APPSC Group 1 · Screening Paper I · Topic 3

3 APPSC Group 1 Indian & AP Economy and Planning questions with answers

58 questions from APPSC G1 Paper I Mock 1 with answers and APPSC G1 Paper I 2024 question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.

Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.

3.1.1Development, planning, NITI Aayog and human developmentNotes

  1. According to MoSPI's Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2023-24, the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India, without imputed values of items received free, was

    1. ARs 3,773
    2. BRs 4,122
    3. CRs 4,226
    4. DRs 3,860
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Rs 4,122

    HCES 2023-24 gives average MPCE (without imputation) of Rs 4,122 (rural) and Rs 6,996 (urban), up from Rs 3,773 and Rs 6,459 in 2022-23. With imputed values of free items the rural figure is Rs 4,247.

    Source: MoSPI HCES 2023-24 Fact Sheet

  2. Consider the following statements about the New Public Sector Enterprise Policy (2021):

    I. It identifies five broad strategic sectors.

    II. In strategic sectors, a bare minimum presence of public sector enterprises is to be kept.

    III. In non-strategic sectors, CPSEs are to be privatised or else closed.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BI and III only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. II and III only

    II and III are correct. The policy identifies four broad strategic sectors, not five.

    Source: PW Indian Economy (ref) p.144

  3. Match List I (pre-independence or early plan) with List II (person or group):

    List I

    a. Bombay Plan (1944)

    b. Gandhian Plan (1944)

    c. People's Plan (1945)

    d. Sarvodaya Plan (1950)

    List II

    I. M.N. Roy

    II. Jayaprakash Narayan

    III. Leading industrialists

    IV. S.N. Agarwal

    1. Aa-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    2. Ba-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    4. Da-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

    a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II.

    Source: Modern India (ref) p.136; standard accounts of pre-independence planning

  4. In the context of India's fight against poverty, consider the following statements :

    I. Unlike the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by NITI Aayog does not make use of 'Alkire-Foster' (AF) methodology.

    II. The urban population witnessed a larger decline in poverty as compared to the rural population.

    III. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) includes the coverage of food grain entitlements.

    IV. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed by adding the incidence of multidimensional poverty and the intensity of poverty.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. AI and IV
    2. BOnly III
    3. CI and III
    4. DNone are valid
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Only III

    PMGKP's food component (PMGKAY) gave free food grains on top of NFSA entitlements. NITI Aayog's national MPI uses the same Alkire-Foster method as the global MPI, rural areas saw the faster fall in poverty, and MPI is the product, not the sum, of incidence (H) and intensity (A).

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q78, final key

  5. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ?

    I. Achieving Goal 10 will require an entire reform of the financial system that promotes equitable pay and decent work for young people.

    II. NITI Aayog has developed the National Indicator Framework (NIF) for facilitating monitoring of SDGs in India.

    III. 'Mission LiFE' aims to influence government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production.

    IV. The concept of global citizenship embedded in Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) is a reference term that indicates flexible citizenship rights across countries for the purpose of facilitating better labour markets.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AAll
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. COnly III
    4. DII and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Only III

    Decent work for young people is Goal 8, not Goal 10 (reduced inequalities). India's National Indicator Framework was developed by MoSPI, not NITI Aayog, and global citizenship in SDG 4 is an educational value, not a legal right to move for work. Mission LiFE does aim to shape policy for sustainable consumption and production.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q84, final key

  6. Which of the following statements are valid regarding Human Development ?

    I. Two countries with the same level of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, but ending with different human development outcomes is indicative of the importance of growth over development.

    II. A country's score on the Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is not the same as its Human Development Index (HDI) even when there is no inequality among people.

    III. In Gender Development Index (GDI), values below 1 indicate higher development for women than men.

    IV. Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) focuses on intergenerational inequality just the same way, as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) focuses on intragenerational inequality.

    V. According to the Human Development Report 2021 - 22, a new uncertainty complex is emerging, which comprises of three new concerns — planetary changes, sweeping social transformations and polarized societies.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AIV and V
    2. BI, III and V
    3. CII and III
    4. DI, II and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. IV and V

    Equal income with unequal human outcomes shows that policy choices matter, not that growth beats development. IHDI equals HDI when there is no inequality, and a GDI below 1 means women lag men. PHDI adjusts for planetary pressure (an intergenerational concern) as IHDI adjusts for inequality within a generation, and HDR 2021-22 named the three-layer uncertainty complex.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q85, final key

3.2.1National income, demography and employmentNotes

  1. According to NCERT, the share of the industrial sector in India's GDP changed between 1950-51 and 1990-91 from

    1. A13.0 per cent to 24.6 per cent
    2. B10.7 per cent to 12.7 per cent
    3. C17.2 per cent to 20.5 per cent
    4. D28.0 per cent to 40.5 per cent
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. 13.0 per cent to 24.6 per cent

    Industry's share of GDP rose from 13.0% in 1950-51 to 24.6% in 1990-91.

