Free mock test · APPSC Paper I
APPSC DPO Social Work & Criminology Mock 1 with answers
- 150 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this test (5)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): According to Ogburn, a cultural lag arises when non-material culture fails to keep pace with changes in material culture.
Reason (R): Ogburn held that material culture, built on inventions and discoveries, changes faster than the adaptive non-material culture.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Ogburn argued that material culture (technology) changes rapidly through invention, while customs, laws and beliefs (adaptive culture) adjust slowly; the gap between them is cultural lag.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q2 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Match the following Rothman models of community practice with their main focus:
List – I List – II a. Locality development 1. Rational, expert-led solving of substantive problems b. Social planning 2. Changing power relations for a disadvantaged group c. Social action 3. Self-help and community capacity through broad participation Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-3, b-1, c-2
Rothman: locality development builds community capacity and integration by self-help; social planning uses experts and data to solve problems such as housing or health; social action aims to shift power and resources to a disadvantaged group.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q3 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Match the following items given in List-I with the items given in List-II.
List – I List – II a. William Beveridge 1. The Three Worlds of Welfare Capitalism b. Richard Titmuss 2. Voluntary Action c. Walter A. Friedlander 3. Introduction to Social Welfare d. Gøsta Esping-Andersen 4. The Gift Relationship Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
Beveridge wrote Voluntary Action (1948). Titmuss wrote The Gift Relationship (1970), a study of blood donation. Friedlander wrote Introduction to Social Welfare (1955). Esping-Andersen wrote The Three Worlds of Welfare Capitalism (1990). So a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q4 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Select the correct answer about the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The practice of dowry continues widely in India even though it has been an offence since 1961.
Reason (R): Social legislation succeeds only when it is backed by public opinion and effective enforcement.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The Dowry Prohibition Act 1961 made giving and taking dowry an offence, but the practice continues. Social legislation can set a standard; it changes behaviour only with public opinion, awareness and enforcement.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q5 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Arrange the following in chronological order:
a. Founding of Toynbee Hall
b. Elizabethan Poor Law
c. Founding of the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work
d. Founding of the London Charity Organisation Society
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. b, d, a, c
Elizabethan Poor Law 1601 → London COS 1869 → Toynbee Hall 1884 → Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work, Bombay, 1936.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q6 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): In casework, the worker should develop a close personal friendship with the client.
Reason (R): A good rapport between the worker and the client helps the casework process.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Rapport (R) is essential, but the casework relationship is professional, not a personal friendship; so A is false and R is true.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q7 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Consider the following statements about the models of social welfare.
1. The institutional model treats social welfare as a normal, first-line function of modern industrial society.
2. The residual model treats social welfare as a permanent and universal service for all citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1 only
The institutional model sees welfare services as a normal, permanent part of industrial society. The residual model sees them as temporary help that comes in only when the family and the market fail. So statement 2 describes the institutional model, not the residual one.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q8 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Match the social legislation in List I with the year of its enactment in List II:
List I
a. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act
b. Dowry Prohibition Act
c. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
d. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act
List II
1. 1961
2. 2006
3. 1956
4. 2005
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act 1956 (enacted as the Suppression of Immoral Traffic Act, renamed in 1986); Dowry Prohibition Act 1961; Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005; Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q9 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Match the following items given in List-I with the items given in List-II.
