Product measures all goods and services that arise out of economic activity, whereas National Income is the sum of all incomes as a result of the economic activity. These two are synonymous.

Reason (R) : The Production of goods and services is the outcome of the use of capital and labour, along with the raw materials, and this automatically generates income.

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the prevailing scenarios and issues in connection with the World Trade Organisation (WTO) ?

I. The 'Peace Clause' under the Bali Agreement reiterates that developing nations must not exceed the 10% ceiling limit for Public Stockholding schemes initiatives.

II. The 'Green Box' prohibits the use of direct payments to producers which are not linked to production decisions.

III. The 'Reduction Commitments' are expressed in terms of a "Total Aggregate Measurement of Support" which includes all product-specific support and non-product-specific support in one single figure.

IV. Any support that would normally be placed in the 'Amber Box', is not to be placed in the 'Blue Box' even if the support mandates farmers to limit production.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) : Coal washing results in increased generation efficiency and reduced investment costs. However, the use of washed coal in India is still limited.

Reason (R) : The limited establishment of coal washeries may be attributed to the perception that coal washing by increasing the cost of electricity generation, would adversely impact the plants in terms of 'merit order' scheduling.

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ?

I. Achieving Goal 10 will require an entire reform of the financial system that promotes equitable pay and decent work for young people.

II. NITI Aayog has developed the National Indicator Framework (NIF) for facilitating monitoring of SDGs in India.

III. 'Mission LiFE' aims to influence government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production.

IV. The concept of global citizenship embedded in Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) is a reference term that indicates flexible citizenship rights across countries for the purpose of facilitating better labour markets.

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Which of the following statements are valid regarding Human Development ?

I. Two countries with the same level of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, but ending with different human development outcomes is indicative of the importance of growth over development.

II. A country's score on the Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is not the same as its Human Development Index (HDI) even when there is no inequality among people.

III. In Gender Development Index (GDI), values below 1 indicate higher development for women than men.

IV. Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) focuses on intergenerational inequality just the same way, as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) focuses on intragenerational inequality.

V. According to the Human Development Report 2021 - 22, a new uncertainty complex is emerging, which comprises of three new concerns — planetary changes, sweeping social transformations and polarized societies.

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Which of the following statements are valid regarding the interventions of the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the context of Healthcare ?

I. Telemedicine facility is available in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) to avail specialist services through district hub.

II. The Family Doctor Programme has been planned to be implemented as a standalone project without the need to be integrated with Primary Health Centres (PHCs).

III. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been revamped, by increasing the income limit from ₹ 2.5 lakh to ₹ 5 lakh per annum per family.

IV. 'Aarogya Aasara' Scheme is intended to provide post-operative sustenance allowance with certain eligible conditions complied with.

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In connection with transport and infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. Andhra Pradesh's first riverine project has been proposed between Muktyala and Madipadu on Krishna river.

II. The Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport had been started with a corpus fund that is sourced from National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).

III. Infrastructure investments in Andhra Pradesh are strictly implemented only with reference to strategic investments like ports and industrial corridors, but not with reference to community assets.

IV. Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) are being developed in Andhra Pradesh under the Setu Bandhan Scheme.

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Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2023 - 27 ?

I. To achieve a minimum contribution of 25% by industry in the State GDP

II. To provide end-to-end facilitation in 2 weeks

III. To envisage ten (10) priorities of accomplishment

IV. To focus on becoming a 'Plug and Play State' for investments

V. Ensuring land allotment by APIIC within a period of 2 weeks upon receipt of application

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Which of the following statements are valid in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023) ?

I. The objective is to target Green Energy production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green Ammonia production up to the capacity of 2.0 MPTA in the next five years.

II. New and Renewable Energy Development Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP) shall act as a Nodal Agency under this policy.

III. All the Ports in the State have infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen which can then be utilized for storing Green Hydrogen for exporting to other countries.

IV. The Policy prohibits the production of Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by using Renewable Energy and/or Biomass from 'Third-Party/Power exchange'.

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Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the socio-economic status of Andhra Pradesh ?

I. Andhra Pradesh won the Best State Award of ICAR – National Research Center for Banana (NRCB) for export promotion.

II. Andhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has been registering a decline in recent times owing to repeated lower returns in certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector.

III. For the FY 2024 - 25, the Revenue Deficit is budgeted higher than the Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of Andhra Pradesh GSDP.

IV. The technology used by the Government of Andhra Pradesh while conducting resurvey of landholdings is referred to as 'Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)' technology.

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Following are the intrusive landforms of volcanic activity and their characteristic features :

I. Batholiths : Huge mass of igneous rocks, usually granite at the deeper layers of the crust.

II. Phacoliths : Large igneous mounds with a dome-shaped upper surface.

III. Dykes : Wall-like structures developed by solidifying almost perpendicular to the ground.

IV. Sills : The near horizontal bodies of intrusive igneous rocks.

Which of the above are correctly matched ?

Consider the following statements :

I. Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety.

II. Almost one-fourth of the Earth's crust is composed of feldspar and quartz.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Identify the incorrect statement :

Soil formation is controlled by the following factors :

I. Parent material

II. Topography

III. Climate

IV. Biological activity

V. Time

Which of the above are active factors ?

Match the following :

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Consider the following statements :

I. Doldrums are the strong winds that have rapid surface movement.

II. The prevailing trade wind direction in northern hemisphere is northwest.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Identify the incorrect statement on extra-tropical cyclones :

Consider the following :

I. Dry winter season

II. No dry season

III. Dry hot summer

IV. Dry and very severe winter

Which of the above are not the characteristic features of Mediterranean Climate ?

Guyot is :

Consider the following statements :

I. In general, the terrigenous deposits are derived from the land and are mainly deposited on the continental shelves.

II. From the shore onwards, there is a gradual increase in the coarseness of the terrigenous deposits.

III. The muds, the finest materials, are the terrigenous deposits.

IV. The colouring of the muds depends upon their chemical content.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following countries :

I. Chile

II. Venezuela

III. Ecuador

IV. Peru

V. Colombia

Which of the above South American countries have a Pacific coastline ?

Which of the following statements regarding Himalayas are correct ?

I. Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains.

II. They are wide in Kashmir and narrow in the North-eastern states.

III. The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and their core is composed of granite.

IV. The longitudinal valleys lying between Greater and Lesser Himalayas are known as Duns.

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Match the following Climatic regions of India according to Koeppen's scheme :

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Within India, Ganga river basin has the largest catchment area. After that, following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order :

Peaty soils are one of the major soils of India. These are found in :

In India, Sholas are :

In Andhra Pradesh, Dharwar types of rocks are found in :

Match the following :

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Match the following :

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Identify the incorrect statement on the linguistic diversity of India :

Match the following :

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Following are the regions of Iron and Steel industry in the world :

I. The Atlantic coast region : The United States

II. The Ural region : Russia

III. The Ruhr region : Eastern Europe

IV. The North-eastern and Central parts : The United Kingdom

Which of the above are correctly matched ?

Consider the following states of India :

I. Punjab

II. Odisha

III. Haryana

IV. Tamil Nadu

Which of the above states have relatively high level of groundwater utilization ?

Identify the incorrect statement on Wheat crop cultivation in India :

Consider the following oil fields of India :

I. Digboi

II. Moran

III. Kalol

IV. Naharkatiya

Which of the above oil fields are located in Assam ?

In India, most of the jute mills are located in :

Consider the following erstwhile districts of Andhra Pradesh :

I. West Godavari

II. East Godavari

III. Visakhapatnam

IV. Srikakulam

In which of the above districts are coffee plantations mainly existing in their agency areas ?