    Source: NCERT Class 11 IED ch.2 (p.46-47)

  2. Consider the following statements about the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the GDP deflator:

    I. The GDP deflator covers all goods and services produced in the country.

    II. CPI includes prices of imported consumer goods, but the GDP deflator does not.

    III. CPI weights change every year with the level of production of each good.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and II only

    I and II are correct. It is the GDP deflator whose weights change with production; CPI weights stay fixed.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.40)

  3. Consider the following statements:

    I. Land revenue and stamp and registration fees are production taxes.

    II. Excise duty and import duty are product taxes.

    III. GVA at basic prices includes net product taxes but not net production taxes.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AII and III only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. I and II only

    I and II are correct. III reverses the rule: basic prices include net production taxes but not net product taxes.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.34)

  4. Consider the following statements:

    I. The average income of a country is also called its per capita income.

    II. The World Bank's World Development Reports use per capita income to classify countries.

    III. Per capita income shows how income is distributed among the people of a country.

    Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

    1. AIII only
    2. BI only
    3. CII only
    4. DI and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. III only

    Only statement III is incorrect. Per capita income is an average and hides disparities; it does not show how income is distributed.

    Source: NCERT Class 10 Understanding Economic Development ch.1 (pp.20-21)

  5. In recent times, many leading agencies have reaffirmed high growth for the Indian Economy. Which of the following statement/statements can be the best reason/reasons for India's projected high growth ?

    I. Strong Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)

    II. Government's shift of focus from large capital expenditure towards private investment

    III. Increase in domestic air passenger traffic along with a reduction in the volume of Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)

    IV. Fading of the El Nino oscillation and better Rabi crop prospects

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and IV
    2. BII and III
    3. CI, III and IV
    4. DOnly IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and IV

    Agencies pointed to strong private consumption and to better farm prospects as El Nino faded. The government kept up high public capital expenditure rather than shifting away from it, and falling FMCG volumes would signal weak demand, not high growth.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q61, final key

  6. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A) : The National Product measures all goods and services that arise out of economic activity, whereas National Income is the sum of all incomes as a result of the economic activity. These two are synonymous.

    Reason (R) : The Production of goods and services is the outcome of the use of capital and labour, along with the raw materials, and this automatically generates income.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    3. C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

    National product (value of output) and national income (sum of factor incomes) are two views of the same flow, so they are equal by definition. They are equal because every rupee of output, produced by using labour, capital and raw materials, is paid out as income to someone.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q81, final key

3.3.1Agriculture, industry, reforms, trade and WTONotes

  1. Consider the following statements about industrial statistics in India:

    I. The Index of Industrial Production is compiled by the National Statistics Office, MoSPI.

    II. The Purchasing Managers' Index is compiled by the Reserve Bank of India.

    III. The Index of Eight Core Industries is released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. II only

    Statement II is NOT correct. I is true; II is false (it is compiled by S&P Global); III is true.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.9 Industry, Manufacturing and Infrastructure, p.128-129

  2. Match List I (instrument) with List II (feature):

    List I

    a. American Depository Receipt

    b. Global Depository Receipt

    c. Masala bond

    d. Participatory note

    List II

    I. Rupee-denominated bond issued abroad

    II. Traded on US stock exchanges

    III. Lets overseas investors take exposure to Indian securities without registering with SEBI

    IV. Traded on stock exchanges outside the US, such as London

    1. Aa-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
    2. Ba-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
    3. Ca-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
    4. Da-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III

    ADRs trade in the US; GDRs trade outside the US; masala bonds are rupee bonds issued abroad; P-notes give exposure without direct SEBI registration.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter

  3. Statement A: The Kisan Credit Card facility has been extended to farmers engaged in animal husbandry and fisheries.

    Statement B: The Kisan Credit Card is meant only for long-term investment credit for buying land.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. AOnly A
    2. BOnly B
    3. CBoth A and B
    4. DNeither A nor B
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Only A

    Only A is correct: A is true; B is false (KCC mainly covers short-term crop and working capital needs).

