2 APPSC Group 1 Constitution, Polity, Social Justice & International Relations questions with answers

In which 1981 case did the Supreme Court clarify that the basic structure doctrine applies to constitutional amendments made after 24 April 1973?

Match List I (Article outside Part III) with List II (right it contains):

List I

a. Article 265

b. Article 300A

c. Article 301

d. Article 326

List II

I. Elections on the basis of adult suffrage

II. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse

III. No deprivation of property save by authority of law

IV. No tax to be levied or collected except by authority of law

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements about Article 39:

I. Clause (b) directs that ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.

II. Clause (c) directs that the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

III. Clause (f) prohibits the employment of children below fourteen years in factories and mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about Article 49:

I. It obliges the State to protect monuments and places or objects of artistic or historic interest declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance.

II. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

I. Appointment of the Drafting Committee under Dr B.R. Ambedkar

II. Announcement of the Cabinet Mission Plan

III. Publication of the first draft of the Constitution

IV. Setting up of the Expert Committee of the Congress

Select the correct order (earliest first).

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court held that a procedure depriving a person of personal liberty must be fair, just and reasonable.

Reason (R): In the A.K. Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court gave a wide interpretation of Article 21, protecting it against arbitrary legislative action.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which Article of the Constitution declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void?

Match List I (Schedule) with List II (Amendment Act that added it in its present form):

List I

a. Ninth Schedule

b. Tenth Schedule

c. Eleventh Schedule

d. Twelfth Schedule

List II

I. 74th Amendment Act

II. 52nd Amendment Act

III. 1st Amendment Act

IV. 73rd Amendment Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

I. It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental rights.

II. The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone.

III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R. Coelho Case' (2007).

IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons ?

I. The 'Union of India' includes just States and Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well.

II. The expression 'Union of India' is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression 'Territory of India' is not found in the Constitution of India.

III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the 'Union of India' but not the 'Territory of India'.

IV. The Union Territories are covered by the expression 'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of India'.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to 'Equality' ?

I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey.

II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of 'Equality before the law' but does not mention the concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'.

III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute.

IV. The theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties ?

I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India.

II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions.

III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret.

IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments ?

I. The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38.

II. The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45.

III. The adding of Article 43B.

IV. The adding of Article 48A.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements :

I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973).

II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well.

III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

IV. The present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Chamapakan Dorairajan case (1951).

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are incorrect ?

With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements :

I. A private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President.

II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments – simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority.

III. For amendments that require ratification of half the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill.

IV. The State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States.

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?

Consider the following statements about the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution :

I. The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament.

II. Presently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

III. Parliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

IV. The Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma Prasad Case' (1992) has declared that the mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ?

I. The term 'democratic' as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism.

II. The term 'Republic' in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister.

III. The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified.

IV. The term 'Fraternity' as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Match List I (parliamentary committee) with List II (year of origin):

List I

a. Public Accounts Committee

b. Estimates Committee (post-independence)

c. Committee on Public Undertakings

d. Departmentally Related Standing Committees

List II

I. 1993

II. 1964

III. 1921

IV. 1950

Choose the correct code:

Statement I: A candidate for the office of President must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

Statement II: A candidate for the office of Vice-President must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about grants-in-aid under Article 275(1):

I. Grants may be given for schemes of development undertaken by a State, with the approval of the Government of India, for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

II. Grants may be given for raising the level of administration of the Scheduled Areas.

III. Such grants can be given only to the States of the North-East.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Consider the following statements about Union ministers:

I. A minister who is not a member of either House for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.

II. Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.

III. The salaries of ministers are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under Article 78, which of the following are duties of the Prime Minister?

I. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union and proposals for legislation

II. To furnish such information relating to administration and proposals for legislation as the President may call for

III. If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a minister has taken a decision but which has not been considered by the Council

IV. To obtain the prior approval of the President before allocating portfolios among ministers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Consider the following statements about Article 163:

I. If a question arises whether a matter is one in which the Governor is required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor is final.

II. Whether any advice was tendered by the ministers to the Governor, and if so what, cannot be inquired into in any court.

III. The Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in every matter without exception.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the stages of an ordinary bill:

I. No amendments can be moved at the third reading.

II. The committee stage is a part of the second reading.

III. The bill is discussed clause by clause at the first reading.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

In which of the following cases can the Governor NOT promulgate an ordinance without instructions from the President?

I. A bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the President for its introduction.

II. The Governor would have considered it necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions for the consideration of the President.

III. A bill containing the same provisions would have been a money bill.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip' ?

I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the 'Whip' has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the 'Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998'.

