MPSC ATP · Topic 10

10 MPSC ATP UDCPR questions with answers

24 questions from MPSC ATP Mock Test 1 with answers and MPSC ATP 2022 question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.

Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.

Concessions

  1. Q1 Mock Test 1, Q46

    The extent of Foreign Direct Investment permitted in Integrated Township Projects in India (Press Note 4 of 2001 series) is:

    1. A74%
    2. B49%
    3. C100%
    4. D26%
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 100%

    Press Note No. 4 (2001 series) of DIPP allowed 100% FDI in development of integrated townships, which the Maharashtra ITP regulation cites as one of the enabling incentives.

    Source: DIPP Press Note 4 (2001); UDCPR 2020, Regulation 14.1

P-line - what counts

  1. Q2 Mock Test 1, Q47

    Which of the following is counted in the P-line area for FSI under the UDCPR?

    1. ALift well and lift machine room
    2. BA double-height terrace
    3. CAn atrium
    4. DRefuge area of a high-rise building
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. A double-height terrace

    Reg 6.6 expressly includes double-height terraces in the P-line. Lift wells, lift machine rooms (6.8(iii)), refuge areas (6.8(v)) and atriums (6.8(vii)) are excluded from FSI.

    Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Regs 6.6 and 6.8

Zoning

  1. Q3 Mock Test 1, Q48

    In a Regional plan area, an Integrated Township Project under UDCPR 2020 may be permitted on land falling in the:

    1. AAny land-use zone, including Agricultural / No-Development Zone, except excluded areas such as notified forests, water bodies, National Parks and defence estates
    2. BCoastal Regulation Zone only
    3. CReserved forest only
    4. DDefence land only
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Any land-use zone, including Agricultural / No-Development Zone, except excluded areas such as notified forests, water bodies, National Parks and defence estates

    Reg 14.1.1.7(i)(a): an ITP may be permitted in any land-use zone of a sanctioned Regional / Development Plan, except the areas listed in Reg 14.1.1.2(v) (notified forest, water bodies, mangroves and area within HTL, National Parks, defence estates, cantonments, quarry zone, gaothan etc.); zones other than residential/commercial pay a premium under Table 14-A (10% for Agriculture/NDZ). Hill-top/hill-slope, flood-zone, ESZ-buffer and CRZ-buffer lands may be included up to 40% of the ITP area, with no construction on hill slopes (14.1.1.2(ii)(g), 14.1.1.7(i)(c)).

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 14.1.1.7(i), Table 14-A; Reg 14.1.1.2(ii)(g), (v)

TDR - receiving plot

  1. Q4 Mock Test 1, Q49

    Under UDCPR 2020, the quantum of TDR that can be loaded on a receiving plot is primarily limited by:

    1. Athe number of floors in the existing building
    2. Bthe area of the generating plot
    3. Cthe population of the ward
    4. Dthe TDR column of Table 6-G/6-A, which depends on the width of the road the plot fronts
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. the TDR column of Table 6-G/6-A, which depends on the width of the road the plot fronts

    TDR loading is capped by the road-width-based limits in Table 6-G (0.40 to 1.40 in MC non-congested areas) and Table 6-A, along with other conditions in Reg 6.3 and Chapter 11.

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.3, Table 6-G; Chapter 11

Development charges (Reg 2.2.13)

  1. Q5 Mock Test 1, Q50

    Under UDCPR 2020, development charges under the MRTP Act are to be deposited:

    1. Aafter completion of plinth, at the Collector's rates
    2. Bbefore issue of development permission/commencement certificate, calculated using the rates in the Annual Statement of Rates (ASR)
    3. Cat the time of occupancy certificate, at a flat rate
    4. Donly for buildings above 24 m height
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. before issue of development permission/commencement certificate, calculated using the rates in the Annual Statement of Rates (ASR)

    Reg 2.2.13 requires development charges to be deposited before issue of DP/CC, calculated for each land parcel considering ASR rates; compound walls, maintenance and certain repairs are exempt.

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.2.13; MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.124A, 124B

Relaxations (Reg 2.4)

  1. Q6 Mock Test 1, Q51

    For Municipal Councils and Regional Plan areas, relaxations under Reg 2.4 of UDCPR 2020 are to be granted in consultation with the:

    1. ADirector of Municipal Administration
    2. BChief Fire Officer
    3. CCollector
    4. Dconcerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning

    Reg 2.4 provides that in Municipal Councils and RP areas such relaxation shall be granted in consultation with the concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning.

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.4

Ancillary FSI - mixed use

  1. Q7 Mock Test 1, Q52

    A composite building has proposed FSI of 3,000 sq m for residential use and 1,000 sq m for commercial use. Taking ancillary area FSI on a pro-rata basis by use, the maximum ancillary area FSI is:

    1. A2,400 sq m
    2. B2,600 sq m
    3. C3,200 sq m
    4. D2,000 sq m
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. 2,600 sq m

    For mixed uses, ancillary FSI is pro-rata: residential 60% x 3,000 = 1,800 sq m; commercial 80% x 1,000 = 800 sq m. Total = 2,600 sq m.

    Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Notes 1 and 4 below Table 6-A; Note (i) below Table 6-G

Green building - mandatory for public buildings

  1. Q8 Mock Test 1, Q53

    Under the proviso to UDCPR Reg 7.10(i), which buildings must mandatorily achieve at least GRIHA Three star / IGBC Silver / LEED Silver (or equivalent)?

    1. AAll buildings on plots above 4,000 sq m, whether public or private
    2. BBuildings of Government, Semi-Government, local bodies and public sector undertakings
    3. CAll IT/ITES buildings and data centres in Municipal Corporation areas
    4. DAll residential and commercial buildings above 24 m height in any authority
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Buildings of Government, Semi-Government, local bodies and public sector undertakings

    The proviso makes a minimum three-star/silver-equivalent rating compulsory for all Government, Semi-Government, local body and PSU construction projects. For private projects the rating is voluntary and rewarded with incentive FSI.

    Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Reg 7.10(i) proviso

TDR generation (Reg 11.2)

  1. Q9 Mock Test 1, Q54

    An owner surrenders 800 sq.m. of land affected by a DP road (non-congested area) free of cost to the Planning Authority. The TDR admissible under UDCPR 2020 is:

    1. A800 sq.m.
    2. B2,400 sq.m.
    3. C1,200 sq.m.
    4. D1,600 sq.m.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. 1,600 sq.m.

    Reg 11.2.4: TDR equal to 2 times the area of land surrendered (non-congested area). 2 x 800 = 1,600 sq.m.

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 11.2.4

Definitions - row housing

  1. Q10 Mock Test 1, Q55

    Under UDCPR 2020, 'row housing' means a row of houses with:

    1. Aonly front open space
    2. Bonly front and rear open spaces, except end houses which have side open spaces
    3. Ccommon walls on all sides and a central courtyard
    4. Dopen spaces on all four sides
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which have side open spaces

    Reg 1.3 defines row housing as a row of houses with only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which shall have side open spaces.

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 1.3 (definition: Row housing)

Ancillary FSI (Reg 6.1/6.3)

  1. Q11 Mock Test 1, Q56

    A residential building is proposed with 4,000 sq.m. of FSI (basic + premium + TDR) in a Municipal Corporation. The maximum ancillary area FSI that can be added under UDCPR 2020, and the resulting total built-up area, are:

    1. A1,600 sq.m.; 5,600 sq.m.
    2. B2,000 sq.m.; 6,000 sq.m.
    3. C2,400 sq.m.; 6,400 sq.m.
    4. D3,200 sq.m.; 7,200 sq.m.
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 2,400 sq.m.; 6,400 sq.m.

    Ancillary area FSI for residential = 60% of proposed FSI = 0.60 x 4,000 = 2,400 sq.m.; total = 4,000 + 2,400 = 6,400 sq.m.

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.1 & 6.3

Definitions - tenement

  1. Q12 Mock Test 1, Q57

    In UDCPR 2020, a 'tenement' is defined as:

    1. Aa dwelling unit having carpet area not exceeding 30 sq.m.
    2. Ban independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove
    3. Cany room let out on rent in a building
    4. Da unit in a group housing scheme having a separate entrance staircase
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove

    Reg 1.3 defines tenement as 'an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove'; size limits arise only under specific schemes (e.g. inclusive housing).

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 1.3 (definition: Tenement)

Definition - Special Building

  1. Q13 ATP 2022, Q30

    As per UDCPR, 'Special Building' means

    1. Aany multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level
    2. Ba building for educational, assembly or mercantile use having built-up area of 300 sq.m or more on any floor irrespective of height
    3. Ca building for educational, assembly or mercantile use having total built-up area of 500 sq.m or more irrespective of height
    4. Dany multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height (excluding parking floors up to 6 m height)
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level

    UDCPR 2020 Reg. 1.3 (as sanctioned) defines a special building as (i) any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level, or (ii) buildings for educational, assembly, mercantile, institutional, industrial, storage and hazardous occupancies having built-up area of 500 sq.m or more on any floor irrespective of height. Option (2) wrongly says 300 sq.m, option (3) says total built-up area instead of 'on any floor', and the parking-floor exclusion in option (4) is not in the sanctioned definition. (The scan prints '240 m' and '60 m' for 24 m and 6 m.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 1.3 (definitions)

Scrutiny fee

  1. Q14 ATP 2022, Q31

    For a building/layout permission, a proposal is received by the authority from the owner after compliance of the objections raised by the authority. Which of the following correctly applies regarding the scrutiny fee?

    1. AScrutiny fee shall be calculated afresh and levied
    2. BScrutiny fee shall be calculated afresh and levied, on condition that it shall be adjusted along with the security deposit for refund after the completion certificate is issued
    3. CScrutiny fee shall be calculated afresh with 50% concession for such permissions
    4. DNo scrutiny fee shall be levied again for such proposals
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. No scrutiny fee shall be levied again for such proposals

    Note (i) under UDCPR Reg. 2.2.12 states that no scrutiny fee shall be levied if the proposal is received after compliance of the objections raised by the authority; fee is charged again only for revised permissions. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 2.2.12

Risk-based permission

  1. Q15 ATP 2022, Q32

    On a plot of 300 sq.m area in a sanctioned layout, you want to construct a residential building of ground + 2 storeys of 450 sq.m total built-up area, including ancillary area FSI. As per UDCPR, such a building falls under which category?

    1. ALow Risk
    2. BModerate Risk
    3. CHigh Risk
    4. DNone of the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. Moderate Risk

    UDCPR treats buildings on plots up to 150 sq.m as low risk and on plots above 150 sq.m up to 300 sq.m as moderate risk (permission on submission as per Appendix K); a 300 sq.m plot is therefore moderate risk. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.1.2(xv), 2.6.3 and Appendix K

Inclusive housing applicability

  1. Q16 ATP 2022, Q33

    The criterion for applicability of inclusive housing for Municipal Corporations depends upon

    1. Athe slope of the plot under the development permission
    2. Bthe proposed built-up area under the development permission
    3. Cpopulation as per the latest census
    4. DBoth (1) and (2)
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. population as per the latest census

    UDCPR Reg. 3.8 makes inclusive housing (20% of plot area/tenements for EWS/LIG on plots of 4000 sq.m and above) applicable in Municipal Corporations having population of 10 lakh or more as per the latest census; slope and built-up area are not criteria. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 3.8

Public/semi-public zone uses

  1. Q17 ATP 2022, Q34

    In a public/semi-public zone, which of the following uses shall be permissible?

    1. AHome for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensary, health centre
    2. BResidential use up to 25%
    3. CCommercial use up to 25%
    4. DAll the uses mentioned in (1), (2) and (3)
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer A. Home for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensary, health centre

    The public/semi-public zone is meant for institutional and social facilities such as homes for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensaries and health centres. UDCPR permits only limited ancillary commercial use (about 15%) in this zone, not 25% residential or 25% commercial use, so only option (1) is correct. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Ch. 4 (uses permissible in Public/Semi-public zone)

Residential/commercial in industrial zone

  1. Q18 ATP 2022, Q35

    Lands in the Industrial Zone of a Development Plan/Regional Plan may be utilised for any of the permissible uses in the Residential and Commercial Zone, subject to the provision that in the layout or sub-division of such land,

    1. A10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities
    2. B10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities up to 2 ha area and 15% for the area over and above 2 ha
    3. C15% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities
    4. Dfor land admeasuring more than 2 ha, 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer B. 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities up to 2 ha area and 15% for the area over and above 2 ha

    UDCPR Reg. 4.8.1 allows land in the Industrial Zone to be used for residential/commercial uses subject to providing land for public utilities and amenities: 10% of the plot area for plots up to 2 ha and 15% for plots above 2 ha (half of it for gardens/recreation-type non-buildable uses), in addition to the normal recreational open space. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 4.8.1(b)(v)

FSI table non-congested area

  1. Q19 ATP 2022, Q36

    Which of the following statements is correct for Floor Space Index (FSI) in non-congested areas for residential and residential with mixed users?

    1. AFSI on account of both payment of premium and maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts
    2. BFSI on account of payment of premium increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts
    3. CFSI on account of maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts
    4. DNone of the above
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. FSI on account of maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts

    In UDCPR Reg 6.3, Table 6-G (non-congested area, Municipal Corporation columns) the basic FSI (1.10) and premium FSI (0.50 for roads 9 m and above) stay constant, while the maximum permissible TDR loading rises with road width (0.40 for 9-12 m up to 1.40 for 30 m and above). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.3, Table 6-G

Redevelopment of tenanted buildings

  1. Q20 ATP 2022, Q37

    For redevelopment of a tenanted building more than 30 years old, the permissible FSI shall be

    1. APermissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 (Basic FSI + Premium FSI + permissible TDR loading)
    2. BFSI consumed by the existing authorised building including TDR, premium FSI, etc.
    3. CFSI consumed by the existing authorised building including TDR, premium FSI, etc., plus 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants
    4. DPermissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building, whichever is more; in addition, 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. Permissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building, whichever is more; in addition, 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants

    UDCPR Reg 7.6.2(i) (redevelopment of tenanted buildings) allows the FSI permissible under Reg 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building (including TDR, premium FSI), whichever is more, plus 50% incentive FSI on the rehab area needed for the tenants. (Reg 7.5 alone gives only the 'whichever is more' protection, without the incentive.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 7.6.2(i) (and 7.5)

Housing for EWS/LIG

  1. Q21 ATP 2022, Q38

    For development of Housing for EWS/LIG under UDCPR, which of the following conditions has to be followed?

    1. ATotal tenements of size up to 30 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed
    2. BTotal tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed
    3. CTotal tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 40% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m
    4. DTotal tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 25% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. Total tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 40% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m

    UDCPR Reg 7.7.1 (Housing for EWS/LIG in Residential Zone): tenements of up to 50 sq.m. carpet area, of which at least 40% shall be of carpet area not more than 30 sq.m., in return for the maximum building potential of Table 6-A / 6-G, with premium at 15% of the ASR land rate for FSI above basic. The regulation speaks of carpet area (substituted 2 Dec 2021), not built-up area as the options say. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 7.7.1

IT establishments FSI

  1. Q22 ATP 2022, Q39

    As per UDCPR, for development of Information Technology Establishments, additional FSI above 100% and up to 200% shall be permissible on plots having an access road of minimum ____ width.

    1. A9 m
    2. B12 m
    3. C15 m
    4. D18 m
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer D. 18 m

    UDCPR Reg 7.8 (IT establishments) allowed additional FSI up to 200% over basic FSI, with additional FSI above 100% and up to 200% permissible only on plots having an access road of minimum 18 m width. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.) Law changed since this paper: under UDCPR as amended to 20 Oct 2026, Reg 7.8 (substituted 12 Jan 2024) keeps the 18.0 m condition for FSI above 100% up to 200% only for units in No-Development / Green / Agriculture zones (7.8.1(i)(b), premium 10% of ASR); elsewhere maximum FSI is 3 / 3.5 / 4 on roads of 12 / 18 / 27 m (7.8.1(i)(a)).

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 7.8.1(i)(a), (b) (substituted 12 Jan 2024)

Affordable housing scheme

  1. Q23 ATP 2022, Q40

    In the Affordable Housing Scheme under UDCPR, the FSI to be utilised shall be in the proportion of

    1. A1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/3rd and 2/3rd part of the land respectively
    2. B1:4 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively
    3. C1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively
    4. D1:4 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/3rd and 2/3rd part of the land respectively
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively

    Under the UDCPR affordable housing provision, FSI is used in the ratio 1:3 for the affordable housing component and the free-sale component, located on 1/4th and 3/4th of the land respectively (the affordable component being handed over to the Authority). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 14.3

ITP minimum area

  1. Q24 ATP 2022, Q41

    As per UDCPR, in a Regional Plan area, what is the minimum contiguous land required at one place to be declared as an Integrated Township Project in the afforestation zone?

    1. A20 Ha
    2. B25 Ha
    3. C40 Ha
    4. D100 Ha
    Show answerHide answer

    Answer C. 40 Ha

    UDCPR Reg 14.1.1.2(i) requires an ITP area of 40 ha (100 acres) or more at one place, contiguous and unbroken (14.1.1.2(ii)); lands in the afforestation zone may be included if not forest land, with no construction on slopes over 1:5 (14.1.1.2(ii)(a)). No different minimum is prescribed for the afforestation zone. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

    Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 14.1.1.2(i), (ii)(a)

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