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.8 Agriculture and Allied Sector, p.116, p.123-124

  4. Consider the following statements about autonomous and accommodating transactions:

    I. Autonomous transactions are called 'above the line' items.

    II. Official reserve transactions are autonomous transactions.

    III. A balance of payments surplus or deficit is judged by comparing autonomous receipts with autonomous payments.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and III only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and II only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and III only

    Statements I and III are correct. Official reserve transactions are made to fill the BoP gap, so they are accommodating ('below the line') items.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.6 (Open Economy)

  5. Consider the following statements about Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for PPP infrastructure projects:

    I. The sponsoring authority cannot add any grant beyond the Central VGF.

    II. It supports projects that are economically justified but not financially viable.

    III. Under the general scheme the Centre can give up to 20 per cent of the total project cost.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I only

    Statement I is NOT correct. I is false (it may give up to a further 20 per cent); II is true; III is true.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.9 Industry, Manufacturing and Infrastructure, p.137

  6. Tourism in India has turned out to be a key service sub-sector. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the Tourism sector in India ?

    I. NIDHI is a technology-driven system meant for providing services to Hospitality and Travel industry.

    II. The Government has resolved to make India a one trillion USD tourism economy by 2047 with 100 million international investors.

    III. The Hotel Occupancy Rate has been rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise in the average daily rate and revenue per available room.

    IV. India's Services Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) has been in the expanding zone.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AAll
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. CII, III and IV
    4. DI and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I and IV

    NIDHI (National Integrated Database of Hospitality Industry) is the Tourism Ministry's tech platform for the hospitality and travel trade, and the services PMI has stayed above 50. The 2047 vision speaks of 100 million international tourist arrivals, not investors, and the key does not accept the claim of a rapid rise in hotel occupancy.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q63, final key

  7. The Interim Union Budget (FY25) has proposed initiatives to boost India's Green Energy Sector. Which of the following proposals are connected with developing India's Green Energy ?

    I. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for utilizing solar energy projects

    II. To set up coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030

    III. Optional blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes

    IV. Provision of financial assistance for procurement of biomass aggregation machinery

    V. Setting up of a payment security system for expanding the bio-manufacturing system in the country

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI, II, III and V
    2. BII and IV
    3. CI, III and V
    4. DIV and V
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. II and IV

    The Interim Budget 2024-25 proposed 100 MT of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity by 2030 and financial help to buy biomass aggregation machinery. Its VGF was for offshore wind (1 GW), CBG blending in CNG and PNG was made mandatory in phases, not optional, and bio-manufacturing was backed by a bio-foundry scheme, not a payment security system.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q64, final key

  8. Which of the following statement can best be described as having resulted in the recovery of India's external sector ?

    1. AModeration in India's merchandise export growth in FY24 accompanied by a sharp decline in India's merchandise import growth
    2. BIncreasing commodity prices with escalating global demand
    3. CIncrease in merchandise exports and imports followed by a decline in net services receipts
    4. DGrowth in world output outpacing the world trade volume
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Moderation in India's merchandise export growth in FY24 accompanied by a sharp decline in India's merchandise import growth

    In FY24 imports fell faster than exports slowed, which narrowed the merchandise trade deficit and the current account deficit. Rising commodity prices raise India's import bill, a fall in net services receipts widens the deficit, and world output outpacing trade is a headwind for exports.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q65, final key

  9. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) ?

    I. NIP includes only economic infrastructure projects but not social infrastructure projects.

    II. NIP is aimed to focus on key greenfield projects alone. Brownfield projects are excluded from the NIP's coverage.

    III. NIP aims to offer investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, and to attract investments into India.

    IV. India Investment Grid (IIG) as a platform has ceased to facilitate the NIP and instead 'Invest India' is presently facilitating NIP.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BOnly III
    3. CIII and IV
    4. DI, II and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Only III

    The NIP (launched 2019-20) is a pipeline of economic and social infrastructure projects, both greenfield and brownfield, meant to showcase investment opportunities. Its projects are still listed on the India Investment Grid, so only III is valid.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q67, final key

  10. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A) :

    Majority of the reported transactions on e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter-mandi and inter-state.

    Reason (R) :

    The Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017 provides for progressive agricultural marketing reforms that include greater focus on intra-mandi transactions.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    3. C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    Most e-NAM trades are still within a single mandi, so A is true. The model APLM Act, 2017 pushes the other way, towards a single unified market with inter-mandi and inter-state trade and private markets, so R is false.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q68, final key

  11. The strategic objective of Asset Monetization Programme may be explained as :

    1. AAn initiative to unlock the value of investments in private sector assets by utilizing public sector capital.
    2. BInvolving an indefinite period license/lease of an asset, owned by the government or a public authority, to a private sector entity.
    3. CFacilitating an opportunity for public asset owners to use new financial structures by utilizing capital from private sector investors.
    4. DOffering an alternative mechanism to the PPP model.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Facilitating an opportunity for public asset owners to use new financial structures by utilizing capital from private sector investors.

    Under the National Monetisation Pipeline, public asset owners bring in private capital through structures such as InvITs and operate-maintain-transfer contracts to unlock the value of brownfield public assets. The lease is for a fixed period with ownership kept by the government, and it works alongside PPP rather than replacing it.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q69, final key

  12. With regard to the Startup Ecosystem in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    I. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Centre will not be presiding over the selection process of the applications that are received under Startup Agri-Business Incubation Programme.

    II. Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) Portal is an exclusive one-stop platform intended for guiding startups in the emerging Aritificial Intelligence (AI) sector only.

    III. Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide financial assistance to startups for conducting 'proof of concept' trials.

    IV. Fund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups is meant to contribute to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the SEBI.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and II
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CIII and IV
    4. DOnly I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. III and IV

    SISFS gives startups money for proof of concept, prototypes and trials, and the Fund of Funds for Startups (run by SIDBI) invests in SEBI-registered AIFs. MAARG is a mentorship portal for startups across all sectors, and MANAGE's agri-business incubation centre does run the selection of applicants for its programme.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q80, final key

  13. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the prevailing scenarios and issues in connection with the World Trade Organisation (WTO) ?

    I. The 'Peace Clause' under the Bali Agreement reiterates that developing nations must not exceed the 10% ceiling limit for Public Stockholding schemes initiatives.

    II. The 'Green Box' prohibits the use of direct payments to producers which are not linked to production decisions.

    III. The 'Reduction Commitments' are expressed in terms of a "Total Aggregate Measurement of Support" which includes all product-specific support and non-product-specific support in one single figure.

    IV. Any support that would normally be placed in the 'Amber Box', is not to be placed in the 'Blue Box' even if the support mandates farmers to limit production.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AIII and IV
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. COnly III
    4. DI and II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Only III

    The Bali peace clause protects developing countries from disputes if their public stockholding support crosses the 10% de minimis limit; it does not reiterate the ceiling. The Green Box allows decoupled direct payments, and Amber Box support that requires farmers to limit production moves into the Blue Box. Only the statement on Total AMS is right.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q82, final key

3.4.1Money, banking, markets, taxes and fiscal policyNotes

  1. A bank loan is classified as a non-performing asset (NPA) when interest or instalment remains overdue for more than

    1. A30 days
    2. B60 days
    3. C90 days
    4. D180 days
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 90 days

    A loan becomes an NPA when dues are overdue for more than 90 days.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.3 Money and Banking (NPAs); RBI Master Circular on IRACP

  2. Consider the following statements about price indices in India:

    I. The WPI covers services as well as goods.

    II. CPI is compiled separately for rural and urban areas, and a combined index is also released.

    III. The GDP deflator is released every month along with the CPI.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AII only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. II only

    Only II is correct. WPI covers goods only, and the GDP deflator comes from the GDP estimates, not every month.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.2 National Income Accounting (CPI, WPI, PPI, IIP)

  3. Match the institutions with the year in which they were set up:

    List I

    a. Reserve Bank of India

    b. State Bank of India

    c. NABARD

    d. First Regional Rural Banks

    List II

    I. 1975

    II. 1935

    III. 1982

    IV. 1955

    1. Aa-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
    2. Ba-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
    3. Ca-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
    4. Da-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I

    RBI 1935; SBI 1955; NABARD 1982; first RRBs 1975.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.3 Money and Banking; NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development; PW Indian Economy, ch.3 Money and Banking

  4. Consider the following statements about money:

    I. Demand deposits are legal tender.

    II. M3 is also called aggregate monetary resources.

    III. Deposits that one commercial bank holds in another are not counted in money supply.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CIII only
    4. DI and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I only

    Only I is not correct. Cheques on demand deposits can be refused, so demand deposits are not legal tender.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.3 Money and Banking (p.58)

  5. In the WPI series with base year 2011-12, the group 'Manufactured products' has a weight of about

    1. A22.62%
    2. B13.15%
    3. C45.86%
    4. D64.23%
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. 64.23%

    Manufactured products carry 64.23%; primary articles 22.62% and fuel and power 13.15%.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.2 National Income Accounting (CPI, WPI, PPI, IIP) (WPI)

  6. Consider the following statements:

    I. Public provision means that goods are financed through the budget and can be used without any direct payment.

    II. When goods are produced directly by the government, it is called public production.

    III. Public goods can be produced only by the government and never by the private sector.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. I and II only

    Statements I and II are correct. Public goods may be produced by the government or by the private sector, so statement III is false.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.5 (p.77)

  7. Consider the following statements about credit in India:

    I. Members of a Self-Help Group pool their savings and give small loans to members of the group.

    II. The RBI supervises the lending of informal lenders such as moneylenders.

    III. Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and pledges to the lender as a guarantee.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CIII only
    4. DI and II only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. II only

    Only statement II is wrong: the RBI supervises formal lenders, not moneylenders or traders. SHG members pool savings and lend among themselves, and collateral is an asset the borrower pledges.

    Source: NCERT Class 10 Understanding Economic Development ch.3 Money and Credit (p.56, p.63, p.65)

  8. Consider the following statements about the CPI (Combined) series with base year 2012:

    I. Food and beverages carry the largest weight.

    II. Housing carries a larger weight than the miscellaneous group.

    III. Fuel and light carry a weight of less than 10%.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. I and III only

    I and III are correct. Housing (about 10%) carries much less weight than the miscellaneous group (about 28%).

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.2 National Income Accounting (CPI, WPI, PPI, IIP) (Components of CPI)

  9. Consider the following statements about the Basel norms followed by banks in India:

    I. The Liquidity Coverage Ratio requires enough high-quality liquid assets to survive 30 days of stress.

    II. Subordinated term debt is a part of Tier 2 capital.

    III. Tier 1 capital mainly consists of revaluation reserves.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CIII only
    4. DII and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. III only

    Only III is not correct. Tier 1 is core capital such as equity and retained earnings; revaluation reserves fall under Tier 2.

    Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.3 Money and Banking (Basel norms)

  10. Match the measures of money supply with their components:

    List I

    a. M1

    b. M2

    c. M3

    d. M4

    List II

    I. M1 + net time deposits of commercial banks

    II. M3 + total post office deposits (excluding NSCs)

    III. Currency with the public + demand deposits + other deposits with RBI

    IV. M1 + savings deposits with post office savings banks

    1. Aa-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    2. Ba-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
    3. Ca-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
    4. Da-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

    M1 = currency with the public + demand deposits + other deposits with RBI; M2 = M1 + post office savings deposits; M3 = M1 + net time deposits of banks; M4 = M3 + total post office deposits excluding NSCs.

    Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.3 Money and Banking (p.58); PW Indian Economy, ch.3 Money and Banking

  11. Match List I with List II:

    List I

    a. Base Erosion and Profit Shifting

    b. Place of Effective Management

    c. General Anti-Avoidance Rules

    d. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement

    List II

    I. A treaty that prevents the same income from being taxed in two countries

    II. A test of where key management and commercial decisions of a company are made

    III. Strategies of multinationals to move profits to low-tax jurisdictions

    IV. Provisions to deny tax benefits from arrangements made mainly to avoid tax

    1. Aa-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
    2. Ba-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
    3. Ca-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
    4. Da-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I

    BEPS is profit shifting to low-tax places, PoEM tests where key decisions are made, GAAR denies benefits of tax-avoidance arrangements, and a DTAA prevents double taxation.

    Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.5 p.59

  12. Consider the following statements about the amendments made to the FRBM Act, 2003 in 2018:

    I. Central Government debt was to be brought down to 40 per cent of GDP by 2024-25.

    II. An escape clause allows the fiscal deficit target to be exceeded by up to 0.5 per cent of GDP on specified grounds.

    III. The revenue deficit was retained as the main operational target in place of the fiscal deficit.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. I and II only

    Statements I and II are correct. The 2018 amendment made the fiscal deficit (with debt) the main target and dropped the revenue deficit target.

    Source: FRBM Act 2003 s.4 (as amended by Finance Act 2018)

  13. With regard to the progress of Digital Payments in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    I. Promotion of Digital Payments has been transferred from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to the Department of Financial Services.

    II. e-RUPI is an institution-based voucher management system instead of being person and purpose specific.

    III. 'Hello! UPI' is an AI voice-enabled payment feature built by a consortium of private sponsored startups recognised by the NPCI.

    IV. 'UPI LITE X' addresses challenges of remote areas by enabling offline UPI payments.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI, III and IV
    2. BIII and IV
    3. COnly III
    4. DI and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I and IV

    In 2023 the work of promoting digital payments moved from MeitY to the Department of Financial Services, and UPI LITE X allows offline UPI payments where connectivity is poor. e-RUPI is a person- and purpose-specific prepaid voucher, and 'Hello! UPI' was launched by NPCI itself.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q62, final key

  14. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A) :

    Tax reforms directed towards a simple tax system will result in positive productivity gains.

    Reason (R) :

    They boost GDP growth and employment growth by removing deadweight costs and reduce distortions in resource allocation.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains A.
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    3. C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains A.

    A simpler tax system cuts compliance and deadweight costs and lets resources flow to their most productive uses. That reduced distortion is exactly why productivity, GDP and jobs gain, so R explains A.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q66, final key

  15. In connection with SEBI, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    I. SEBI exempted regulations for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Muncipal Bonds in order to facilitate more efficient infrastructure financing through the capital markets.

    II. SEBI introduced the framework in which listed large corporates will mandatorily meet 25% of their financing requirements through the issuance of debt securities.

    III. SEBI increased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investment in order to encourage investor responsibility.

    IV. SEBI along with the RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AOnly II
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CIII and IV
    4. DOnly III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Only II

    SEBI's large corporate framework (2018) requires listed large corporates to raise 25% of incremental borrowing through debt securities. SEBI framed (not exempted) regulations for InvITs and municipal bonds, it cut the minimum ticket size of corporate bonds to widen retail participation, and Retail Direct is an RBI scheme.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q70, final key

  16. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A) :

    'India Stack' has enabled an online, paperless and cashless digital access to various public and private services. This has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.

    Reason (R) :

    India Stack consists of two interconnected layers, and of these, the 'Payment Layer' has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    3. C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    India Stack has made services presence-less, paperless and cashless and cut e-KYC costs sharply. But it has more than two layers (identity, payments and data/consent), and the cost of e-KYC fell because of the identity layer (Aadhaar e-KYC), not the payment layer.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q71, final key

  17. Pick the correct sequence out of the following sequences with regard to the present prevailing inflation trends (in percentages) in India :

    1. AFood Inflation > Headline Inflation > Core Inflation
    2. BHeadline Inflation > Food Inflation > Core Inflation
    3. C(Food Inflation = Headline Inflation) < Core Inflation
    4. DCore Inflation > Food Inflation > Headline Inflation
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Food Inflation > Headline Inflation > Core Inflation

    In early 2024 food inflation was around 8%, headline CPI inflation around 5% and core inflation below 4%. Food prices were pulling the headline rate up while core inflation kept easing.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q72, final key

  18. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms ?

    I. EASE Reforms are governed by a board of directors, who are heads of premier Financial Institutions in India.

    II. EASE Next programme had just one (01) priority – the Common Reforms Agenda.

    III. Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is one of the four themes conceptualized as part of EASE 6.0.

    IV. EASE Reforms are intended for both Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as NBFCs.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AOnly III
    2. BI, II and III
    3. CII and IV
    4. DI and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Only III

    EASE is the Department of Financial Services' reform agenda for Public Sector Banks only, run with the Indian Banks' Association rather than a board of heads of financial institutions. EASE Next had more than one priority, and EASE 6.0 set out four themes including customer service excellence with digital enablement.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q74, final key

  19. Which of the following feature/features is/are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme ?

    I. This scheme covers brownfield enterprises along with greenfield enterprises.

    II. Non-Individual enterprises are also eligible to avail the benefit of this scheme provided certain conditions are complied with.

    III. For drawal of Working Capital up to ₹ 10 lakh, the same may be sanctioned by way of Cash Credit Limit.

    IV. Besides Primary Security, the loan may be secured by a guarantee of Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by the banks.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AII and IV
    2. BI and III
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DOnly IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. II and IV

    Stand-Up India funds greenfield enterprises only. Non-individual enterprises qualify if at least 51% is held by an SC/ST or woman entrepreneur, and loans may be backed by CGFSIL besides primary security. Working capital up to ₹10 lakh is sanctioned as an overdraft; cash credit limits apply above that.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q75, final key

  20. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) :

    I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing the RBI-DPI with 2021 as the base year to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.