II. The role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs.

III. All political parties - whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whips in the Parliament.

IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid :

I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation.

II. A Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party.

III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government.

IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President's consideration ?

I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy.

II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not obtained under Article 304.

III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288.

IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States :

I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States.

II. Article 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act.

III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States.

IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. The Indian President possesses 'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills.

II. The Indian President can exercise 'Absolute Veto' with respect to the Government Bills at all times.

III. The Indian President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' indefinitely whereas the American President possesses 'Qualified Veto'.

IV. The objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?

The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements ?

I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills.

II. Consideration of the CAG's report.

III. Initiating the removal of the Vice-President.

IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

In which case did the Supreme Court describe Article 324 as a reservoir of power that the Election Commission can use where the law made by Parliament is silent?

Consider the following statements about the High Courts:

I. When the office of Chief Justice of a High Court is vacant, the President appoints one of the other judges of that Court to perform the duties of the office.

II. Parliament may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to a Union Territory or exclude it from one.

III. A common High Court for two or more States may be established by an order of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India :

I. The Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned.

III. Since its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body.

IV. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation ?

I. The principle of 'one man, one vote' reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation.

II. The Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs.

III. The Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements about reports of Public Service Commissions:

I. The UPSC presents an annual report on its work to the President.

II. The President places the report before each House of Parliament with a memorandum explaining the cases where the Commission's advice was not accepted.

III. A Joint State Public Service Commission presents its annual report to the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following factors does the Governor have regard to while specifying a transitional area, a smaller urban area or a larger urban area under Article 243Q(2)?

I. Population of the area

II. Density of population in the area

III. Revenue generated for local administration

IV. Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Consider the following statements about the duration of Panchayats under Article 243E:

I. A Panchayat continues for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier.

II. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues for a full term of five years.

III. If the remainder of the term is less than six months, it is not necessary to hold an election for that period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about Mission Karmayogi:

1. Its apex body, the Public Human Resources Council, is chaired by the Prime Minister.

2. iGOT Karmayogi is the digital platform for online learning under the programme.

3. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2015 along with the Digital India programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is provided for under which Article?

Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) :

I. CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

II. Some public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all.

III. The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit.

IV. The Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

I. The GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution.

II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council.

III. In the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

IV. The GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats ?

I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.

II. Loans from the State Government.

III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission's recommendations.

IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) :

In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels.

Reason (R) :

The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation.

Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission:

I. Its Secretary-General is the Chief Executive Officer of the Commission.

II. Its headquarters is at Delhi.

III. On ceasing to hold office, its Chairperson is eligible for further employment under a State Government, but not under the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Lokpal:

I. Not less than fifty per cent of its members must be from the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, minorities and women.

II. It has a Prosecution Wing headed by a Director of Prosecution.

III. The eminent jurist on the Selection Committee is nominated by the Prime Minister alone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the removal of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission:

I. He can be removed by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an inquiry by the Supreme Court on a reference made by the President.

II. His removal on the ground of misbehaviour requires an address by both Houses of Parliament passed by a special majority.

III. The President may remove him by order if he engages in any paid employment outside the duties of his office during his term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India ?

I. It is a non-constitutional quasi judicial body.

II. One of its functions is to communicate its opinion to the President on subjects relating to legal administration.

III. Its reports are not submitted to the Parliament.

IV. It has no suo motu decision power to undertake research by itself.

Select the answer using the codes given below :

Which Article of the Constitution enables the State to reserve appointments or posts for any backward class of citizens that is not adequately represented in the services under the State?

Consider the following statements about the definition of youth:

I. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines youth as persons aged 15 to 29 years.

II. The National Youth Policy 2003 had defined youth as persons aged 13 to 35 years.

III. For statistical purposes, the United Nations defines youth as persons aged 15 to 24 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

I. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities.

II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government.

III. Under the 'FutureSkills Prime' Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency.

IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants.

Select the answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements about the G20:

1. It was created in 1999 as a forum of finance ministers and central bank governors after the Asian financial crisis.

2. It has a permanent secretariat in Washington, D.C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about India's Neighbourhood First policy:

1. Leaders of all SAARC countries were invited to the swearing-in of the new government in May 2014.

2. Under it India has signed a treaty of mutual defence with every SAARC member.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to India's Foreign Policy :

I. India's Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions.

II. The 'Connect Central Asia Policy' has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the 'India-Central Asia Summit' mechanism.

III. Under the 'Security and Growth for All in the Region' (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region.

IV. India's Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence.

Which of the above statements are valid ?

Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India ?

I. The development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan.

II. India's support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen.

III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security.

IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :