MPSC ATP 2022 question paper with answers

Answer C. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

Under the RTI Act, s.21 protects action taken in good faith, s.22 gives the Act overriding effect, s.23 bars the jurisdiction of courts, and s.24 excludes certain intelligence/security organisations. Hence a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I. (Option (2) is illegible in the scan and reconstructed.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RTI Act 2005, ss.21-24

Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

Section 4 confers the right to obtain public services within the stipulated time, s.5 obliges the designated officer to provide the service within that time, s.6 provides for monitoring the status of applications, and s.7 provides for use of information technology for delivery of services. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Maharashtra Right to Public Services Act 2015, ss.4-7

Answer A. within 120 days from the enactment of this Act

Section 4(1)(b) requires every public authority to publish the 17 categories of particulars within one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of the Act. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RTI Act 2005, s.4(1)(b)

Answer C. Homer Hoyt

The sector model (1939) was proposed by land economist Homer Hoyt, who observed that residential areas grow in wedge-shaped sectors along transport routes. Burgess gave the concentric zone model and Harris & Ullman the multiple nuclei model. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Hoyt, The Structure and Growth of Residential Neighborhoods in American Cities (1939)

Answer A. Work - Folk - Place

Geddes (adapting Le Play's Lieu-Travail-Famille) based his survey-before-plan approach on the triad Place-Work-Folk, i.e. the integration of environment, economy and people. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Patrick Geddes, Cities in Evolution (1915)

Answer A. Neighbourhood

Gandhinagar (planned by H.K. Mewada and Prakash Apte) is divided into 30 self-contained residential sectors, each designed as a neighbourhood unit with its own school, shops and community facilities. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Gandhinagar master plan (1960s); neighbourhood unit concept

Answer A. Clarence A. Perry

Clarence Arthur Perry formulated the neighbourhood unit (centred on an elementary school, about 1/4 mile walking radius) in the 1929 Regional Plan of New York and its Environs. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: C.A. Perry, The Neighborhood Unit (1929)

Answer C. the limits of a Region can be altered so as to include therein or to exclude therefrom such areas as may be specified in the notification

Section 3 of the MRTP Act empowers the State Government, by notification, to alter the limits of a Region so as to include or exclude areas, to amalgamate or split up Regions, and to declare that an area shall cease to be a Region. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.3(2)(a)

Answer A. To prepare a Regional Plan

Under s.8 the Regional Board carries out surveys of the Region, prepares an existing-land-use map and prepares the Regional Plan; Development Plans and TP Schemes are prepared by Planning Authorities. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.8

Answer B. At any time but not earlier than ten years

Section 20(1): if the State Government, at any time after a Regional Plan has come into operation but not earlier than ten years therefrom, is of opinion that revision is necessary, it may direct revision. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.20(1)

Answer B. Quarterly report

Section 21(1) requires the Planning Authority to submit a quarterly report to the State Government about the progress made in carrying out the survey and preparing the Development Plan. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.21(1)

Answer C. Modification of a substantial nature

Section 22A defines 'change of a substantial nature' to include a new reservation of land not previously included in the draft plan; such modifications made under s.31(1) must be republished for objections. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.22A(b), 31(1) second proviso

Answer B. 12

The proviso to s.26(1) allows the State Government to extend the two-year period by up to 24 months in aggregate for corporations of 1 crore+ population, 12 months for corporations of 10 lakh to 1 crore, and 6 months in other cases. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.26(1), third proviso

Answer C. 30(1)

Section 30(1) requires the Planning Authority to submit the draft Development Plan to the State Government for sanction, after considering the Planning Committee's report under s.28. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.30(1)

Answer D. 24 months

Section 31(1) requires sanction within six months of receipt; its first proviso permits extension up to 24 months in aggregate for areas within a Metropolitan Planning Committee, and 12 months in other areas. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.) Law changed since this paper: under the Act as on 28 Jul 2026, s.31(1) allows twelve months for sanction and its first proviso (substituted by Mah. 29 of 2024, w.e.f. 23 March 2020) lets the State Government extend the period by such further period as it specifies, with no 24-month or 12-month cap.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.31(1), first proviso

Answer D. 1 year

Under s.37(1), the Planning Authority must submit the modification proposal to the State Government within one year from publication of the notice; otherwise the proposal is deemed to have lapsed. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.37(1)

Answer B. refusing permission

Official MPSC final key: (2). Section 47(1) gives an appeal to the State Government (or an officer not below Deputy Secretary) to an applicant aggrieved by an order under s.45 granting permission on conditions or refusing permission, so on the text 'Both' also fits; MPSC's key treats refusal as the answer.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.47(1)

Answer B. Make an application to acquire the land

Section 49(7): if within one year of confirmation of the purchase notice the Appropriate Authority fails to make an application to acquire the land under s.126, the reservation lapses and the land is released to the owner. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.49(7)

Answer A. Physical planning and valuation of the scheme

The draft scheme under ss.59 and 61 contains both the physical proposals (reconstituted plots, roads, reservations) and the financial/valuation particulars (estimated cost, original and final values, contributions); the Arbitrator later splits it into a preliminary (physical) and a final (valuation) scheme. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.59, 64, 72(3)

Answer B. It is the result of reconstitution of the original plot in its area and boundaries so as to render it more suitable for development purposes

A final plot is the plot allotted after reconstitution of the original plot (altering its shape, area and boundaries) under the scheme to make it fit for building purposes; option (3) describes an original plot and option (1) its original value. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.2(13), 2(22), 65

Answer D. The allotment or reservation of land for water supply

Section 68A vests, on sanction of the draft scheme, the lands required for the purposes in s.59(1)(b)(ii-b) roads, (ii-e) drainage, (ii-f) lighting and (ii-g) water supply. Open spaces/gardens fall under (ii-d) and vest only on the final scheme (s.88). Note: disputed; s.88 (as amended) vests all lands required by the Planning Authority when the preliminary scheme comes into force, so options (1), (2) and (4) all fit at that later stage. On the 'sanction of draft scheme' wording, the s.68A purposes (roads, drainage, lighting, water supply) make option (4) the most defensible. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.68A(1), 59(1)(b), 88

Answer C. prepare the preliminary and final Town Planning Schemes

Under s.72 the Arbitrator, after hearing the parties, divides the sanctioned draft scheme into a preliminary scheme (physical works and reconstitution) and a final scheme (valuation, contributions and compensation) and submits both to Government. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.72(3)-(6)

Answer D. Except in matters arising out of some of the points regarding valuation, every decision of the Arbitrator shall be final

Under s.73, every decision of the Arbitrator is final and binding on all parties including the Planning Authority, except matters under clauses (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vii)-(xiii) of s.72(6) (the final-scheme valuation, compensation and contribution clauses); those may be taken to the Tribunal of Appeal under s.74. Preliminary-scheme (physical planning) decisions under s.72(4) are final. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.72(4),(6), 73, 74(1)

Answer D. Both (1) and (2)

Under s.75(1) the Tribunal of Appeal consists of a President and two Assessors; the Arbitrator, whose decisions are appealed against, is not a member (s.76 lets him assist in an advisory capacity). Since Mah. 44 of 2025 the President outside Mumbai is a District Judge or Civil Judge (Senior Division), serving or former, or a person who has held a post not below Joint Director of Town Planning or Joint Secretary, Law and Judiciary; in Mumbai, a City Civil Court judge or a former Director of Town Planning. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.75(1),(2), 76

Answer C. The value of the final plot without reference to any improvements contemplated in the scheme other than improvements due to alteration of its boundaries

Semi-final value is the value of the final plot ignoring the scheme's improvements except those due to alteration of its boundaries (the basis used in s.97(1)(f) and s.100). The increment (s.98) is the excess of the value with the scheme's improvements over the value without them, and the contribution may not exceed half of it (s.99(1) proviso (i)). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.97(1)(f), 98, 99(1), 100

Answer B. the value of buildings or other works erected or in the course of erection on such plot shall not be taken into consideration

When estimating original, semi-final and final values for increment, the value of buildings or other works erected or in the course of erection on the plot is excluded, so that only land value is compared. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.98 (proviso)

Answer B. 76A

Gujarat introduced the Local Area Plan as a statutory tool for densified redevelopment of existing built-up areas through the newly inserted Section 76A of the GTPUDA, 1976. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: GTPUDA 1976, s.76A