    II. The RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad parameters that have in turn sub-parameters.

    III. There has been a constant increase in the RBI-DPI since the time of its inception.

    IV. 'Consumer Centricity' is one of the parameters in the RBI-DPI.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. AII and IV
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. CIII and IV
    4. DOnly III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. III and IV

    The RBI-DPI uses March 2018 as its base (=100) and has five broad parameters: payment enablers, payment infrastructure (demand side), payment infrastructure (supply side), payment performance and consumer centricity. The index has risen in every release since it began.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q76, final key

  21. Which of the following statement/statements qualifies/qualify as valid in connection with the banking mechanism in India ?

    I. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) will result in increasing credit creation.

    II. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applies only to the new deposit base while the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) specifically targets the new borrower lending base.

    III. 'Tenor Premium' is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR).

    IV. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is used as a long-term policy rate and is generally lower than the Bank Rate.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and IV
    2. BOnly III
    3. COnly IV
    4. DI, III and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Only III

    MCLR is built from the marginal cost of funds, the negative carry on CRR, operating costs and a tenor premium. Raising CRR reduces credit creation, CRR applies to all net demand and time liabilities while ICRR applies to increases in deposits, and MSF is an overnight window priced at par with the Bank Rate.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q77, final key

  22. In connection with the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    I. The fund will be established through reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec market.

    II. The fund is to be exclusively availed by private agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.

    III. Eligible activities for UIDF shall be connected to the Missions and Programmes of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

    IV. The fund will be collectively managed by a cluster of Municipal Cooperative Banks.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AOnly III
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. CII, III and IV
    4. DII and III
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Only III

    UIDF (Budget 2023-24) is funded from banks' priority sector lending shortfall and managed by the National Housing Bank. Public agencies use it for urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and 3 cities, and eligible works are linked to MoHUA's missions and programmes.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q79, final key

3.5.1Andhra Pradesh economy and bifurcationNotes

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an international airport among the six operational airports of Andhra Pradesh listed in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25?

    1. AVisakhapatnam
    2. BVijayawada
    3. CRajahmundry
    4. DTirupati
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Rajahmundry

    Rajahmundry is a domestic airport. The three international airports are Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada and Tirupati; Rajahmundry, Kadapa and Orvakallu are domestic.

    Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.7, p.151

  2. Match the following inter-state rivers with the States that share them, as given in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:

    List I

    a. Bahuda

    b. Budameru

    c. Palar

    d. Pennar

    List II

    I. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

    II. Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

    III. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

    IV. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

    1. Aa-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
    2. Ba-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
    3. Ca-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
    4. Da-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

    Bahuda is shared with Odisha, Budameru with Telangana, Palar with Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and Pennar with Karnataka.

    Source: AP SES 2024-25, p.120

  3. In the AP Budget 2026-27, the revenue deficit for 2026-27 (BE) as a percentage of GSDP is

    1. A1.11%
    2. B2.33%
    3. C3.79%
    4. D1.95%
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. 1.11%

    The revenue deficit for BE 2026-27 is about Rs 22,002 crore, 1.11% of GSDP.

    Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8

  4. According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, the total irrigation potential created in Andhra Pradesh up to 31.12.2024 is

    1. A66.81 lakh acres
    2. B98.20 lakh acres
    3. C106.15 lakh acres
    4. D112.40 lakh acres
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 106.15 lakh acres

    Irrigation potential created up to 31.12.2024 is 106.15 lakh acres: major 66.81, medium 5.62, minor 25.60 and APSIDC 8.12 lakh acres.

    Source: AP SES 2024-25, p.121

  5. The General Overview of the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25 states that manufacturing contributes approximately what share of AP's GSDP?

    1. A21%
    2. B16%
    3. C6%
    4. D11%
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. 11%

    The SES 2024-25 overview says manufacturing contributes approximately 11% of AP's GSDP.

    Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.4

  6. Consider the following statements based on PLFS 2023-24 data (all ages, usual status) cited in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:

    I. AP's Labour Force Participation Rate is higher than All-India's.

    II. AP's female LFPR is lower than All-India's female LFPR.

    III. AP's Worker Population Ratio is 45.6%.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BI, II and III
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI and III only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I and III only

    AP's LFPR is 47.5% (India 45.1%), female LFPR 35.8% (India 31.7%) and WPR 45.6%.

    Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.288; AP SES 2024-25 p.289

  7. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the interventions of the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the context of Healthcare ?

    I. Telemedicine facility is available in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) to avail specialist services through district hub.