List – I List – II a. Emile Durkheim 1. Folkways b. W. G. Sumner 2. Looking-glass self c. C. H. Cooley 3. Ideal type d. Max Weber 4. Anomie Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
Durkheim used anomie for normlessness (The Division of Labour, Suicide); Sumner wrote Folkways (1906); Cooley gave the looking-glass self; Weber used the ideal type as a method.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q10 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Which one of the following is NOT among Biestek's principles of the casework relationship?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Principle of professional authority
Biestek's seven principles: individualisation, purposeful expression of feelings, controlled emotional involvement, acceptance, non-judgemental attitude, client self-determination and confidentiality. 'Professional authority' is not one of them.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q11 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The term 'welfare state', used in contrast to the 'power state' or 'warfare state', was popularised in the early 1940s by:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Archbishop William Temple
Archbishop William Temple, in Citizen and Churchman (1941), contrasted the welfare state with the power state. He is generally credited with popularising the term.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q12 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was constituted under which of the following?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005
The Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act 2005 provides for the national commission (constituted in March 2007) and State commissions. Later laws such as RTE 2009 and POCSO 2012 gave it monitoring duties.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q13 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The campaign of Raja Ram Mohan Roy that led to the abolition of sati in 1829 is an example of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Social reform
Social reform works through public opinion and legislation to change social customs; the Bengal Sati Regulation of 1829 followed Ram Mohan Roy's campaign.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q14 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Murray G. Ross is best known for his work on:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Community organisation
Murray G. Ross defined community organisation as the process by which a community identifies its needs, ranks them, finds resources and takes action, developing cooperative attitudes in the process.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q15 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The Central Social Welfare Board was set up in 1953. Who was its first chairperson?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Durgabai Deshmukh
The Central Social Welfare Board was set up in August 1953 by a resolution of the Government of India. Durgabai Deshmukh was its first chairperson.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q16 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The toll-free emergency phone number for children in need of care and protection in India is:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1098
1098 (CHILDLINE, now integrated with the emergency response system under Mission Vatsalya) is the 24-hour helpline for children in distress.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q17 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The first school of professional social work in India, started in Bombay in 1936, was the:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work
Professional social work education in India began in 1936 with the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work, Bombay, funded by the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q18 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The principle which requires the social worker not to blame the client or assign guilt for the client's problem is:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Non-judgemental attitude
A non-judgemental attitude means the worker does not assign blame or guilt to the client, though attitudes and actions may still be assessed objectively.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q19 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
The Government of India approved the National Policy on the Voluntary Sector in the year:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 2007
The National Policy on the Voluntary Sector was approved in May 2007. It aims to give the voluntary sector an enabling environment and to build partnership with government.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q20 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
'Local Agenda 21', drawn from Chapter 28 of Agenda 21, calls on which of the following to prepare their own sustainable development plans with their communities?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Local authorities
Agenda 21 says many of its problems have roots in local activities, so Chapter 28 asks each local authority to talk with its residents and adopt a Local Agenda 21. In India this fits the participatory role of panchayats and municipalities.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q21 Social Work: Definition, Scope, Values and Practice in India
Who raised the question 'Is Social Work a Profession?' in a 1915 paper and concluded that it did not yet meet the tests of a profession?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Abraham Flexner
Flexner's 1915 critique pushed social work to build a teachable body of knowledge and professional training.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q22 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Assertion (A): Beccaria opposed the death penalty and torture.
Reason (R): Beccaria believed that the severity of a punishment deters crime more than its certainty.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
Beccaria opposed torture and capital punishment. He argued that the certainty and promptness of punishment deter far more than its severity, so R states the opposite of his view.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q23 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Under the M'Naghten Rules, every person is presumed to be sane and responsible for his crimes until the contrary is proved.
Reason (R): The M'Naghten Rules were laid down by the Supreme Court of the United States.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
The presumption of sanity is the opening rule of the 1843 M'Naghten Rules. They were answers given by the English judges to questions put by the House of Lords, not a US Supreme Court decision.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q24 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Labelling theorists argue that a formal reaction to a minor offence can push a young person into a deviant career.
Reason (R): A public deviant label changes a person's self-image and closes legitimate opportunities, which leads to secondary deviance.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Labelling theory (Tannenbaum, Lemert, Becker) holds that the label itself, by changing self-concept and others' responses, produces further (secondary) deviance; R explains A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q25 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Select the correct answer regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Under Section 64A of the NDPS Act, 1985, an addict charged with consumption or with an offence involving a small quantity who voluntarily undergoes de-addiction treatment at a recognised institution is immune from prosecution.
Reason (R): Section 27 of the NDPS Act makes the consumption of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances an offence.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Both statements are true. Section 64A grants immunity to an addict who volunteers for de-addiction (it can be withdrawn if the treatment is not completed); Section 27 makes consumption an offence. R only states the offence; the reason for the immunity is the Act's policy of treating addicts for rehabilitation, so R does not explain A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
-
125 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q26 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Assertion (A): The cartographic school explained crime mainly through the physical features of individual offenders.
Reason (R): Guerry and Quetelet used official crime statistics to study how crime was distributed across regions.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false but (R) is true
The cartographic school worked with aggregate social statistics, not with the bodies of individual offenders; that was Lombroso's method. R correctly describes their work.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q27 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Which of the following pairs of IPC general exceptions is NOT correctly matched?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Section 83 – Act of a child under seven years of age
The general exceptions are IPC 76–106, now BNS 14–44. IPC 76 = BNS 14, IPC 80 = BNS 18, IPC 82 (child under seven) = BNS 20, IPC 83 (child of 7–12 of immature understanding) = BNS 21, IPC 85 = BNS 23.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q28 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Enrico Ferri held that crime is produced by anthropological (individual), physical and social factors acting together.
Reason (R): Ferri regarded the born criminal as the only class of criminal.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
Ferri's multiple-factor view is correct, but he classified criminals into five classes: born, insane, habitual, occasional and passional, so R is false.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q29 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Which of the following is NOT a principle of Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Differential association
CPTED's core principles are natural surveillance, natural access control, territorial reinforcement and maintenance (image). Differential association is Sutherland's learning theory of crime.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q30 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Assertion (A): The classical school prescribed the same punishment for the same offence, whatever the offender's age or mental condition.
Reason (R): Classical thinkers assumed that every person is a rational being with free will who weighs pleasure against pain.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Because the classical school took every offender to be equally rational and free, it saw no need to vary punishment with the person; only the act mattered. The neo-classical school later corrected this for children and the insane.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q31 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Under the M'Naghten Rules (1843), an accused is not criminally responsible if at the time of the act, owing to a disease of the mind, he:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Did not know the nature and quality of the act, or did not know that it was wrong
The M'Naghten Rules, framed by the judges for the House of Lords after Daniel M'Naghten killed Edward Drummond, are a cognitive test of knowledge. Section 84 IPC (now BNS 22) follows the same test.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q32 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Strain theory, which explains deviance as the result of a gap between culturally approved goals and the legitimate means available to reach them, is associated with:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Robert K. Merton
Merton set out the theory in 'Social Structure and Anomie' (1938).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q33 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Which sociologist argued in 'Outsiders' (1963) that deviance is not a quality of the act itself but the result of others successfully applying rules and sanctions to an 'offender'?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Howard S. Becker
Howard Becker's Outsiders (1963) is the key text of labelling theory: a deviant is one to whom the label has been successfully applied.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q34 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
The three Italian thinkers who founded the positive school of criminology, sometimes called its 'holy three', are:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Lombroso, Ferri and Garofalo
Lombroso (biological), Ferri (sociological factors) and Garofalo (natural crime, dangerousness) together built the Italian positive school.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q35 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Thorsten Sellin argued that criminologists should study violations of 'conduct norms' of groups rather than only acts defined by the criminal law. This approach is an example of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A social (normative) definition of crime
Sellin's Culture Conflict and Crime (1938) looked beyond statutes to group conduct norms, a social or normative view of crime, unlike the legal view of Tappan or Blackstone.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q36 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
'Techniques of neutralization', such as denial of responsibility, denial of injury and condemnation of the condemners, were described by:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Sykes and Matza
Gresham Sykes and David Matza (1957) described how delinquents rationalise their acts so as to suspend their commitment to conventional norms.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q37 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
Section 27 of the NDPS Act, 1985 provides punishment for
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. consumption of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance
Section 27 punishes consumption: up to one year's rigorous imprisonment and/or fine for cocaine, morphine, heroin and other notified drugs, and up to six months and/or fine for other drugs.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q38 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
The 'hedonistic' or 'felicific calculus', by which a person is assumed to weigh the expected pleasure of an act against its pain before doing it, is associated with:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Jeremy Bentham
Jeremy Bentham, the English utilitarian of the classical school, held that people seek pleasure and avoid pain, so punishment should be just enough to outweigh the pleasure of the offence.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q39 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
As a general rule of criminal law, mere intention and ______ are not punishable, while an attempt is.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Preparation
Preparation is usually not punished because it is hard to prove the accused would have gone on. Exceptions include collecting arms to wage war against the state (IPC 122, now BNS 149) and preparing to commit dacoity (IPC 399, now BNS 310(4)).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q40 Criminology, Deviance and Crime
The distinction between 'primary deviance' and 'secondary deviance' was made by:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Edwin Lemert
Lemert (Social Pathology, 1951) called the initial rule-breaking primary deviance, and deviance that follows from taking on the deviant label and role secondary deviance.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q41 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Which one of the following pairs of a section of the IT Act, 2000 and the offence is NOT correctly matched?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Section 67 – Cyber terrorism
Section 67 punishes publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form. Cyber terrorism is Section 66F.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q42 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A rise in the number of crimes recorded by the NCRB always shows that the actual amount of crime in society has increased.
