APPSC Paper I · Probation Officer Paper II: Social Work & Criminology · Topic 5
5 APPSC Paper I Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole questions with answers
79 questions from APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology question paper with answers and APPSC DPO Social Work & Criminology Mock 1 with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
5.1Criminal justice system: components, models, police, courts and correctional administrationNotes
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Herbert Packer has opined two alternative Models for administration of criminal Justice. They are:
A. Due process Model
B. Collective approach model
C. Crime control model
D. Conflict model
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Answer B. A and C
Herbert Packer (1964) described the Due Process model and the Crime Control model of criminal justice.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q33, final key
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______ in 2003 suggested that Indian Penal Code needs to be reviewed and a separate code on social welfare offences should be inserted providing stringent punishments involving increased social stigma.
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Answer D. Justice Malimath Committee
The Justice V.S. Malimath Committee on Reforms of the Criminal Justice System (2003) suggested a separate code of social welfare offences.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q74, final key
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Communities must take a unified stand against crime, violence, and disregard for the law, and must make a commitment to increasing crime-prevention and intervention activities. As links between the police and the community are strengthened over time, the ensuing partnership will be better able to pinpoint and mitigate the underlying causes of crime. This is called as -
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Answer B. Community policing
Community policing is a police-community partnership that identifies and tackles the root causes of crime together; the stress on police-community links points to it.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q115, final key
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Under Section 6 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT a class of criminal court in a State?
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Answer D. Metropolitan Magistrates
Section 6 of the BNSS lists Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrates of the first class, Judicial Magistrates of the second class and Executive Magistrates. The separate class of Metropolitan Magistrates found in Section 6 of the CrPC was dropped.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006), the Supreme Court issued directions on police reform. Which of the following was NOT one of them?
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Answer D. Transferring 'police' to the Union List
The seven directions included a State Security Commission, fixed tenure for the DGP and field officers, separation of investigation from law and order, a Police Establishment Board, Police Complaints Authorities and a National Security Commission. 'Police' remains in the State List; the Court cannot amend the Constitution.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The Malimath Committee recommended that some useful features of the inquisitorial system be adopted in the Indian criminal justice system.
Reason (R): The Committee held that the 'quest for truth' should be the guiding principle of the criminal justice system.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Malimath found the adversarial system too passive and, wanting the courts to search actively for truth, recommended borrowing features of the inquisitorial system (for example a more active role for the judge). R therefore explains A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which of the following is NOT ordinarily counted as a component (sub-system) of the criminal justice system?
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Answer D. Election Commission
The criminal justice system is usually described as police, prosecution, courts and corrections (prisons, probation, parole). The Election Commission has no role in it.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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On the standard of proof in criminal cases, the Malimath Committee recommended that:
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Answer D. A lower standard be adopted under which it is enough that the court is convinced the fact is true
The Committee felt that 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' had become too exacting and suggested a standard lower than it, under which the court need only be convinced that the fact is true (a 'clear and convincing' standard).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Plea bargaining, added to the CrPC as Chapter XXI-A by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005, is available only for offences punishable with imprisonment of up to:
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Answer B. Seven years
Under Section 265A of the CrPC, plea bargaining is barred for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment above seven years, for notified socio-economic offences and for offences against a woman or a child below 14. The BNSS (Sections 289 to 300) keeps the scheme with the same seven-year limit.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The principle 'the police are the public and the public are the police', a foundation of community policing, is credited to:
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Answer A. Sir Robert Peel
The idea is one of the principles associated with Sir Robert Peel, who set up the London Metropolitan Police in 1829.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which value lies at the heart of Packer's due process model?
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Answer C. Reliability of fact-finding and protection of the individual against official error
The due process model distrusts informal, administrative fact-finding and insists on formal, adversarial adjudication so that the innocent are protected and state power is limited.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
5.2Parole, furlough, remission and premature releaseNotes
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In prison correctional programme what does the term ‘Remission’ mean?
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Answer B. Reducing the sentence
Remission cuts the length of a sentence without changing its nature, often for good conduct in prison.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q43, final key
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Which among these is not correct in relation to furlough?
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Answer C. Furlough is permanent release of the offender
Furlough is a short, temporary release given as a matter of good conduct to long-term prisoners (often after a minimum term such as three years), and the time on furlough counts as part of the sentence. It is never a permanent release.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q134, final key
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The Parole Re-organisation Act 1973 is law applicable in :
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Answer B. United States of America
The parole reorganisation law belongs to the United States federal system; the well-known statute is the Parole Commission and Reorganization Act (1976), which created the US Parole Commission. The year 1973 in the question is as printed.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q135, final key
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The guidelines related to the constitution of the State Sentence Review Board has been given by -
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Answer B. National Human Rights Commission
The NHRC issued guidelines (1999, revised 2003) asking States to set up Sentence Review Boards to review premature release of life convicts.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q136, final key
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"Parole is the release, of an offender who remains under the control of correctional authorities in an attempt to find out whether he is fit to live in the free society without supervision" has been defined by -
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Answer B. J.L. Gillin
This definition of parole, as release under the continued control of correctional authorities to test fitness for free life, is credited to the criminologist J.L. Gillin.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q137, final key
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Parole is of how many types?
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Answer B. Two (regular and emergency)
Indian prison rules (and the Model Prison Manual) recognise regular parole, given after a minimum period of sentence, and emergency (custody) parole for events such as a death or marriage in the family.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q138, final key
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Choose your answer based on the statements given below.
(A): Release on parole is not an absolute right, though, it is a legal right of every eligible prisoner as per the conditions laid down
(R): This concession is subject to cancellation
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Answer C. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Parole is a conditional concession: an eligible prisoner may claim it under the rules, but it is not absolute. It can also be cancelled for breach of conditions. Both are true, but cancellability does not explain why parole is a legal yet non-absolute right.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q139, final key
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In which country, the task of granting parole is handled by the expert psychologists and psychiatrists who subject a prisoner to a psychological test to determine his suitability for being paroled out?
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Answer A. United States of America
Criminology texts note that in the USA parole boards rely on psychologists and psychiatrists, who test a prisoner to judge his fitness for release on parole.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q144, final key
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Assertion (A): Furlough is granted to long-term prisoners even when they give no particular reason for wanting leave.
Reason (R): Furlough aims to let the prisoner keep in touch with family and society and to reduce the ill effects of continuous imprisonment.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true, and the purpose in R (keeping family ties, avoiding institutionalisation) is why furlough does not need a specific reason.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which of the following is NOT one of the factors the Supreme Court listed in Laxman Naskar v. State of West Bengal (2000) for considering premature release of a life convict?
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Answer B. The convict's standing and popularity in his locality
The factors were: whether the offence affected society at large, the chance of recurrence, whether the convict has lost the potential to commit crime, whether any fruitful purpose is served by keeping him in prison, and the socio-economic condition of his family.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Assertion (A): Remission earned under prison rules does not by itself entitle a life convict to release.
Reason (R): A life sentence lasts for the remainder of the convict's life unless the appropriate Government remits it.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true, and R explains A: since life imprisonment is for the whole life (Godse, 1961), earned remission has effect only when the Government passes a remission order.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which US law abolished federal parole for offences committed after 1 November 1987 and replaced it with 'supervised release'?
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Answer B. Sentencing Reform Act 1984
The Sentencing Reform Act 1984 (part of the Comprehensive Crime Control Act) introduced sentencing guidelines and determinate sentences, ending parole for federal offences committed from 1 November 1987.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Remission given to a prisoner for helping to put out a fire in the prison or preventing another prisoner's escape is called:
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Answer B. Special remission
Special remission is awarded by the Superintendent or Inspector General for meritorious acts such as fire-fighting or preventing an escape.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Where the offence was investigated by a central agency such as the CBI, the State Government's power to remit the sentence is to be exercised, under Section 435 CrPC (now Section 477 BNSS) as read in Union of India v. V. Sriharan (2015):
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Answer D. after consultation with the Central Government, which the Court read as its concurrence
The Constitution Bench in Sriharan held that 'consultation' in Section 435 CrPC means concurrence where a central agency investigated the case; the provision is now Section 477 BNSS.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which of the following categories of prisoners is generally NOT eligible for furlough under State furlough and parole rules?
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Answer D. A habitual offender
State rules (e.g. the Bombay Furlough and Parole Rules 1959) usually exclude habitual offenders, along with prisoners whose release is a danger to security or who have escaped before.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
5.2Probation: origin, concept, Probation of Offenders Act 1958 and CrPC 360/361 (BNSS 401/402)Notes
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The probation of offenders cannot be granted in what kind of organized crimes?
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Answer B. Crime under NDPS Act
Section 33 of the NDPS Act, 1985 bars release on probation (Section 360 CrPC or the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958) for anyone convicted of an NDPS offence, unless under 18; IPC, Motor Vehicles Act and other offences can get probation.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q56, final key
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The term ‘probation’ is derived from a latin word ‘probatus’ meaning:
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Answer A. tested or proved
Probation comes from the Latin 'probare', to test or prove; 'probatus' means tested or proved.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q117, final key
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Who is credited as “Father of probation”?
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Answer C. John Augustus
John Augustus, a Boston shoemaker, stood bail for offenders from 1841 and supervised them, which led to the first probation law (Massachusetts, 1878); he is called the father of probation.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q118, final key
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The Court allows a person to be released on probation according to :
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Answer B. Section 360 CrPC read with Probation of Offender’s Act
Courts release offenders on probation under Section 360 CrPC together with the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958; Section 361 CrPC requires the court to consider these provisions, and where the 1958 Act is in force it applies in place of Section 360.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q119, final key
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Choose your answer based on the statements given below.
(A): Overcrowding in Jail creates dehumanizing conditions and criminogenic surrounding.
(R): Therefore, probation protects an individual from contaminating influence of recidivist prison inmates.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Overcrowded prisons breed crime, and probation keeps a first or minor offender out of that setting, away from habitual offenders. The key treats R as following from A.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q120, final key
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Section 360(1) gives discretionary power to a court to release an offender on probation of good conduct. Which of these is not eligible to be released on probation?
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Answer C. A person who has been previously convicted
Section 360(1) CrPC covers women, persons under 21, and persons aged 21 or more convicted of offences punishable with fine or up to seven years, provided no previous conviction is proved. A previously convicted person is excluded.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q121, final key
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The release of an offender on probation of good conduct is a:
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Answer B. A discretion of the Court
Section 360 CrPC and the Probation of Offenders Act say the court 'may' release an offender on probation, so it is the court's discretion, not the offender's right.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q122, final key
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In which case it was observed by the Supreme Court that where an offence is punishable with fine or with imprisonment with a term of seven years or less and the accused is below the age of 21 years at the time of commission of offence, he is entitled to avail the benefit of section 360 CrPC?
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Answer B. Surendra Kumar Vs State of Rajasthan
The key names Surendra Kumar v. State of Rajasthan for the rule that an accused under 21 at the time of an offence punishable with fine or up to seven years can claim the benefit of Section 360 CrPC. The other three cases are on different subjects.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q123, final key
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Choose your answer based on the statements given below.
(A): The applicability of section 360 of CrPC is further reinforced by section 361
(R): It considerably narrows down the discretion of a court to sentence a convicted person
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Section 361 CrPC makes the court record special reasons when it does not give the benefit of Section 360 or the probation law. This reinforces Section 360 by narrowing the court's discretion to send such offenders to prison.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q124, final key
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Match the following:
List I List II A. Probation of Offender’s Act 1. Section 361 CrPC B. Reasons to be recorded in writing when not released the offender on probation 2. 1958 C. Punishment 3. Section 3 & 4 of Probation of Offenders Act D. Power of court to release certain offenders on probation of good conduct 4. Section 53 of IPC Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
The Probation of Offenders Act is of 1958; Section 361 CrPC requires special reasons in writing when probation is not given; Section 53 IPC lists punishments; Sections 3 and 4 of the 1958 Act give the power to release after admonition or on probation of good conduct.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q125, final key
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In which case the Supreme Court of India held that the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is a social legislation which is meant to reform young offenders so as to prevent them from becoming hardened criminals by providing an educative and reformative treatment to them by the Government?
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Answer C. Musa Khan Vs State of Maharashtra
In Musa Khan v. State of Maharashtra (1976) the Supreme Court called the Probation of Offenders Act a social legislation meant to reform young offenders through educative and reformative treatment.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q127, final key
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Who stated that Probation is the first stage of the correctional scheme and the parole being the last stage?
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Answer D. J.L. Gillin
J.L. Gillin described probation as the first stage of the correctional process (before imprisonment) and parole as its last stage (after imprisonment).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q143, final key
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Section 18 of the Probation of Offenders Act shall have no effect on:
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Answer B. sub-section (2) of section 5 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947
Section 18 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 saves certain laws from its effect, including sub-section (2) of section 5 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947, so such offenders cannot get probation under the 1958 Act.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q145, final key
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If probation granted, the probationer is ______.
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Answer B. Kept under supervision of Probation officer
On probation of good conduct the offender is released on a bond and, under Section 4(3) of the Act, may be placed under the supervision of a probation officer.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q148, final key
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Under section 6 of the Probation of Offenders Act, the judge has to give reasons as to why probation is not awarded for a person
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Answer B. below 21 years of age.
Section 6 of the Probation of Offenders Act bars imprisonment of an offender under 21 (for offences not punishable with life imprisonment) unless the court records its reasons for not dealing with him under Section 3 or 4.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q149, final key
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The report of a probation officer under the Probation of Offenders Act is treated as confidential.
Reason (R): The court can never disclose any part of the report to the offender.
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Answer C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Section 7 makes the report confidential, but the court may communicate its substance to the offender and allow him to produce evidence on it.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Release after admonition under section 3 of the Probation of Offenders Act is available for any offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years.
Reason (R): Section 3 names theft (IPC 379) and cheating (IPC 420) among the offences it covers.
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Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Section 3 covers IPC 379, 380, 381, 404, 420 and other offences punishable with up to two years or fine; seven years is the section 360 CrPC limit for adult men.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Match the following items given in List-I with the items given in List-II.
List – I List – II a. John Augustus 1. First paid probation officer, Boston (1878) b. Matthew Davenport Hill 2. Recorder of Birmingham c. Edward H. Savage 3. Police court mission of the Church of England Temperance Society (1876) d. Frederic Rainer 4. Boston shoemaker who stood bail for offenders (1841) Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
Augustus (Boston shoemaker, 1841); Hill (Recorder of Birmingham); Savage, a former police chief, became Boston's first paid probation officer under the 1878 law; Rainer, a printer, gave the gift that led the Church of England Temperance Society to start the police court mission in 1876.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A government servant released on probation under section 4 does not suffer any disqualification that a law attaches to a conviction.
Reason (R): An order under section 4 wipes out the conviction itself.
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Answer C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Section 12 removes the disqualification, but the conviction stands; the Supreme Court has held that the employer may still act on the conduct that led to it (e.g. Union of India v. Bakshi Ram, 1990).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Section 18 of the Probation of Offenders Act saves section 31 of which Act?
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Answer B. Reformatory Schools Act, 1897
Section 18 leaves section 31 of the Reformatory Schools Act, 1897 untouched, along with the other enactments it names.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 comes into force in a State:
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Answer C. On the date the State Government notifies in the Official Gazette
Under section 1(3), the Act comes into force in a State on the date the State Government appoints by notification; States brought it in at different times.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Before making an order under section 4(1), the court shall take into consideration:
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Answer D. The report, if any, of the probation officer concerned
Section 4(2): the court takes into account the probation officer's report, if any. (Under section 6, for offenders under 21, calling for the report is compulsory.)
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Section 360(10) of the CrPC provides that nothing in section 360 shall affect the provisions of:
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Answer C. Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 and laws for the treatment of youthful offenders
Section 360(10) keeps the Probation of Offenders Act and laws for youthful offenders intact; the Act, where in force, is the main law on probation.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
5.1Criminal procedure, rights of the accused and legal aidNotes
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In camera trials’ are permitted in which kind of cases in India?
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Answer D. In rape cases
Section 327(2) CrPC makes inquiry and trial of rape offences (IPC 376 group) in camera; matrimonial cases can also be heard in camera (Hindu Marriage Act s.22), but the criminal-trial mandate the question intends is for rape.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q58, final key
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The constitution of India under Article 20 guarantees the fundamental right to a person from -
a. Ex post laws,
b. Double jeopardy
c. Prohibition against self incrimination
d. Right to vote
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Answer C. a, b, c
Article 20 protects against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination; the right to vote is not in Article 20.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q63, final key
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Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, after its amendment in 2008, an accused can be detained without trial for how many days?
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Answer B. 180 days
The 2008 amendment to UAPA (Section 43D) allows custody before chargesheet to be extended up to 180 days.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q72, final key
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Law Commission of India’s 154th report relates to:
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Answer A. Victim rights
The Law Commission's 154th Report (1996) on the Code of Criminal Procedure recommended victim compensation, so it is linked to victim rights.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q75, final key
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According to the Constitution of India under Article 22(2), every person who is arrested has a right to be produced -
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Answer C. within 24 hours of arrest to the nearest magistrate excluding the time of journey
Article 22(2) requires an arrested person to be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours, excluding travel time.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q76, final key
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Match the following:
List I List II 1. Article 32 of Constitution of India A. Confession by the accused person 2. Section 164 of Cr. P. C. B. Pardoning power of President 3. Article 72 of the Constitution of India C. Commutation of death sentence 4. Section 54 of IPC D. Writ of habeas corpus Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Article 32 - habeas corpus writ; Section 164 CrPC - recording confessions; Article 72 - President's pardon; Section 54 IPC - commutation of death sentence.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q83, final key
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According to section 167 of CrPC, the period of remand in a police custody may extend upto :
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Answer D. 15 days
Section 167(2) CrPC allows a magistrate to authorise police custody for not more than 15 days in all; further detention must be judicial custody.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q104, final key
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Which among the following is the supreme authority for providing legal services under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987?
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Answer B. National Legal Services Authority
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 sets up NALSA (Section 3) at the apex, with State, District and Taluk legal services authorities below it.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q113, final key
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Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Insertion of Article 39A in the Constitution
2. Enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act
3. The Law Commission's 41st Report on revising the Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Coming into force of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
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Answer C. 3, 1, 2, 4
41st Report (1969), Article 39A (42nd Amendment, 1976), Legal Services Authorities Act (1987), BNSS in force (1 July 2024).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Assertion (A): Free legal aid to an indigent accused in a criminal trial is a right enforceable in court.
Reason (R): Article 39A, being a Directive Principle, is directly enforceable by courts.
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Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
A is true: the Supreme Court read free legal aid into Article 21 (Hoskot 1978, Hussainara 1979, Suk Das 1986), and CrPC 304 (now BNSS 341) provides it at State expense. R is false: Article 37 says Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Match List I (body under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987) with List II (section that provides for it).
List – I List – II a. National Legal Services Authority 1. Section 19 b. State Legal Services Authority 2. Section 9 c. District Legal Services Authority 3. Section 3 d. Lok Adalats 4. Section 6 Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
NALSA is constituted under Section 3, SLSA under Section 6, DLSA under Section 9 and Lok Adalats are organised under Section 19.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which of the following pairs (provision : subject) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer B. Article 39A : Right to constitutional remedies
Article 39A is equal justice and free legal aid. The right to constitutional remedies is Article 32. The other pairs are correct.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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For a person accused of a bailable offence, bail is:
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Answer A. A matter of right
Under CrPC 436 (now BNSS 478), a person accused of a bailable offence who is ready to give bail shall be released; bail is his right.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, who is the Chairman of a District Legal Services Authority?
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Answer A. The District Judge
Section 9 makes the District Judge the Chairman of the District Legal Services Authority.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that a procedure depriving a person of personal liberty under Article 21 must be:
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Answer C. Fair, just and reasonable
Maneka Gandhi held that 'procedure established by law' must be fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive, and read Articles 14, 19 and 21 together.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In which case did the Supreme Court lay down detailed requirements to be followed in every arrest, such as the arrest memo, informing a relative and medical examination, to prevent custodial violence?
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Answer D. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down 11 requirements on arrest and detention; many were later written into the CrPC in 2008-10 and continue in the BNSS.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
5.2Role of the probation officer in correctional settingsNotes
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Role of Probation officer are limited with respect to adult offenders. Struck out which is not correct :
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Answer C. There is provision for offenders to be kept under the supervision of POs while on bail
For adults, the probation officer comes in only after conviction, for a pre-sentence report and supervision under a probation order. The law has no provision to place adults on bail under a probation officer's supervision, so that statement is wrong.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q140, final key
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Choose your answer based on the statements given below.
(A): The Role of Probation Officers are applicable to all children irrespective of whether there is a probation order or not.
(R): They are Children in Need of Care and Protection and Children in Conflict with Law
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Under the JJ Act, probation officers work with all children who come into the system, without any probation order: social investigation, individual care plans and follow-up. This is because the Act treats these children as children in need of care and protection or in conflict with law.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q141, final key
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Who is expected to regularly interact with children in conflict with law and also to prepare individual care plans to facilitate rehabilitation irrespective of those children being on bail or housed in the observation home?
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Answer C. The probation officer
Under the JJ Model Rules 2016, the probation officer meets children in conflict with law regularly and prepares the individual care plan, whether the child is on bail or in an observation home.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q142, final key
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When a probation officer gives the report to the Court regarding the release of person on probation, that recommendation:
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Answer C. May be either accepted or not accepted by the Judge
Under Section 4(3) and Section 7 of the Probation of Offenders Act the court considers the probation officer's report, but the report only helps the court decide; the judge may accept it or not.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q146, final key
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The probation officers are responsible for their duties under the Probation of Offender’s Act. Their major role is :
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Answer A. Supervision and rehabilitation
Section 14 of the Probation of Offenders Act makes the probation officer supervise probationers and help them find suitable employment and settle in society, so the role is both supervision and rehabilitation.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q147, final key
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The Court has to call for a report from whom before deciding to not grant probation under the Probation of Offenders Act?
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Answer C. Probation officer
Section 6(2) of the Probation of Offenders Act requires the court to call for a report from the probation officer before deciding not to release an offender under 21 on probation or admonition.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q150, final key
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Assertion (A): A court must disclose the full contents of the probation officer's report to the offender in every case.
Reason (R): Section 7 of the Probation of Offenders Act makes the probation officer's report confidential.
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Answer D. (A) is false but (R) is true
A is false: under Section 7 the report is confidential, and the court only may, if it thinks fit, communicate its substance to the offender and allow him to produce relevant evidence. R is true.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Assertion (A): Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the Juvenile Justice Board directs a probation officer to prepare a social investigation report on a child in conflict with law.
Reason (R): The report helps the Board learn the child's background and the circumstances in which the alleged offence was committed.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Section 8(3)(e) of the JJ Act requires the Board to direct the probation officer (or, if none is available, the Child Welfare Officer or a social worker) to make a social investigation and report, to ascertain the circumstances of the alleged offence. R gives the purpose of A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Assertion (A): In supervision, a probation officer has to combine control over the probationer with help and guidance.
Reason (R): Probation is both a conditional release under the authority of the court and a treatment measure for the offender.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Because probation is at once a court order with conditions (control) and a way of reforming the offender in the community (treatment), the officer plays both roles. R explains A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The report in which a probation officer describes an offender's family, education, work, habits and past conduct to help the court choose the most suitable way of dealing with him is called the:
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Answer D. Pre-sentence (social investigation) report
This is the pre-sentence or social investigation report. Section 14(a) of the Probation of Offenders Act asks the probation officer to inquire into the circumstances or home surroundings of an accused, on the court's direction, to help it decide how to deal with him.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under Section 18 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, the Board may release a child found to have committed an offence on probation of good conduct and place the child under the care of:
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Answer B. A parent, guardian or fit person
Section 18(1)(e) allows release on probation of good conduct under the care of a parent, guardian or fit person, who executes a bond (with or without surety) for the child's good behaviour for up to three years.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under Section 12 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, a child alleged to be in conflict with law who is released on bail may be placed:
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Answer C. Under the supervision of a probation officer or under the care of a fit person
Section 12(1) lets the child be released on bail with or without surety, or placed under the supervision of a probation officer or under the care of a fit person.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The duties of probation officers are laid down in which section of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
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Answer C. Section 14
Section 14 lists the duties: inquiry into an accused's circumstances on the court's direction, supervision of probationers, help with compensation or costs, advice to persons released under Section 4, and other prescribed duties.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under Section 13(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, in an exceptional case the court may allow which of the following to act as a probation officer?
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Answer B. Any other person who, in the court's opinion, is fit to act in the special circumstances of the case
Section 13(1) lists: a person appointed or recognised by the State Government, a person provided by a society recognised by the State Government, or, in an exceptional case, any other person the court thinks fit.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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