APPSC G1 Paper I Mock 1 with answers

Arrange the following events in Indian epigraphy in chronological order:

I. First issue of Epigraphia Indica

II. Founding of the Asiatic Society (Bengal)

III. Alexander Cunningham publishes a set of Asokan inscriptions

IV. James Prinsep deciphers Asokan Brahmi

A Sanskrit prashasti found at Gwalior describes the exploits of Nagabhata, a king of which dynasty?

Match the following dynasties with their capitals:

List I

a. Pallavas

b. Early (Western) Chalukyas

c. Hoysalas

d. Chalukyas of Kalyani

List II

I. Dwarasamudra

II. Basavakalyan

III. Kanchipuram

IV. Badami

Which Pallava ruler was known as 'Mamalla'?

Match List I (archaeologist) with List II (Harappan site where he began excavations):

List I

a. Daya Ram Sahni

b. S.R. Rao

c. B.B. Lal and B.K. Thapar

d. R.S. Bisht

List II

I. Dholavira

II. Harappa

III. Kalibangan

IV. Lothal

Which Venetian traveller visited the Pandya kingdom and praised its administration?

Which one of the following animals is NOT shown around the seated figure on the so-called 'Pashupati' seal?

Consider the following statements about Mahayana Buddhism:

I. The concept of the Bodhisatta, a compassionate being who used merit to help others, developed in it.

II. Worship of images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattas became an important part of it.

III. The term Mahayana literally means 'the lesser vehicle'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the following types of megalithic monuments with their descriptions:

List I

a. Dolmen

b. Cist

c. Menhir

d. Sarcophagus

List II

I. A single upright stone set up as a memorial

II. A large capstone resting on upright stones

III. A terracotta coffin, often with legs

IV. A box-like chamber of stone slabs, usually below the ground

Consider the following statements about Kubja Vishnuvardhana:

I. He was the younger brother of Pulakesin II.

II. He bore the title Vishamasiddhi.

III. His queen Ayyana Mahadevi built a Jain shrine at Bezawada.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which Pallava king was known as 'Mamalla'?

Match the styles of architecture in List I with List II:

List I

a. Mahendra style

b. Mamalla style

c. Rajasimha style

d. Vesara style

List II

I. Structural temples such as the Kailasanatha at Kanchipuram

II. Mixed Nagara and Dravida style of the Chalukyas

III. Cave temples cut into rock

IV. Monolithic rathas at Mahabalipuram

Consider the following statements about Ganapatideva:

I. He ruled for about six decades, the longest reign among the Kakatiyas.

II. He captured Vijayawada and the island of Divi (Diviseema).

III. His daughter Mailamba issued the Bayyaram tank inscription.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Dara Shikoh, the elder brother of Aurangzeb, is credited with translating which texts into Persian?

Consider the following statements about Guru Nanak:

I. He was born in 1469 at Nankana Sahib near the river Ravi.

II. He expressed his ideas through hymns called 'shabad' in Punjabi.

III. He appointed his disciple Angad to succeed him as Guru.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Mughal mansabdari system:

I. A mansab was a rank that fixed the holder's pay and military duties.

II. A mansabdar's son automatically inherited his father's rank.

III. Mansabdars were usually paid through revenue assignments called jagirs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about Mughal jagirs:

I. Jagirs were not held permanently but were transferred periodically.

II. Most mansabdars lived in and personally administered their jagirs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match List I (Sufi saint) with List II (Location of dargah):

List I

a. Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi

b. Shaikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar

c. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya

d. Mir Sayyid Muhammad Gesu Daraz

List II

I. Delhi

II. Ajmer

III. Gulbarga

IV. Ajodhan

Which woman ruler of Ahmednagar fought bravely and opposed the forces of Akbar?

Arrange the following events of Akbar's reign in chronological order:

I. Building of the Ibadat Khana

II. Proclamation of Din-i-Ilahi

III. Completion of the Ain-i Akbari

IV. Second battle of Panipat

The autobiography 'Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri' was written by:

Match List I (centre of revolt) with List II (British officer associated with its suppression):

List I

a. Jhansi

b. Delhi

c. Benaras

d. Lucknow (final relief)

List II

I. Colin Campbell

II. James Neill

III. Hugh Rose

IV. John Nicholson

Match the items in List I with the related facts in List II:

List I

a. Sir Arthur Cotton

b. Captain Orr

c. Kurnool-Kadapa canal

d. Ganjam famine

List II

I. Built to irrigate dry areas of Rayalaseema

II. Anicut across the Godavari at Dowleswaram

III. Built the Krishna anicut at Vijayawada

IV. 1865-66

The rich peasants of North Bengal, described in Francis Buchanan's survey of Dinajpur, who controlled local trade and moneylending, were known as:

Who was the Deputy Chief Minister in the first ministry of Andhra State (1953)?

Consider the following statements about the Salt Satyagraha (1930) in Andhra:

I. Pattabhi Sitaramayya led the breaking of salt laws at Machilipatnam.

II. Dandu Narayana Raju led the satyagraha in West Godavari.

III. Bulusu Sambamurti led the salt satyagraha at Visakhapatnam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

I. Kotappakonda incident

II. Bipin Chandra Pal's tour of Andhra

III. Annie Besant launches the Home Rule movement at Madras

IV. Calcutta session of the INC approves a separate Andhra Congress circle

In the JVP Committee of 1948-49 on linguistic states, the letter 'P' stood for:

Which one of the following did NOT take place in the then Guntur district?

Which President of India proclaimed the Emergency on 25 June 1975?

In which 1981 case did the Supreme Court clarify that the basic structure doctrine applies to constitutional amendments made after 24 April 1973?

Match List I (Article outside Part III) with List II (right it contains):

List I

a. Article 265

b. Article 300A

c. Article 301

d. Article 326

List II

I. Elections on the basis of adult suffrage

II. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse

III. No deprivation of property save by authority of law

IV. No tax to be levied or collected except by authority of law

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements about Article 39:

I. Clause (b) directs that ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.

II. Clause (c) directs that the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

III. Clause (f) prohibits the employment of children below fourteen years in factories and mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about Article 49:

I. It obliges the State to protect monuments and places or objects of artistic or historic interest declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance.

II. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

I. Appointment of the Drafting Committee under Dr B.R. Ambedkar

II. Announcement of the Cabinet Mission Plan

III. Publication of the first draft of the Constitution

IV. Setting up of the Expert Committee of the Congress

Select the correct order (earliest first).

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court held that a procedure depriving a person of personal liberty must be fair, just and reasonable.

Reason (R): In the A.K. Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court gave a wide interpretation of Article 21, protecting it against arbitrary legislative action.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which Article of the Constitution declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void?

Match List I (Schedule) with List II (Amendment Act that added it in its present form):

List I

a. Ninth Schedule

b. Tenth Schedule

c. Eleventh Schedule

d. Twelfth Schedule

List II

I. 74th Amendment Act

II. 52nd Amendment Act

III. 1st Amendment Act

IV. 73rd Amendment Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match List I (parliamentary committee) with List II (year of origin):

List I

a. Public Accounts Committee

b. Estimates Committee (post-independence)

c. Committee on Public Undertakings

d. Departmentally Related Standing Committees

List II

I. 1993

II. 1964

III. 1921

IV. 1950

Choose the correct code:

Statement I: A candidate for the office of President must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

Statement II: A candidate for the office of Vice-President must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about grants-in-aid under Article 275(1):

I. Grants may be given for schemes of development undertaken by a State, with the approval of the Government of India, for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

II. Grants may be given for raising the level of administration of the Scheduled Areas.

III. Such grants can be given only to the States of the North-East.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Consider the following statements about Union ministers:

I. A minister who is not a member of either House for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.

II. Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.

III. The salaries of ministers are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under Article 78, which of the following are duties of the Prime Minister?

I. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union and proposals for legislation

II. To furnish such information relating to administration and proposals for legislation as the President may call for

III. If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a minister has taken a decision but which has not been considered by the Council

IV. To obtain the prior approval of the President before allocating portfolios among ministers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Consider the following statements about Article 163:

I. If a question arises whether a matter is one in which the Governor is required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor is final.

II. Whether any advice was tendered by the ministers to the Governor, and if so what, cannot be inquired into in any court.

III. The Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in every matter without exception.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the stages of an ordinary bill:

I. No amendments can be moved at the third reading.

II. The committee stage is a part of the second reading.

III. The bill is discussed clause by clause at the first reading.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

In which of the following cases can the Governor NOT promulgate an ordinance without instructions from the President?

I. A bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the President for its introduction.

II. The Governor would have considered it necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions for the consideration of the President.

III. A bill containing the same provisions would have been a money bill.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

In which case did the Supreme Court describe Article 324 as a reservoir of power that the Election Commission can use where the law made by Parliament is silent?

Consider the following statements about the High Courts:

I. When the office of Chief Justice of a High Court is vacant, the President appoints one of the other judges of that Court to perform the duties of the office.

II. Parliament may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to a Union Territory or exclude it from one.

III. A common High Court for two or more States may be established by an order of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about reports of Public Service Commissions:

I. The UPSC presents an annual report on its work to the President.

II. The President places the report before each House of Parliament with a memorandum explaining the cases where the Commission's advice was not accepted.

III. A Joint State Public Service Commission presents its annual report to the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following factors does the Governor have regard to while specifying a transitional area, a smaller urban area or a larger urban area under Article 243Q(2)?

I. Population of the area

II. Density of population in the area

III. Revenue generated for local administration

IV. Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Consider the following statements about the duration of Panchayats under Article 243E:

I. A Panchayat continues for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier.

II. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues for a full term of five years.

III. If the remainder of the term is less than six months, it is not necessary to hold an election for that period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about Mission Karmayogi:

1. Its apex body, the Public Human Resources Council, is chaired by the Prime Minister.

2. iGOT Karmayogi is the digital platform for online learning under the programme.

3. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2015 along with the Digital India programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is provided for under which Article?

Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission:

I. Its Secretary-General is the Chief Executive Officer of the Commission.

II. Its headquarters is at Delhi.

III. On ceasing to hold office, its Chairperson is eligible for further employment under a State Government, but not under the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Lokpal:

I. Not less than fifty per cent of its members must be from the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, minorities and women.

II. It has a Prosecution Wing headed by a Director of Prosecution.

III. The eminent jurist on the Selection Committee is nominated by the Prime Minister alone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the removal of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission:

I. He can be removed by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an inquiry by the Supreme Court on a reference made by the President.

II. His removal on the ground of misbehaviour requires an address by both Houses of Parliament passed by a special majority.

III. The President may remove him by order if he engages in any paid employment outside the duties of his office during his term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which Article of the Constitution enables the State to reserve appointments or posts for any backward class of citizens that is not adequately represented in the services under the State?

Consider the following statements about the definition of youth:

I. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines youth as persons aged 15 to 29 years.

II. The National Youth Policy 2003 had defined youth as persons aged 13 to 35 years.

III. For statistical purposes, the United Nations defines youth as persons aged 15 to 24 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the G20:

1. It was created in 1999 as a forum of finance ministers and central bank governors after the Asian financial crisis.

2. It has a permanent secretariat in Washington, D.C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about India's Neighbourhood First policy:

1. Leaders of all SAARC countries were invited to the swearing-in of the new government in May 2014.

2. Under it India has signed a treaty of mutual defence with every SAARC member.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

According to MoSPI's Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2023-24, the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India, without imputed values of items received free, was

Consider the following statements about the New Public Sector Enterprise Policy (2021):

I. It identifies five broad strategic sectors.

II. In strategic sectors, a bare minimum presence of public sector enterprises is to be kept.

III. In non-strategic sectors, CPSEs are to be privatised or else closed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match List I (pre-independence or early plan) with List II (person or group):

List I

a. Bombay Plan (1944)

b. Gandhian Plan (1944)

c. People's Plan (1945)

d. Sarvodaya Plan (1950)

List II

I. M.N. Roy

II. Jayaprakash Narayan

III. Leading industrialists

IV. S.N. Agarwal

According to NCERT, the share of the industrial sector in India's GDP changed between 1950-51 and 1990-91 from

Consider the following statements about the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the GDP deflator:

I. The GDP deflator covers all goods and services produced in the country.

II. CPI includes prices of imported consumer goods, but the GDP deflator does not.

III. CPI weights change every year with the level of production of each good.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

I. Land revenue and stamp and registration fees are production taxes.

II. Excise duty and import duty are product taxes.

III. GVA at basic prices includes net product taxes but not net production taxes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

I. The average income of a country is also called its per capita income.

II. The World Bank's World Development Reports use per capita income to classify countries.

III. Per capita income shows how income is distributed among the people of a country.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

Consider the following statements about industrial statistics in India:

I. The Index of Industrial Production is compiled by the National Statistics Office, MoSPI.

II. The Purchasing Managers' Index is compiled by the Reserve Bank of India.

III. The Index of Eight Core Industries is released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Match List I (instrument) with List II (feature):

List I

a. American Depository Receipt

b. Global Depository Receipt

c. Masala bond

d. Participatory note

List II

I. Rupee-denominated bond issued abroad

II. Traded on US stock exchanges

III. Lets overseas investors take exposure to Indian securities without registering with SEBI

IV. Traded on stock exchanges outside the US, such as London

Statement A: The Kisan Credit Card facility has been extended to farmers engaged in animal husbandry and fisheries.

Statement B: The Kisan Credit Card is meant only for long-term investment credit for buying land.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about autonomous and accommodating transactions:

I. Autonomous transactions are called 'above the line' items.

II. Official reserve transactions are autonomous transactions.

III. A balance of payments surplus or deficit is judged by comparing autonomous receipts with autonomous payments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for PPP infrastructure projects:

I. The sponsoring authority cannot add any grant beyond the Central VGF.

II. It supports projects that are economically justified but not financially viable.

III. Under the general scheme the Centre can give up to 20 per cent of the total project cost.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A bank loan is classified as a non-performing asset (NPA) when interest or instalment remains overdue for more than

Consider the following statements about price indices in India:

I. The WPI covers services as well as goods.

II. CPI is compiled separately for rural and urban areas, and a combined index is also released.

III. The GDP deflator is released every month along with the CPI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the institutions with the year in which they were set up:

List I

a. Reserve Bank of India

b. State Bank of India

c. NABARD

d. First Regional Rural Banks

List II

I. 1975

II. 1935

III. 1982

IV. 1955

Consider the following statements about money:

I. Demand deposits are legal tender.

II. M3 is also called aggregate monetary resources.

III. Deposits that one commercial bank holds in another are not counted in money supply.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

In the WPI series with base year 2011-12, the group 'Manufactured products' has a weight of about

Consider the following statements:

I. Public provision means that goods are financed through the budget and can be used without any direct payment.

II. When goods are produced directly by the government, it is called public production.

III. Public goods can be produced only by the government and never by the private sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about credit in India:

I. Members of a Self-Help Group pool their savings and give small loans to members of the group.

II. The RBI supervises the lending of informal lenders such as moneylenders.

III. Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and pledges to the lender as a guarantee.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Consider the following statements about the CPI (Combined) series with base year 2012:

I. Food and beverages carry the largest weight.

II. Housing carries a larger weight than the miscellaneous group.

III. Fuel and light carry a weight of less than 10%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Basel norms followed by banks in India:

I. The Liquidity Coverage Ratio requires enough high-quality liquid assets to survive 30 days of stress.

II. Subordinated term debt is a part of Tier 2 capital.

III. Tier 1 capital mainly consists of revaluation reserves.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Match the measures of money supply with their components:

List I

a. M1

b. M2

c. M3

d. M4

List II

I. M1 + net time deposits of commercial banks

II. M3 + total post office deposits (excluding NSCs)

III. Currency with the public + demand deposits + other deposits with RBI

IV. M1 + savings deposits with post office savings banks

Match List I with List II:

List I

a. Base Erosion and Profit Shifting

b. Place of Effective Management

c. General Anti-Avoidance Rules

d. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement

List II

I. A treaty that prevents the same income from being taxed in two countries

II. A test of where key management and commercial decisions of a company are made

III. Strategies of multinationals to move profits to low-tax jurisdictions

IV. Provisions to deny tax benefits from arrangements made mainly to avoid tax

Consider the following statements about the amendments made to the FRBM Act, 2003 in 2018:

I. Central Government debt was to be brought down to 40 per cent of GDP by 2024-25.

II. An escape clause allows the fiscal deficit target to be exceeded by up to 0.5 per cent of GDP on specified grounds.

III. The revenue deficit was retained as the main operational target in place of the fiscal deficit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which one of the following is NOT an international airport among the six operational airports of Andhra Pradesh listed in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25?

Match the following inter-state rivers with the States that share them, as given in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:

List I

a. Bahuda

b. Budameru

c. Palar

d. Pennar

List II

I. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

II. Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

III. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

IV. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

In the AP Budget 2026-27, the revenue deficit for 2026-27 (BE) as a percentage of GSDP is

According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, the total irrigation potential created in Andhra Pradesh up to 31.12.2024 is

The General Overview of the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25 states that manufacturing contributes approximately what share of AP's GSDP?

Consider the following statements based on PLFS 2023-24 data (all ages, usual status) cited in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:

I. AP's Labour Force Participation Rate is higher than All-India's.

II. AP's female LFPR is lower than All-India's female LFPR.

III. AP's Worker Population Ratio is 45.6%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the terms in List I with their descriptions in List II:

List I

a. Aphelion

b. Perihelion

c. Albedo

d. Insolation

List II

I. Incoming solar radiation

II. Earth farthest from the sun, about 152 million km

III. Fraction of incoming radiation reflected back to space

IV. Earth nearest to the sun, about 147 million km

Consider the following statements about river valleys:

I. Canyons commonly form in horizontally bedded sedimentary rocks, while gorges form in hard rocks.

II. A gorge is much wider at its top than at its bottom, whereas a canyon is almost equal in width at its top and bottom.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

Of the 57 oceanic deeps explored so far, according to NCERT, how many are in the Indian Ocean?

Consider the following statements:

I. Plutonic rocks are formed when lava cools on the surface of the earth.

II. Near-horizontal intrusive bodies are called sheets when thin and sills when thick.

III. The domal granite hills of the Karnataka plateau are examples of laccoliths or batholiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which one of the following pairs of glacial feature and its description is NOT correctly matched?

Match List I with List II:

List I (Dune)

a. Barchan

b. Parabolic dune

c. Seif

d. Transverse dune

List II (Condition of formation)

I. Has only one wing, due to a shift in wind conditions

II. Perpendicular to the wind, with an elongated sand source at right angles

III. Crescent with wings downwind; constant, moderate wind and uniform surface

IV. Sandy surface partially covered with vegetation

Select the correct code:

Which one of the following statements about tides is INCORRECT?

Match List I with List II:

List I (Landform)

a. Gorge

b. Canyon

c. Plunge pool

d. River terrace

List II (Description)

I. Surface marking an old valley floor or floodplain level

II. Large deep hole at the base of a waterfall

III. Steep step-like side slopes, wider at the top than the bottom

IV. Very steep, straight sides, nearly equal in width at the top and bottom

Select the correct code:

Consider the following statements about biodiversity:

I. Biodiversity is not found evenly on the earth; it is consistently richer in the tropics.

II. About 99 per cent of the species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct.

III. As one approaches the polar regions, one finds larger populations of fewer species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the Koeppen dry climate codes in List I with their descriptions in List II:

List I

a. BSh

b. BWh

c. BSk

d. BWk

List II

I. Mid-latitude arid (desert)

II. Low-latitude semi-arid (subtropical steppe)

III. Mid-latitude semi-arid (steppe)

IV. Low-latitude arid (subtropical desert)

Match List I with List II:

List I (Hill station)

a. Ooty

b. Munnar

c. Kodaikanal

d. Lambasingi

List II (Hill range)

I. Anaimalai hills

II. Palani hills

III. Nilgiri hills

IV. Eastern Ghats (Chintapalli, Visakhapatnam agency)

Select the correct code:

Which river enters the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam?

Consider the following statements about the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO):

I. It is a pulse of clouds and rainfall that moves eastward near the equator.

II. Its active phase over the Indian Ocean tends to enhance rainfall over India.

III. It originates over the Atlantic Ocean and moves westward into the Indian Ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the evolution of the Himalayan drainage:

I. A mighty river called the Shiwalik or Indo-Brahma is believed to have flowed along the Himalaya during the Miocene period.

