MPSC ATP Mock Test 1 with answers

Answer D. Uses carrier-phase data with live corrections from a base station or CORS

RTK resolves the carrier-phase ambiguity using corrections streamed from a reference station (or CORS network) a few km away, giving cm accuracy instantly; stand-alone code positioning gives only metre-level accuracy.

Source: GNSS surveying - RTK principle

Answer A. the third confirmed interstellar object observed passing through the Solar System

Discovered in July 2025 by the ATLAS telescope in Chile, 3I/ATLAS is the third known interstellar object after 'Oumuamua (2017) and 2I/Borisov (2019); it passed about 269 million km from Earth (PBS NewsHour).

Source: https://www.pbs.org/newshour/science/interstellar-comet-3i-atlas-will-make-closest-approach-to-earth-on-friday

Answer A. 100 GW

India aims to reach 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047 using large reactors and small modular reactors; the SHANTI Act enables private participation towards this goal.

Source: https://world-nuclear-news.org/articles/indias-shanti-bill-completes-legislative-process

Answer C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

DWG is AutoCAD's native format, DXF is Autodesk's Drawing Exchange Format for interoperability, IFC (Industry Foundation Classes, buildingSMART) is the open BIM exchange schema and SHP is the Esri shapefile used for GIS vector data.

Source: CAD/BIM/GIS file formats (Autodesk; buildingSMART IFC; Esri)

Answer A. 53rd

Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd CJI on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai; he is the first CJI from Haryana, with tenure till February 2027.

Source: https://www.businesstoday.in/india/story/justice-surya-kant-sworn-in-as-the-53rd-chief-justice-of-india-503369-2025-11-24

Answer D. United States

Following the Johannesburg summit (Nov 2025), the rotating G20 presidency passed to the United States for 2026 (CBS News).

Source: https://www.cbsnews.com/news/g20-summit-south-africa-declaration-us-boycott

Answer D. Universal coverage of water supply in all statutory towns and of sewerage/septage management in the 500 AMRUT cities

AMRUT 2.0 (2021-26, outlay about Rs 2.77 lakh crore) targets functional tap connections in all ~4,800 statutory towns and 100% sewerage/septage coverage in the 500 AMRUT cities, along with Pey Jal Survekshan and City Water Balance Plans.

Source: AMRUT 2.0 Operational Guidelines, MoHUA 2021

Answer A. A limited company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 with State/UT and ULB as equal promoters (50:50)

The SPV is a limited company under the Companies Act 2013 promoted by the State/UT and the ULB with 50:50 equity (private shareholding permitted provided State and ULB together retain majority), headed by a full-time CEO.

Source: Smart Cities Mission Guidelines 2015, para 10 (SPV)

Answer B. 10-12 sq m per person

URDPFI suggests 10-12 sq m per person of organised open space (hierarchy from housing-cluster tot-lots to city parks), while the water supply norm is 135 lpcd.

Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014, Vol. I, Chapter 8 (planning norms)

Answer D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Section 4(2)(l)(D) requires 70% of receipts in a separate account; s.14(3) gives a five-year defect liability; ss.3-19 and the remaining operative provisions were notified to commence on 1 May 2017 (MahaRERA itself was constituted by the State Government in March 2017).

Source: RERA Act 2016, ss.3, 4(2)(l)(D), 14(3), 20; MoHUA commencement notification (1 May 2017)

Answer D. Solid waste management

AMRUT's thrust areas were water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm water drainage, green spaces and parks, and non-motorised urban transport; solid waste management is covered under SBM-U.

Source: AMRUT Mission Statement and Guidelines, MoUD 2015, para 3

Answer C. 31.2% and 45.2%

Census 2011 recorded 377 million urban population, 31.16% of India's total (up from 27.8% in 2001); Maharashtra's urban share was 45.2%, among the highest of the large States.

Source: Census of India 2011, Provisional Population Totals (Urban)

Answer A. 10-15% of land or 20-25% of FAR/FSI, whichever is greater

The policy's action plan reserves 10 to 15 percent of land or 20 to 25 percent of FAR/FSI, whichever is greater, for EWS/LIG housing, with State legislation and FAR relaxation to support it.

Source: NUHHP 2007, Action Plan - Land / Spatial incentives

Answer C. Affordable housing for all, especially vulnerable sections

NUHHP 2007 aims at 'Affordable Housing for All' with emphasis on SC/ST/BC, minorities, the urban poor and other vulnerable groups, through sustainable habitat development and a regional planning approach.

Source: NUHHP 2007, Preamble and Aims

Answer A. The Chief Commissioner must be a retired Judge of the High Court

Section 13 provides for a State Chief Commissioner (with jurisdiction over Mumbai City and Suburban districts) and a State Commissioner for each revenue division, appointed on the recommendation of a committee of the Chief Minister, the Leader of Opposition and a nominated Cabinet Minister; s.13(5) only requires persons of eminence in public life with wide administrative experience, not a judicial qualification.

Source: Maharashtra Right to Public Services Act 2015, s.13(2)-(5)

Answer D. The Public Information Officer who denied the request

Section 19(5) provides that in any appeal proceedings, the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified shall be on the Central/State Public Information Officer who denied the request.

Source: RTI Act 2005, s.19(5)

Answer A. Rs 25,000

Section 20(1) prescribes a penalty of Rs 250 per day till information is furnished, subject to a ceiling of Rs 25,000. 150 x 250 = Rs 37,500, which exceeds the ceiling, so the maximum penalty is Rs 25,000.

Source: RTI Act 2005, s.20(1)

Answer D. Threshold

Threshold is the minimum demand needed for a function to be viable, whereas range is the maximum distance consumers will travel to obtain the good. The range must exceed the threshold for a function to exist.

Source: Christaller, central place theory concepts

Answer C. C.A. Doxiadis

Doxiadis, the Greek planner of Islamabad, coined Ekistics, proposed the dynamically growing city 'Dynapolis' and the ultimate global settlement 'Ecumenopolis'.

Source: Doxiadis, Ekistics

Answer D. 800 m x 1,200 m

Chandigarh's sectors are 800 m by 1,200 m self-contained neighbourhood units bounded by V3 roads, housing roughly 5,000 to 25,000 people with shopping on a V4 street. Gandhinagar's sectors are 1 km x 1 km.

Source: Le Corbusier, Chandigarh Master Plan (1951)

Answer C. 5 lakh

Rank-size rule (Zipf): P(r) = P1 / r. For r = 4, P = 20 lakh / 4 = 5 lakh.

Source: Zipf's rank-size rule

Answer D. Notification in the Official Gazette defining its limits (s.3)

Section 3(1) empowers the State Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, to establish any area in the State by defining its limits to be a Region for the purposes of the Act and to name it.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.3(1)

Answer B. 7,81,250

Geometric method: P = P0 (1 + r)^n = 5,00,000 x 1.25 x 1.25 = 5,00,000 x 1.5625 = 7,81,250.

Source: Population projection: geometric increase method

Answer B. State Government, along with the Committee's report and connected documents

Section 16(4) requires the Board to prepare the Regional plan with such modifications as it thinks fit and submit it to the State Government together with the report of the Regional Planning Committee and all connected documents, maps and plans.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.16(4)

Answer B. Not less than two local newspapers

Section 28(4) requires the list of modifications to be published, within two months of the report, in the Official Gazette and in not less than two local newspapers for public information.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.28(4)

Answer A. 30

Number of schools = 1,50,000 / 5,000 = 30.

Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014, Vol I, Ch. 7 (social infrastructure norms: primary school 1 per 5,000)

Answer A. (i) and (ii) only

Structure plans were strategic county-level documents approved centrally, and local plans had to conform with them. Showing plot boundaries was the job of local plans; structure plans used a key diagram.

Source: Town and Country Planning Act 1968 (UK); Local Government Act 1972

Answer A. Publication of the declaration of intention to prepare a DP under section 23

Section 43 applies the requirement for permission from the date the declaration of intention to prepare a DP is published, so that development cannot get ahead of the plan while it is being prepared.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.43

Answer C. Excavation, including wells, made in the ordinary course of agricultural operations

The proviso to s.43 exempts excavations, including wells, made in the ordinary course of agricultural operations. The other activities are 'development' under s.2(7) and need permission.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.43 proviso (v)

Answer B. 4,000 ha

Area = population / density = 5,00,000 / 125 = 4,000 ha.

Source: Land requirement = projected population / gross density (URDPFI 2014)

Answer D. At the time of declaring its intention to prepare the DP, with the sanction of the State Government

Section 24 requires the Planning Authority, at the time of the declaration of intention, to resolve to appoint a qualified person as Town Planning Officer. The appointment needs the sanction of the State Government.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.24

Answer C. Metropolitan City II

Metropolitan City I covers 10-50 lakh, Metropolitan City II covers 50 lakh to 1 crore, and a Megapolis has more than 1 crore people. So 70 lakh is Metropolitan City II.

Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014, Vol. I, Ch. 2

Answer B. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Section 25: six months, extendable by up to one year in aggregate. Section 26(1): two years from the s.23 notice. Section 30(1): twelve months from the s.26 notice (six months before Mah. 29 of 2024, w.e.f. 23 March 2020). Section 38: at least once in twenty years.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.25, 26(1), 30(1), 38

Answer A. Final Development Plan

Section 31(6) names a DP that has come into operation the 'final Development plan' and makes it binding on the Planning Authority.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.31(6)

Answer D. three months

s.68(1) requires submission of the draft scheme for sanction within three months (six months before Mah. 35 of 2014) from publication of the notice in the Official Gazette.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.68(1)

Answer B. Determine, and the reconstituted plots become subject to the rights settled by the Arbitrator

s.88(b) ends all rights in reconstituted original plots and makes the reconstituted plots subject to the rights settled by the Arbitrator, so title passes from OP to FP.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.88(b)

Answer B. Section 129(3)

Section 85(2) allows an advance payment, after consulting the Arbitrator, as provided in s.129(3), which (in the section on possession of land in case of urgency) permits an advance not exceeding two-thirds of the estimated amount after an agreement under s.157.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.85(2), 129(3)

Answer A. 20 per cent or two crore rupees, whichever is higher

The Explanation to s.72(7) defines 'substantial variation' as an increase in the total cost of the draft scheme of more than 20% or Rs. 2 crore, whichever is higher (Rs. 2 lakh before Mah. 44 of 2025), on account of new works or additional public-purpose sites. Such variations need prior State sanction after hearing the Planning Authority and objecting owners (proviso (b)).

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.72(7), Explanation

Answer B. Rs. 4.0 crore

Cost = 300 + 10 + 50 + (50% x 40 = 20) + (20% x 100 = 20) = 400 lakh = Rs. 4.0 crore (s.97(1)(b)-(e),(g)).

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.97(1)

Answer B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

s.40(3)(jj)(a) allots 15% for roads, 5% for open spaces, 5% for social infrastructure and 15% for sale, 40% in all, comparable to the 40% aggregate in MRTP s.64(g-1)(ii).

Source: GTPUDA 1976, s.40(3)(jj)

Answer A. 10 per cent

s.64(g-1)(i) provides for reserving land to the extent of ten per cent of the total scheme area for EWS/LIG housing and for persons dispossessed in the scheme.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.64(g-1)(i)

Answer D. eighteen months

s.72(3) sets nine months for the preliminary scheme and, as far as possible, eighteen months for the final scheme, both counted from the Arbitrator's appointment.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.72(3)

Answer A. A detailed plan for a part of a city, such as a ward, precinct or corridor, that elaborates the Development Plan, typically for regeneration of built-up areas

An LAP works below the city-level DP and details land use, circulation, infrastructure and urban form for a smaller area, mainly to regenerate already developed areas (URDPFI 2014; GTPUDA s.76A).

Source: URDPFI Guidelines 2014 (plan hierarchy); GTPUDA 1976, s.76A

Answer A. Levy and collect fees or charges for execution of works and provision of amenities specified in the Local Area Plan

s.23(1)(ix-a) lets the authority levy and collect fees or charges for works, services and amenities specified in the LAP, so LAP infrastructure can be recovered from beneficiaries.

Source: GTPUDA 1976, s.23(1)(ix-a)

Answer D. Regional settlement hierarchy and inter-district transport corridors

LAPs work at neighbourhood or precinct scale (streets, plot-level controls, urban design, local infrastructure). Settlement hierarchy and inter-district corridors belong to a Regional Plan (MRTP s.14).

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.14, 33A(3); URDPFI Guidelines 2014

Answer C. 100%

Press Note No. 4 (2001 series) of DIPP allowed 100% FDI in development of integrated townships, which the Maharashtra ITP regulation cites as one of the enabling incentives.

Source: DIPP Press Note 4 (2001); UDCPR 2020, Regulation 14.1

Answer B. A double-height terrace

Reg 6.6 expressly includes double-height terraces in the P-line. Lift wells, lift machine rooms (6.8(iii)), refuge areas (6.8(v)) and atriums (6.8(vii)) are excluded from FSI.

Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Regs 6.6 and 6.8

Answer A. Any land-use zone, including Agricultural / No-Development Zone, except excluded areas such as notified forests, water bodies, National Parks and defence estates

Reg 14.1.1.7(i)(a): an ITP may be permitted in any land-use zone of a sanctioned Regional / Development Plan, except the areas listed in Reg 14.1.1.2(v) (notified forest, water bodies, mangroves and area within HTL, National Parks, defence estates, cantonments, quarry zone, gaothan etc.); zones other than residential/commercial pay a premium under Table 14-A (10% for Agriculture/NDZ). Hill-top/hill-slope, flood-zone, ESZ-buffer and CRZ-buffer lands may be included up to 40% of the ITP area, with no construction on hill slopes (14.1.1.2(ii)(g), 14.1.1.7(i)(c)).

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 14.1.1.7(i), Table 14-A; Reg 14.1.1.2(ii)(g), (v)

Answer D. the TDR column of Table 6-G/6-A, which depends on the width of the road the plot fronts

TDR loading is capped by the road-width-based limits in Table 6-G (0.40 to 1.40 in MC non-congested areas) and Table 6-A, along with other conditions in Reg 6.3 and Chapter 11.

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.3, Table 6-G; Chapter 11

Answer B. before issue of development permission/commencement certificate, calculated using the rates in the Annual Statement of Rates (ASR)

Reg 2.2.13 requires development charges to be deposited before issue of DP/CC, calculated for each land parcel considering ASR rates; compound walls, maintenance and certain repairs are exempt.

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.2.13; MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.124A, 124B

Answer D. concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning

Reg 2.4 provides that in Municipal Councils and RP areas such relaxation shall be granted in consultation with the concerned Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning.

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 2.4

Answer B. 2,600 sq m

For mixed uses, ancillary FSI is pro-rata: residential 60% x 3,000 = 1,800 sq m; commercial 80% x 1,000 = 800 sq m. Total = 2,600 sq m.

Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Notes 1 and 4 below Table 6-A; Note (i) below Table 6-G

Answer B. Buildings of Government, Semi-Government, local bodies and public sector undertakings

The proviso makes a minimum three-star/silver-equivalent rating compulsory for all Government, Semi-Government, local body and PSU construction projects. For private projects the rating is voluntary and rewarded with incentive FSI.

Source: UDCPR 2020 (as amended), Reg 7.10(i) proviso

Answer D. 1,600 sq.m.

Reg 11.2.4: TDR equal to 2 times the area of land surrendered (non-congested area). 2 x 800 = 1,600 sq.m.

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 11.2.4

Answer B. only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which have side open spaces

Reg 1.3 defines row housing as a row of houses with only front and rear open spaces, except end houses which shall have side open spaces.

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 1.3 (definition: Row housing)

Answer C. 2,400 sq.m.; 6,400 sq.m.

Ancillary area FSI for residential = 60% of proposed FSI = 0.60 x 4,000 = 2,400 sq.m.; total = 4,000 + 2,400 = 6,400 sq.m.

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 6.1 & 6.3

Answer B. an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove

Reg 1.3 defines tenement as 'an independent dwelling unit with a kitchen or cooking alcove'; size limits arise only under specific schemes (e.g. inclusive housing).

Source: UDCPR 2020, Reg 1.3 (definition: Tenement)

Answer C. Deputy Secretary to Government

Section 47 allows an appeal within forty days of communication of the order, to the State Government or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to Government.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.47(1)

Answer B. Rs.12,00,000

Development charge = built-up area x ASR rate x 2% = 3,000 x 20,000 x 0.02 = Rs.12,00,000.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.124B(2) with Second Schedule, Part I (rate assumed in question)

Answer C. (i) and (ii) only

s.124B needs a special-meeting resolution and State sanction, and s.124C brings the charge into force from the date the State specifies. s.124D(1) needs display on the office notice board and a notice in a local newspaper, but s.124D(2) says no separate notice to owners or occupiers is needed when rates are enhanced or reduced.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.124B(3), 124C, 124D

Answer A. (i), (ii) and (iii)

s.124K(3) prescribes imprisonment of 3 months to 3 years, a fine of Rs.1,000 to 5,000 and up to Rs.100 per day for continuing default. s.124K(4) allows demolition at the defaulter's cost. s.124L(1) gives the Chapter overriding effect.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), ss.124K(3),(4), 124L(1)

Answer A. 0.38

P(bus) = e^-1.5 / (e^-1.0 + e^-1.5) = 0.2231/(0.3679 + 0.2231) = 0.2231/0.5910 = 0.38 (and P(car) = 0.62).

Source: Multinomial/binary logit model of mode choice

Answer D. 500-800 m (5-10 minute walk)

The National TOD Policy (MoHUA, 2017) defines the TOD influence zone as the area within 500-800 m, i.e. a 5-10 minute walk, where high density mixed-use development is encouraged.

Source: National Transit Oriented Development Policy 2017, MoHUA

Answer C. 500 to 3,000 vehicles per hour

IRC:65 considers a rotary suitable when total entering traffic is about 500-3,000 veh/h; below that a simple intersection suffices and above it signals or grade separation are required.

Source: IRC:65-1976, Recommended practice for traffic rotaries

Answer C. 2.0% (1 in 50)

IRC recommends camber of 2.0% (heavy rain) / 1.7% (light rain) for CC and high-type bituminous surfaces, 2.5-3.0% for WBM/gravel and 3-4% for earth roads; smoother surfaces need less camber.

Source: IRC:73-1980 – Recommended values of camber

Answer C. Have no access to a personal vehicle and must use public transport

Captive users depend on public transport because they lack access to a personal vehicle; 'choice riders' can use either and switch based on time, cost and comfort.

Source: Mode choice theory - captive vs choice riders

Answer C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only

UHI arises from low-albedo dark surfaces, reduced vegetation/evapotranspiration, urban canyon geometry and anthropogenic heat; high-albedo surfaces, vegetation and water bodies reduce it, whereas dark asphalt increases heat absorption.

Source: Oke, T.R. – Urban climatology; Ahmedabad Heat Action Plan 2013

Answer A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum gas leak case, 1987)

In the Shriram Food & Fertilisers oleum leak case the Court evolved absolute liability (no exceptions, unlike strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher). Bichhri (ICELA 1996) applied polluter pays; Godavarman is the forest case; Nayudu applied the precautionary principle.

Source: M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086

Answer A. 20,000 sq m or more and less than 1,50,000 sq m

Item 8(a) covers building/construction projects with built-up area ≥20,000 sq m and <1,50,000 sq m; item 8(b) covers townships/area development of ≥50 ha or built-up ≥1,50,000 sq m. Both are Category B appraised by SEIAA.

Source: EIA Notification 2006, Schedule, items 8(a) and 8(b)

Answer D. CRZ-I B

CRZ-I A covers ecologically sensitive areas (mangroves, corals, sand dunes, etc.); CRZ-I B is the inter-tidal zone between LTL and HTL; CRZ-IV B is tidal-influenced water bodies.

Source: CRZ Notification 2019, para 2 – classification of CRZ

Answer D. Gunthewari development regularised under the Maharashtra Gunthewari Developments (Regularisation, Upgradation and Control) Act, 2001

s.156 excepts development permitted or deemed permitted by a Village Panchayat within gaothan, and gunthewari development regularised under the 2001 Gunthewari Act.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.156 proviso

Answer D. Section 150

s.150 provides for the register of mutations and register of disputed cases. s.149 requires acquisition of rights to be reported, s.155 corrects clerical errors, and s.154 requires registering officers to send intimation of transfers.

Source: MLRC 1966, s.150

Answer D. 20 lakhs

Article 243B(1) provides for Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels, while Art. 243B(2) permits States with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs to dispense with the intermediate level.

Source: Constitution of India, Art. 243B(2)

Answer A. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

s.448 is the power to require performance of duties on default, s.451 to suspend or rescind resolutions, s.452 to dissolve the Corporation, and s.452A to appoint officers to run it.

Source: MMC Act 1949, ss.448, 451, 452, 452A

Answer D. Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation

Every Municipal Corporation in Maharashtra except Brihanmumbai is governed by the MMC Act, 1949 (formerly the BPMC Act). Brihanmumbai is governed by the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act, 1888.

Source: MMC Act 1949 (Bombay Act LIX of 1949); Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act 1888

Answer B. Section 36

s.36 deals with appointment of the Commissioner, s.39A with Additional Municipal Commissioners, s.45 with the City Engineer etc., and s.19 with the Mayor and Deputy Mayor.

Source: MMC Act 1949, s.36

Answer A. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

s.50 removes encroachments on Government land, s.51 regularises encroachments, s.52 explains how value and land revenue are calculated, and s.242 sets out the Collector's procedure for evicting a person in wrongful possession.

Source: MLRC 1966, ss.50-52, 242

Answer D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

s.53(1) gives 24 hours for cases under s.52(1)(a) or (c) (no permission, or revoked permission) and one month for (b) or (d). Under s.53(3), an application for retention under s.44 keeps the notice in abeyance until decided.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.53(1), (1A), (3)

Answer A. 31st December 2015

s.52A covers unauthorised developments in Development Plan areas completed on or before 31 December 2015. Once declared compounded, only repairs and maintenance are allowed and reconstruction must follow the current DCR.

Source: MRTP Act 1966 (as on 28 Jul 2026), s.52A(1),(2)

Answer D. It made preparation of a Development Plan for the whole area of a local authority obligatory

The 1915 Act provided only for Town Planning Schemes. The 1954 Act required every local authority to prepare a Development Plan for its whole area, with TPSs as the means of implementing it. Regional Boards came with the MRTP Act 1966, and development charge in 1992.

Source: History: Bombay TP Act 1954 vs 1915

Answer C. 100%

Section 30(1) provides solatium equal to 100% of the compensation amount (market value multiplied by the factor plus value of assets), in consideration of the compulsory nature of acquisition.

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.30(1) and First Schedule

Answer C. Not less than 30 days and not more than 6 months after publication of the notice

Section 21(2) requires the date fixed in the notice to be not less than thirty days and not more than six months after the date of publication of the notice.

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.21(2)

Answer D. Concurrent List (List III)

Entry 42 of the Concurrent List (List III) covers acquisition and requisitioning of property, which is why both Parliament (RFCTLARR Act 2013) and State legislatures (Maharashtra amendments of 2018) can legislate on it.

Source: Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule, List III Entry 42

Answer D. Rs 4.8 lakh

Annuity = Rs 2,000 per month x 12 x 20 years = Rs 4,80,000 (indexed to CPI-AL); the alternative one-time payment is Rs 5 lakh.

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, Second Schedule, item 4

Answer A. 80%; 70%

The first proviso to s.2(2) requires consent of at least 80% of affected families for acquisition for private companies and 70% for PPP projects where ownership of land continues to vest in Government.

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.2(2) proviso

Answer A. Date of publication of the SIA notification under s.4(2) till the award or possession, whichever is earlier

Section 30(3) differs from s.23(1A) of the 1894 Act: the 12% runs from the date of publication of the notification of the SIA study under s.4(2) until the award or taking possession, whichever is earlier.

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.30(3)

Answer A. Six weeks from the date of the award

Section 64(2)(a): six weeks from the date of the award for those present; in other cases, six weeks from receipt of notice under s.21 or six months from the award, whichever expires first (s.64(2)(b)).

Source: RFCTLARR Act 2013, s.64(2)

Answer B. Right to occupy premises as a tenant for a term of years

Rights of way, light and air, support and water flow are typical easements; the right to occupy for a term of years is a lease (an interest in possession), not an easement.

Source: Indian Easements Act 1882, s.4 illustrations

Answer A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Scrap value is the value of dismantled materials; salvage value is the value at the end of the utility period without breaking up; book value is original cost less depreciation as per books; distress value arises from a forced sale.

Source: Valuation textbook: types of value

Answer A. by a lessee to the freeholder for the land alone, the lessee usually erecting the building

Ground rent is the rent reserved under a building lease for the bare land; the lessee constructs the building at his own cost and holds it for the lease term.

Source: Valuation textbook: ground rent

Answer A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Section 58(b) simple mortgage: personal covenant plus power of sale without possession; 58(d) usufructuary: possession and rents to mortgagee; 58(e) English: absolute transfer with proviso for re-transfer; 58(f): deposit of title deeds (equitable mortgage).

Source: Transfer of Property Act 1882, s.58(b),(d),(e),(f)

Answer A. A leasehold interest with 20 years unexpired

Dual-rate YP is used for terminable (wasting) interests such as leaseholds, where the investor must recover his capital through a sinking fund by the end of the term; perpetual freehold incomes need no sinking fund and use the single-rate perpetuity YP.

Source: Valuation textbook: application of dual-rate tables

Answer C. 2.050

Amount of Re.1 p.a. = ((1+i)^n - 1)/i = (1.1025 - 1)/0.05 = 2.05. Check: Re.1 at end of year 1 grows to 1.05, plus Re.1 at end of year 2 = 2.05.

Source: Formula: Amount of Re.1 p.a. = ((1+i)^n - 1)/i

Answer D. capitalising the current rent for 5 years at YP for 5 years and adding the market rent capitalised in perpetuity deferred 5 years

This is a term-and-reversion valuation: the present (lower) rent for the term is capitalised with YP for 5 years, and the reversion to full market rent is capitalised in perpetuity and deferred by 5 years using PV of Re.1.

Source: Investment method: term and reversion

Answer D. road frontage

Belting recognises that land nearer the road frontage is more valuable; belts of increasing depth are drawn parallel to the frontage and each successive belt is valued at a reducing proportion of the front belt rate.

Source: Belting method of valuation

Answer D. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Straight line: equal annual depreciation (C-S)/n; constant percentage: fixed % of the diminishing balance; sinking fund: instalment accumulating at compound interest; quantity survey: detailed item-wise assessment of deterioration.

Source: Depreciation methods: formulae

Answer C. comparative (sales comparison) method

The comparative or market approach relies on evidence of actual transactions of comparable properties; differences in time, location, size, shape and tenure are adjusted to arrive at the value of the subject property.

Source: Valuation theory: comparative method (Rangwala, Valuation of Real Properties)

Answer A. the 7/12 extracts of the land for the last three years

The guideline requires examination of the 7/12 extracts for the preceding three years; if the land is not under cultivation or is in a developable zone, the appropriate non-agricultural/developed land rate with permissible deductions is applied.

Source: IGR Maharashtra valuation guidelines: agricultural land

Answer C. increased by 40%

The Mumbai guidelines provide that for land on which TDR can be loaded (i.e. development potential beyond basic FSI), the land rate is enhanced by 40% for valuation.

Source: IGR Maharashtra valuation guidelines (Mumbai): TDR potential

Answer B. Its layout needs roads, open spaces, development cost and time

A buyer of bulk land must lay out roads and amenities, spend on development and wait to sell plots, so per sq m value is lower than for a ready small plot; the ASR deduction reflects this, much like the developer's (layout) method.

Source: ASR guidelines (IGR Maharashtra) - bulk land; developer's method of valuation