    II. The Family Doctor Programme has been planned to be implemented as a standalone project without the need to be integrated with Primary Health Centres (PHCs).

    III. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been revamped, by increasing the income limit from ₹ 2.5 lakh to ₹ 5 lakh per annum per family.

    IV. 'Aarogya Aasara' Scheme is intended to provide post-operative sustenance allowance with certain eligible conditions complied with.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and IV
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CIII and IV
    4. DI, III and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. I, III and IV

    AP's health and wellness centres offer telemedicine with specialists at district hubs, Aarogyasri's income limit was raised from ₹2.5 lakh to ₹5 lakh, and Aarogya Aasara pays a sustenance allowance after surgery. The Family Doctor programme is built around PHCs, with PHC doctors visiting villages, so it is not standalone.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q86, final key

  8. In connection with transport and infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    I. Andhra Pradesh's first riverine project has been proposed between Muktyala and Madipadu on Krishna river.

    II. The Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport had been started with a corpus fund that is sourced from National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).

    III. Infrastructure investments in Andhra Pradesh are strictly implemented only with reference to strategic investments like ports and industrial corridors, but not with reference to community assets.

    IV. Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) are being developed in Andhra Pradesh under the Setu Bandhan Scheme.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BOnly IV
    3. CI and IV
    4. DOnly II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. I and IV

    A river-cruise project between Muktyala and Madipadu on the Krishna was proposed as AP's first riverine project, and ROBs in AP are being built under the Centre's Setu Bandhan scheme. Bhogapuram airport is a PPP project with GMR, not an NIIF-funded corpus, and AP also invests in community assets.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q87, final key

  9. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2023 - 27 ?

    I. To achieve a minimum contribution of 25% by industry in the State GDP

    II. To provide end-to-end facilitation in 2 weeks

    III. To envisage ten (10) priorities of accomplishment

    IV. To focus on becoming a 'Plug and Play State' for investments

    V. Ensuring land allotment by APIIC within a period of 2 weeks upon receipt of application

    Select the answer using the codes given below :

    1. AII, III and V
    2. BI, II, III and V
    3. COnly V
    4. DIII and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. I, II, III and V

    The AP Industrial Development Policy 2023-27 aims to make AP a 'Plug and Play' state for investors. Its targets differ from the figures given in I, II, III and V (industry share of GSDP, facilitation and land-allotment timelines, and the number of priorities), so those four statements are incorrect.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q88, final key

  10. Which of the following statements are valid in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023) ?

    I. The objective is to target Green Energy production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green Ammonia production up to the capacity of 2.0 MPTA in the next five years.

    II. New and Renewable Energy Development Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP) shall act as a Nodal Agency under this policy.

    III. All the Ports in the State have infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen which can then be utilized for storing Green Hydrogen for exporting to other countries.

    IV. The Policy prohibits the production of Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by using Renewable Energy and/or Biomass from 'Third-Party/Power exchange'.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AII and III
    2. BI and IV
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DIII and IV
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. II and III

    The 2023 policy targets 0.5 MTPA of green hydrogen or 2 MTPA of green ammonia in five years, not 1 MTPA, and it allows renewable power or biomass sourced from third parties or the power exchange. NREDCAP is the nodal agency, and the official key also accepts the ports statement.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q89, final key

  11. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the socio-economic status of Andhra Pradesh ?

    I. Andhra Pradesh won the Best State Award of ICAR – National Research Center for Banana (NRCB) for export promotion.

    II. Andhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has been registering a decline in recent times owing to repeated lower returns in certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector.

    III. For the FY 2024 - 25, the Revenue Deficit is budgeted higher than the Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of Andhra Pradesh GSDP.

    IV. The technology used by the Government of Andhra Pradesh while conducting resurvey of landholdings is referred to as 'Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)' technology.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    1. AI and IV
    2. BII and III
    3. CII, III and IV
    4. DOnly II
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. I and IV

    AP received ICAR-NRCB's best state award for banana export promotion, and the land resurvey uses CORS-based satellite positioning with drones. AP's GSDP has been growing, not declining, and the 2024-25 budget puts the revenue deficit below the fiscal deficit as a share of GSDP.

    Source: APPSC Group 1 Paper I 2024 (Notification 12/2023), Q90, final key

Practise more Indian & AP Economy and Planning. The app has more questions on this topic, picks new ones first and brings back the ones you got wrong.

Medha AI is an independent preparation service. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to APPSC, TSPSC, MPSC, UPSC or any other commission or government body.