Answer B. to improve and enhance the existing developed areas

A Local Area Plan is a micro-level plan for an already developed (brownfield) area such as a core city or TOD corridor, to improve infrastructure, densify and redevelop; greenfield areas are handled by TP Schemes and the whole area by the DP. Under the MRTP Act as amended by Mah. 44 of 2025 (s.2(14A)), an LAP may cover a built or open local area within a DP or RP area, but improving existing areas remains its main use. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.2(14A); UDCPR 2020; URDPFI Guidelines 2014; GTPUDA s.76A

Answer A. then the provisions of the Local Area Plan shall prevail

UDCPR Reg. 15.3 says that where the provisions of a Local Area Plan are not consistent with the UDCPR, the provisions of the Local Area Plan shall prevail. This fits the MRTP Act as amended in 2025: an LAP gives detailed provisions in addition to the DP, RP or regulations (s.33A(3)(a)), and the DP or RP stands modified to the extent of the final LAP (s.33C(3)), so no separate s.37 modification is needed. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 15.3; MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.33A(3)(a), 33C(3)

Answer A. any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level

UDCPR 2020 Reg. 1.3 (as sanctioned) defines a special building as (i) any multi-storeyed building which is more than 24 m in height measured from ground level, or (ii) buildings for educational, assembly, mercantile, institutional, industrial, storage and hazardous occupancies having built-up area of 500 sq.m or more on any floor irrespective of height. Option (2) wrongly says 300 sq.m, option (3) says total built-up area instead of 'on any floor', and the parking-floor exclusion in option (4) is not in the sanctioned definition. (The scan prints '240 m' and '60 m' for 24 m and 6 m.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 1.3 (definitions)

Answer D. No scrutiny fee shall be levied again for such proposals

Note (i) under UDCPR Reg. 2.2.12 states that no scrutiny fee shall be levied if the proposal is received after compliance of the objections raised by the authority; fee is charged again only for revised permissions. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 2.2.12

Answer B. Moderate Risk

UDCPR treats buildings on plots up to 150 sq.m as low risk and on plots above 150 sq.m up to 300 sq.m as moderate risk (permission on submission as per Appendix K); a 300 sq.m plot is therefore moderate risk. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.1.2(xv), 2.6.3 and Appendix K

Answer C. population as per the latest census

UDCPR Reg. 3.8 makes inclusive housing (20% of plot area/tenements for EWS/LIG on plots of 4000 sq.m and above) applicable in Municipal Corporations having population of 10 lakh or more as per the latest census; slope and built-up area are not criteria. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 3.8

Answer A. Home for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensary, health centre

The public/semi-public zone is meant for institutional and social facilities such as homes for the aged, hospitals, sanatoria, dispensaries and health centres. UDCPR permits only limited ancillary commercial use (about 15%) in this zone, not 25% residential or 25% commercial use, so only option (1) is correct. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Ch. 4 (uses permissible in Public/Semi-public zone)

Answer B. 10% of land shall be provided for public utilities and amenities up to 2 ha area and 15% for the area over and above 2 ha

UDCPR Reg. 4.8.1 allows land in the Industrial Zone to be used for residential/commercial uses subject to providing land for public utilities and amenities: 10% of the plot area for plots up to 2 ha and 15% for plots above 2 ha (half of it for gardens/recreation-type non-buildable uses), in addition to the normal recreational open space. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 4.8.1(b)(v)

Answer C. FSI on account of maximum permissible TDR loading increases with increase in the width of road on which the plot abuts

In UDCPR Reg 6.3, Table 6-G (non-congested area, Municipal Corporation columns) the basic FSI (1.10) and premium FSI (0.50 for roads 9 m and above) stay constant, while the maximum permissible TDR loading rises with road width (0.40 for 9-12 m up to 1.40 for 30 m and above). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.3, Table 6-G

Answer D. Permissible FSI potential under Regulation 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building, whichever is more; in addition, 50% incentive FSI of the rehab area required for rehabilitation of tenants

UDCPR Reg 7.6.2(i) (redevelopment of tenanted buildings) allows the FSI permissible under Reg 6.1 or 6.3 or the FSI consumed by the existing authorised building (including TDR, premium FSI), whichever is more, plus 50% incentive FSI on the rehab area needed for the tenants. (Reg 7.5 alone gives only the 'whichever is more' protection, without the incentive.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 7.6.2(i) (and 7.5)

Answer C. Total tenements of size up to 50 sq.m built-up area have to be constructed and out of that 40% tenements shall be of built-up area not more than 30 sq.m

UDCPR Reg 7.7.1 (Housing for EWS/LIG in Residential Zone): tenements of up to 50 sq.m. carpet area, of which at least 40% shall be of carpet area not more than 30 sq.m., in return for the maximum building potential of Table 6-A / 6-G, with premium at 15% of the ASR land rate for FSI above basic. The regulation speaks of carpet area (substituted 2 Dec 2021), not built-up area as the options say. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 7.7.1

Answer D. 18 m

UDCPR Reg 7.8 (IT establishments) allowed additional FSI up to 200% over basic FSI, with additional FSI above 100% and up to 200% permissible only on plots having an access road of minimum 18 m width. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.) Law changed since this paper: under UDCPR as amended to 20 Oct 2026, Reg 7.8 (substituted 12 Jan 2024) keeps the 18.0 m condition for FSI above 100% up to 200% only for units in No-Development / Green / Agriculture zones (7.8.1(i)(b), premium 10% of ASR); elsewhere maximum FSI is 3 / 3.5 / 4 on roads of 12 / 18 / 27 m (7.8.1(i)(a)).

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 7.8.1(i)(a), (b) (substituted 12 Jan 2024)

Answer C. 1:3 for the Affordable Housing Component and the Free Sale Housing Component on 1/4th and 3/4th part of the land respectively

Under the UDCPR affordable housing provision, FSI is used in the ratio 1:3 for the affordable housing component and the free-sale component, located on 1/4th and 3/4th of the land respectively (the affordable component being handed over to the Authority). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg. 14.3

Answer C. 40 Ha

UDCPR Reg 14.1.1.2(i) requires an ITP area of 40 ha (100 acres) or more at one place, contiguous and unbroken (14.1.1.2(ii)); lands in the afforestation zone may be included if not forest land, with no construction on slopes over 1:5 (14.1.1.2(ii)(a)). No different minimum is prescribed for the afforestation zone. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 14.1.1.2(i), (ii)(a)

Answer D. Forty-five days

Section 124G provides an appeal against an assessment of development charge under s.124E to the State Government or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Secretary. Under s.124H, such an appeal is entertained only if it is filed within forty-five days of receipt of the assessment notice under s.124E(2) (delay condonable for sufficient cause) and the amount claimed has been deposited. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.124G, 124H(a)

Answer A. 0.5 percent of ASR rate of developed land

Under s.124B(2) and Part I of the Second Schedule, development of land for residential or institutional use (a hospital is institutional) not involving building or construction operations attracts 0.5% of the developed-land rate in the Stamp Duty Ready Reckoner (ASR); building/construction attracts 2%. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.124B(2) with Second Schedule, Part I

Answer A. 18% per annum

Section 124I provides interest at 18% per annum on enhanced assessment from the date of original assessment notice till recovery, and on refunds from the date of payment till refund. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.) Law changed since this paper: under the Act as on 28 Jul 2026, the s.124I rate is 12% per annum (Mah. 44 of 2025, w.e.f. 29-8-2025).

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.124I

Answer D. All of the above

Section 124F(1) fully exempts Government and local authority land; s.124F(2) lets the State Government, by notification, partially exempt development for a warehouse or godown or by any educational, medical or charitable institution (since 2025 also PMAY EWS/LIG housing and development on a final plot of a TP scheme). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.124F(2)

Answer C. 40

Section 47 allows an appeal within forty days of communication of the order under s.45 refusing permission or granting it with conditions. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.47(1)

Answer C. determine the type of traffic which is being accommodated by the road

Traffic surveys (volume, composition, speed, O-D) establish the type and quantum of traffic using a road, which is the basis for planning and design of road improvements. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Kadiyali, Traffic Engineering & Transport Planning; IRC guidelines

Answer A. Traffic volume

Traffic volume (flow) is vehicles passing a point per unit time; density is vehicles per unit length of road, and capacity is the maximum flow the road can carry. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: IRC:106-1990; traffic engineering fundamentals

Answer A. on-street parking

On-street (kerb) parking is parking along the kerb of the carriageway itself; off-street parking is provided in separate lots or structures away from the carriageway. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Traffic engineering - parking studies

Answer B. Traffic volume study

A traffic volume (classified count) study counts the number and type of vehicles crossing a road section per unit time, giving flow and composition. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: IRC:SP:19; Kadiyali, Traffic Engineering

Answer A. solid and liquid waste

In September 2022 the NGT imposed Rs. 12,000 crore environmental compensation on Maharashtra for failing to manage solid and liquid waste (untreated sewage and legacy waste), to be spent on remediation. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: NGT order, OA 606/2018, Sept 2022

Answer A. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

CRZ notifications of 1991, 2011 and 2019 were issued under s.3(1) and s.3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 read with Rule 5(3) of the EP Rules; there is no CRZ Act. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, s.3; CRZ Notification 2019

Answer A. CRZ-I

CRZ-I covers ecologically sensitive areas (mangroves, coral reefs, etc.) and the inter-tidal zone, and is the most critical and most restricted category under CRZ 2019. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: CRZ Notification 2019, para 4

Answer C. 1915

The Bombay Town Planning Act, 1915 was the first town planning legislation in India and introduced Town Planning Schemes; it was replaced by the Bombay TP Act 1954 and later the MRTP Act 1966. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Bombay Town Planning Act, 1915

Answer A. Regional Planning Board

Section 4(1) requires the State Government to constitute a Regional Planning Board by notification for planning the development and use of land in a region established under s.3. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.4(1)

Answer D. Building Regulations

In the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949, Chapter XIV deals with streets and Chapter XV with building regulations (notice of new building s.253 onwards); drainage and water supply come in earlier chapters. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act 1949, Chapter XV

Answer B. 243Q(1)

Article 243Q (inserted by the 74th Amendment) provides for constitution of Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils and Municipal Corporations for transitional, smaller and larger urban areas; s.3(1) specifies larger urban areas in accordance with Art. 243Q(1). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Constitution of India, Art. 243Q; MMC Act 1949, s.3(1)

Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

Under the MLRC, s.148 is Record of Rights, s.156 is Land Records, s.161 is Nistar Patrak and s.165 is Wajib-ul-arz, i.e. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I. (Options (2) and (4) are partly illegible in the scan and reconstructed.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MLRC 1966, ss.148, 156, 161, 165

Answer D. Offences by companies

Section 16 of the EP Act deals with offences by companies; s.17 offences by Government departments, s.12 environmental laboratories, s.14 reports of Government analysts and s.18 protection of action taken in good faith. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Environment (Protection) Act 1986, s.16

Answer D. Instrument

Section 2(l) of the Maharashtra Stamp Act defines 'instrument' as every document by which any right or liability is created, transferred, limited, extended, extinguished or recorded. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Maharashtra Stamp Act 1958, s.2(l)

Answer D. 1st June, 1993

The Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, inserting Part IXA on Municipalities, came into force on 1 June 1993 (the 73rd Amendment on 24 April 1993). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Constitution (74th Amendment) Act 1992

Answer A. It lays down the jurisdiction of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class to try offences punishable under this Act

Section 144 provides that no court inferior to that of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class shall try an offence punishable under the MRTP Act. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.144

Answer A. The Director General

Section 7 names the Council, the Standing Committee, the Subject Committees, the President and the Chief Officer as municipal authorities; a 'Director General' is not one of them. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Maharashtra Municipal Councils Act 1965, s.7

Answer D. None of the above

The 73rd Amendment (1992) inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule providing for Panchayati Raj institutions; it has nothing to do with the Prime Minister, Governor or President. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992, Part IX

Answer D. None of the above

Under s.42 of the MLRC, agricultural land may be used for a non-agricultural purpose only with the permission of the Collector; none of the listed authorities is correct. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: MLRC 1966, s.42

Answer A. the date of notification issued under Section 11

Explanation to s.26(1) of RFCTLARR 2013: the market value is determined as on the date on which the preliminary notification under s.11 is issued. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.26(1)

Answer C. 1st January, 2014

The RFCTLARR Act received assent on 26 September 2013 and was brought into force from 1 January 2014 by notification under s.1(3). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.1(3)

Answer C. Hon. High Court or Hon. Supreme Court

Section 63 bars every civil court other than the High Court and the Supreme Court from entertaining any dispute relating to land acquisition in respect of which the Collector or the LARR Authority is empowered, and no injunction may be granted by other courts. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.63

Answer D. Sixty days

Section 15(1) allows any person interested to file objections to the area, justification of public purpose or SIA findings within sixty days from publication of the s.11 preliminary notification. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.15(1)

Answer A. possession of the land has not been taken

Section 93(1) permits the appropriate Government to withdraw from acquisition of any land of which possession has not been taken, with compensation for damage under s.93(2). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.93

Answer C. Section 26

Section 26 lays down how the Collector determines market value (stamp-duty value, average of sale prices, or consented amount, whichever is higher); s.28 lists other parameters and s.30 gives solatium. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.26

Answer A. No change from the purpose or related purposes for which the land is originally sought to be acquired shall be allowed, provided that if the land is rendered unusable for that purpose, the appropriate Government may use it for any other public purpose

Section 99 prohibits change of purpose from that for which the land was acquired, except that if the land is rendered unusable for that purpose due to a fundamental change, the Government may use it for any other public purpose. (Options (3)-(4) are run together in the scan and reconstructed.) (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.99

Answer A. Six months

Section 33(1) allows the Collector to correct clerical or arithmetical mistakes in an award at any time but not later than six months from the date of the award (or of the reference under s.64). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.33(1)

Answer D. Only (i) and (iv)

Land is heterogeneous (no two parcels are identical) and its total supply is fixed; land markets are heavily affected by legislation (zoning, rent control, ceiling), so (ii) and (iii) are wrong. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Principles of valuation - characteristics of real estate

Answer B. Years' Purchase

Years' Purchase is the present value of Re. 1 per annum for n years (or in perpetuity) at a given rate; capital value = net income x YP. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Valuation tables - Years' Purchase (PV of Re.1 p.a.)

Answer A. property rented out for a fixed period only

Reversionary value arises only when a lease is for a fixed term, at the end of which the land/property reverts to the lessor; it is deferred at PV of Re.1 for the unexpired term. A perpetual lease has no reversion. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Valuation - leasehold interests and reversion

Answer B. the best possible rent at which the property can be let, i.e. full rent neither frozen nor circumscribed by any statute in force

Rack rent is the full annual rental value obtainable in the open market, not restricted by any rent-control statute; option (1) is head rent and (3) is profit rent. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Valuation - types of rent

Answer D. Annuity

An annuity is the series of equal annual payments receivable in return for a capital sum invested; the net annual return on capital invested in property is thus treated as an annuity. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Valuation tables - annuity

Answer D. 8%

YP in perpetuity = 100 / rate of interest, so rate = 100 / 12.5 = 8%. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Valuation tables - YP in perpetuity = 100/i

Answer D. 1/(1+i)^n

Official MPSC final key: (4). Present value of Re.1 due after n years at rate i = 1/(1+i)^n. Option text reconstructed from a garbled scan; the correct formula is placed at option (4) as per the official key.

Source: Valuation tables - Present value of Re.1

Answer B. only one side

The belting method values deep plots that have a road on one side, dividing the depth into front, middle and rear belts at decreasing rates; plots with frontage on two sides are treated as having two front belts. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Belting method of land valuation

Answer D. Front land is more valuable than back land

Belting rests on the principle that land nearest the road frontage is the most valuable and value falls with depth, e.g. front:middle:rear belts at 100:66.67:50. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Belting method of land valuation

Answer B. Return frontages

A corner plot with frontage on two intersecting roads has a 'return frontage', which usually adds value; 'double frontage' refers to frontage on two parallel roads at front and rear. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Valuation - frontage and corner influence

Answer C. All of the above

The developer's (hypothetical layout) method derives value of large undeveloped land from rates of small developed plots, after deducting land for roads/open spaces and development cost, and applies only where the land has development potential with demand. All three statements hold. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Developer's / residual method of valuation

Answer C. Rs. 18,50,000

Under the ASR guidelines for the rest of Maharashtra, bare land in developable zones of a DP is valued slab-wise: first 500 sq.m at 100% of the ASR rate, 500-2000 sq.m at 90%, 2001-4000 sq.m at 80%, and so on. Value = 500 x 1,000 + 1,500 x 1,000 x 0.90 = 5,00,000 + 13,50,000 = Rs. 18,50,000. Note: if the 90% factor were applied to the whole area the value would be Rs. 18,00,000, but the slab-wise reading is the guideline's method and matches an option exactly. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: IGR Maharashtra ASR Guidelines (Rest of Maharashtra), Guideline 16(b) - valuation of bulk bare land

Answer C. last day of February

Official MPSC final key: (3). Under the Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules, the Joint Director of Town Planning and Valuation submits the draft Annual Statement of Rates to the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority for approval by the last day of February.