II. Its dismemberment is linked to the Pleistocene upheaval in the western Himalayas, including the uplift of the Potwar Plateau.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the following rainfall zones with the areas that fall in them:

List I (Annual rainfall)

a. Over 200 cm

b. 100-200 cm

c. 50-100 cm

d. Less than 50 cm

List II (Area)

I. Delhi and Haryana

II. Ladakh and western Rajasthan

III. West coast and Western Ghats

IV. Odisha and Jharkhand

Match the following areas and seasons with the main source of their rainfall:

List I (Area and season)

a. Konkan coast in July

b. Meghalaya plateau in July

c. Coromandel coast in November

d. Punjab plains in January

List II (Source of rain)

I. Western disturbances

II. Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon

III. Bay of Bengal branch of the south-west monsoon

IV. North-east/retreating monsoon and cyclones

Consider the following statements about the direction of the Himalayan ranges:

I. In the Darjiling and Sikkim regions they lie in an east-west direction.

II. In Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram they run in a north-south direction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the glaciers in List I with their regions in List II:

List I (Glacier)

a. Siachen

b. Zemu

c. Bara Shigri

d. Pindari

List II (Region)

I. Lahaul, Himachal Pradesh

II. Karakoram

III. Kumaon, Uttarakhand

IV. Sikkim

Select the correct code:

Match the types of rural settlement with the regions where they are typically found:

List I

a. Clustered (compact for defence)

b. Semi-clustered

c. Hamleted

d. Dispersed

List II

I. Gujarat plain

II. Middle and lower Ganga plain

III. Bundelkhand

IV. Hills of Meghalaya

Match the functional types of towns with examples:

List I

a. Mining town

b. Garrison cantonment town

c. Educational town

d. Tourist town

List II

I. Pilani

II. Pachmarhi

III. Singrauli

IV. Mhow

Match the soils of Andhra Pradesh in List I with the descriptions in List II (as in the SCERT text):

List I

a. Alluvial soils

b. Black soils

c. Red rocky hill soils

d. Saline soils of the plateau

List II

I. Well drained; suit coffee in the agency hills

II. Contain more lime and salt; unsuitable for cultivation

III. Deep and fertile soils of the Krishna-Godavari delta

IV. Found around Kadapa and Kurnool

Consider the following statements about silk in India:

I. India produces all the major commercial varieties of silk, including mulberry, tasar, eri and muga.

II. Muga silk is produced mainly in Assam.

III. India is the largest producer of silk in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Match the solar parks in List I with the states in List II:

List I (Solar park)

a. Bhadla

b. Charanka

c. Pavagada

d. Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park

List II (State)

I. Karnataka

II. Andhra Pradesh

III. Rajasthan

IV. Gujarat

Select the correct code:

Match the programme in List I with its main purpose in List II:

List I

a. Operation Flood

b. Kisan Credit Card

c. Bhoodan

d. Green Revolution

List II

I. HYV seeds with fertilisers and irrigation

II. Easy loans to farmers

III. Gift of land for the landless

IV. Milk production through cooperatives

Match the steel plants in List I with the places where they are located in List II:

List I (Steel plant)

a. IISCO

b. Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Ltd (VISL)

c. Bokaro Steel Plant

d. Salem Steel Plant

List II (Location)

I. Tamil Nadu

II. Burnpur and Kulti, West Bengal

III. Bhadravati, Karnataka

IV. Jharkhand

Select the correct code:

Consider the following statements:

I. The Kohinoor diamond is linked with the Kollur mines of erstwhile Guntur district.

II. The Vajrakarur kimberlite pipe is in erstwhile Anantapur district.

III. The Jonnagiri gold project is in erstwhile Anantapur district.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to Mumbai High, the offshore oilfield of India, consider the following statements:

I. It lies about 160 km off Mumbai in the Arabian Sea.

II. Oil production from it commenced in 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about pipelines in India:

I. The oil pipeline from the Naharkatiya oilfield to Barauni was later extended up to Kanpur.

II. The Salaya-Jalandhar pipeline has a branch connecting Koyali near Vadodara.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Match the ports with the states in which they are located:

List I

a. Paradip

b. Kandla (Deendayal)

c. Mormugao

d. Tuticorin (V.O. Chidambaranar)

List II

I. Tamil Nadu

II. Goa

III. Odisha

IV. Gujarat

Consider the following statements about jowar:

I. In northern India it is a kharif crop, mostly grown as a fodder crop.

II. In the southern states it is sown in both the kharif and the rabi seasons.

III. South of the Vindhyachal it is mostly an irrigated crop with high yields.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?