Source: Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules 1995 / ASR rules

Answer A. the value determined by the said bodies

The Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules provide that where property is sold or allotted by Government, a local authority or a Government undertaking at a predetermined price, that price is taken as its true market value. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules 1995

Answer A. groups, sub-groups or classes

The ASR rules allow properties to be divided into groups, sub-groups or classes (by location, zone, type of land and building) for fixing average annual rates. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Maharashtra Stamp (Determination of True Market Value of Property) Rules 1995

Answer D. (iii), (iv) and (v)

GPS has three segments: space (satellite constellation), control/ground (monitoring stations) and user (receivers). (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: GPS fundamentals

Answer A. violation of building norms

In Supertech Ltd v. Emerald Court Owner RWA (Aug 2021) the Supreme Court held the towers were built in violation of building bye-laws (minimum distance, fire norms, unauthorised revision of plans without residents' consent) in collusion with NOIDA officials. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Supreme Court, Supertech Ltd v. Emerald Court RWA (2021)

Answer D. All of the above

The 2019 Government of Maharashtra (UDD) directive made GIS-based preparation of Development Plans mandatory for all Planning Authorities: Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils and Nagar Panchayats. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: GoM UDD directive 2019 on GIS-based DPs

Answer B. Geo-referencing

Geo-referencing ties raster images or scanned maps to a map projection or coordinate system using ground control points; digitization converts raster features to vector. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: GIS fundamentals

Answer C. 35%

Under the Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) vertical, a project should have at least 250 houses with at least 35% for EWS to get Central assistance of Rs. 1.5 lakh per EWS house. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: PMAY-U Guidelines 2015, para on AHP

Answer C. (i), (iii) and (v) only

PMAY-U has four verticals: In-situ Slum Redevelopment, Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme, Affordable Housing in Partnership and Beneficiary-Led Construction/Enhancement; 'industrial development subsidy' and 'samruddhi subsidy' are not components. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: PMAY-U Guidelines 2015

Answer B. Public sector

Reports on urban planning capacity (e.g. NITI Aayog 2021) stress that the public sector (ULBs and town planning departments) must have adequate qualified planners and staff to manage urbanisation. Low confidence: the source of this exact sentence was not found, so the intended answer is uncertain. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: NITI Aayog, Reforms in Urban Planning Capacity in India (2021)

Answer B. Kolhapur

Maharashtra's Smart Cities include Pune, Pimpri-Chinchwad, Thane, Nagpur, Nashik, Solapur, Kalyan-Dombivli, Aurangabad (Chh. Sambhajinagar); Kolhapur was not selected. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: Smart Cities Mission (2015) city list

Answer D. Motorized transport

AMRUT thrust areas are water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm-water drainage, non-motorized urban transport and green spaces/parks; motorized transport is not a thrust area. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: AMRUT Mission Guidelines 2015

Answer C. National Land Utilisation Policy

The draft National Land Utilisation Policy (2013) states its goal as ensuring optimal land use to achieve improvement of livelihood, food and water security and developmental targets for sustainable development. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: National Land Utilisation Policy (draft) 2013

Answer B. (iii), (i), (ii)

NUTP 2014 prioritises people over vehicles: walking and NMT first, then public transport, and personal motor vehicles last. (Answer matches the official MPSC final key, 26-12-2022.)

Source: National Urban Transport Policy 2014

Answer B. 30 days

MPSC deleted this question in its final answer key (26-12-2022), so it was not scored. Kept for reference only. The (draft) Maharashtra Housing Policy 2021 proposed single-window online approvals with applications to be decided by the planning authority within 30 days. Low confidence: the policy text could not be checked.

Source: Maharashtra Housing Policy 2021 (draft)