Reason (R): Recorded crime depends also on how willing people are to report and how readily the police register cases, for example through e-FIR and Zero FIR.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Recorded crime is only the crime that is reported and registered. Easier registration and more awareness can raise the figures even if actual crime has not grown, so A is false and R is true.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q43 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Arrange the following Supreme Court decisions on the death penalty in chronological order:
1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
2. Jagmohan Singh v. State of U.P.
3. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India
4. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 2, 1, 4, 3
Jagmohan Singh (1973), Bachan Singh (1980), Machhi Singh (1983), Shatrughan Chauhan (2014).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q44 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Match List I (author) with List II (work on prisons and institutions):
List I
a. Donald Clemmer
b. Gresham Sykes
c. Erving Goffman
d. Michel Foucault
List II
1. Asylums
2. Discipline and Punish
3. The Prison Community
4. The Society of Captives
Select the correct answer:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Clemmer, The Prison Community (1940); Sykes, The Society of Captives (1958); Goffman, Asylums (1961); Foucault, Discipline and Punish (1975).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q45 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the correct answer regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The Mulla Committee recommended that the subject 'Prisons' be placed in the Concurrent List.
Reason (R): 'Prisons' is an entry in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
The Mulla Committee did recommend moving prisons to the Concurrent List. Prisons are at present in the State List (List II, Entry 4), not the Union List, so R is false.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q46 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Consider the following statements about the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002:
1. 'Proceeds of crime' are property derived from criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence.
2. The Supreme Court upheld its key provisions in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India (2022).
3. The Act came into force on the day it received assent in 2003.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Act was enacted in 2002 (assent January 2003) but came into force only on 1 July 2005.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q47 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A police officer who does not record the information given to him about an acid attack or rape is himself liable to punishment.
Reason (R): The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 added Section 166A to the IPC to punish a public servant who fails to record such information.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
IPC 166A(c), added in 2013 (now BNS 199(c)), punishes a public servant who fails to record information about offences such as acid attack, assault on women, trafficking and rape, with six months to two years' imprisonment and fine.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q48 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The retributive theory looks backward to the offence already committed.
Reason (R): The retributive theory justifies punishment mainly by its power to deter other people in future.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is true: retribution responds to the past wrong. (R) is false: deterring others in future is the deterrent theory's justification.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q49 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Arrange the following laws on prisons in chronological order:
1. Transfer of Prisoners Act
2. Prisons Act
3. Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act
4. Prisoners Act
Select the correct order:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 2, 4, 1, 3
Prisons Act 1894, Prisoners Act 1900, Transfer of Prisoners Act 1950, Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act 2023.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q50 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Consider the following statements about remedies available to prisoners:
1. A prisoner can approach a High Court under Article 226 for the enforcement of legal rights as well as fundamental rights.
2. The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 is itself a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both 1 and 2
Article 226 lets a High Court issue writs for fundamental rights 'and for any other purpose', so it is wider than Article 32. Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, is itself in Part III and so is a fundamental right.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
-
100 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q51 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Which one of the following Act–year pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Whistle Blowers Protection Act – 2011
The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was passed and received assent in 2014. The other pairs are correct.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q52 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Match the following institutions with their headquarters:
List – I List – II a. INTERPOL 1. Ghaziabad b. National Forensic Sciences University 2. Lyon c. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy 3. Hyderabad d. CBI Academy 4. Gandhinagar Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
INTERPOL is headquartered in Lyon (France); NFSU in Gandhinagar (Gujarat); the SVP National Police Academy, which trains IPS officers, in Hyderabad; and the CBI Academy in Ghaziabad (Uttar Pradesh).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q53 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
H. L. A. Hart listed the standard elements of legal punishment. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. It must be imposed by the victim personally
Hart's elements: unpleasant consequences, for an offence against legal rules, on an actual or supposed offender, intentionally administered by persons other than the offender, and imposed by an authority of the legal system. Private revenge by the victim is excluded.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q54 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Assertion (A): Clemmer held that a prisoner with a long sentence who joins close-knit inmate groups becomes more deeply prisonized.
Reason (R): Deep prisonization makes it harder for a prisoner to adjust to free society after release.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Clemmer listed factors that raise prisonization: a long sentence, an unstable personality, few outside contacts and membership of inmate primary groups. R states a consequence of prisonization, not the cause of its degree, so it does not explain A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q55 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Match List I (committee) with List II (period):
List I
a. Prison Discipline Committee
b. Indian Jails Committee
c. All India Jail Manual Committee
d. All India Committee on Jail Reforms
List II
1. 1980–83
2. 1957–59
3. 1836
4. 1919–20
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Prison Discipline Committee (Macaulay) 1836; Indian Jails Committee (Cardew) 1919–20; All India Jail Manual Committee 1957–59; All India Committee on Jail Reforms (Mulla) 1980–83.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q56 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Consider the following statements about the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019:
1. It lets the Central Government designate individuals as terrorists.
2. It allows NIA officers of the rank of Inspector and above to investigate UAPA cases.
3. It abolished the National Investigation Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 1 and 2 only
The 2019 amendment added the power to list individuals (Fourth Schedule) and let NIA officers of Inspector rank investigate. The NIA was not abolished; its powers were widened the same year.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q57 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Which one of the following is NOT one of the three elements of Cohen and Felson's routine activity theory?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Weak social bonds
Routine activity theory (1979) says crime happens when a motivated offender and a suitable target meet in the absence of a capable guardian, in the course of daily routines.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q58 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): In India, life imprisonment is the rule and the death sentence the exception for murder.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court in Bachan Singh held that death should be imposed only in the rarest of rare cases, when the alternative is unquestionably foreclosed.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true, and Bachan Singh's rarest-of-rare doctrine is why life imprisonment is the normal sentence for murder.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q59 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Section 27 of the Prisons Act 1894 requires certain classes of prisoners to be kept apart. Which of the following separations is NOT required by it?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Prisoners of one religion from those of another
Section 27 requires separation of women from men, of male prisoners under 21 from other prisoners (and, among them, those who have reached puberty from those who have not), of unconvicted from convicted criminal prisoners, and of civil from criminal prisoners. It does not segregate prisoners by religion.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q60 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the correct answer regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A convicted prisoner loses all his fundamental rights while serving the sentence.
Reason (R): Article 21 says no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false but (R) is true
D. Bhuvan Mohan Patnaik (1974) and Sunil Batra (1978) held that a prisoner keeps the fundamental rights that are not inconsistent with lawful imprisonment. R correctly states Article 21.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q61 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Cyber crimes are harder to investigate than many conventional crimes.
Reason (R): The offender may act from another country, and digital evidence can be altered or erased quickly.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are correct. Cross-border reach and the volatility of digital evidence are the main reasons cyber crimes are hard to detect, investigate and prosecute.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q62 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into force on:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 1 July 2024
The BNS replaced the IPC 1860, the BNSS replaced the CrPC 1973 and the BSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872, all from 1 July 2024.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q63 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Beccaria and Bentham, the main thinkers of the classical school, justified punishment chiefly on the ground of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Deterrence of future crime
Both held that punishment is justified only so far as it prevents future crime; pain should just outweigh the pleasure of the offence.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q64 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
In the inmate argot described by Gresham Sykes, a 'rat' is an inmate who:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Betrays fellow inmates by informing to the prison staff
Sykes's argot roles include the rat (informer), the center man (sides with officials), the gorilla (takes by force), the merchant (trades goods) and the real man (keeps the code).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q65 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Which international instrument states that the penitentiary system shall include treatment of prisoners whose essential aim is their reformation and social rehabilitation?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966
Article 10 of the ICCPR requires that persons deprived of liberty be treated with humanity and dignity; Article 10(3) says the essential aim of the penitentiary system shall be reformation and social rehabilitation. India acceded to the ICCPR in 1979.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q66 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Under Section 4 of the PMLA, 2002, money laundering not linked to NDPS Act offences is punishable with rigorous imprisonment of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 3 to 7 years
Section 4 prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than 3 years, extendable to 7 years, and fine; the maximum is 10 years where the proceeds relate to NDPS Act offences.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q67 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid (IPC 326A, added in 2013) is now dealt with under which section of the BNS?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Section 124
IPC 326A (acid attack) and 326B (attempt to throw acid) are now BNS 124(1) and 124(2). Punishment under 124(1) is at least ten years, extendable to life, with fine paid to the victim.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q68 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Probation, parole, open prisons and vocational training in prisons are practical applications of which theory of punishment?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Reformative theory
These measures aim at rehabilitation and the return of the offender to society, which is the reformative aim.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q69 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, a first-time offender who has been in detention as an undertrial for up to what part of the maximum sentence for the offence shall be released on bond by the court?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. One-third
BNSS s.479 (replacing CrPC s.436A) keeps the one-half rule for undertrials generally but reduces it to one-third for first-time offenders. It does not apply to offences punishable with death or life imprisonment, and the jail superintendent must move the court.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q70 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Which one of the following is a correctional (treatment) programme rather than a custodial measure?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Vocational training in trades such as tailoring, carpentry or weaving
Correctional programmes aim at reform: education, vocational training, productive work with wages, counselling, recreation, religious and moral instruction, and aftercare. Counting, searches and walls are custodial measures.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q71 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
In which year did Edwin Sutherland first present the concept of white-collar crime, in his presidential address to the American Sociological Society?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1939
Sutherland's presidential address 'White-Collar Criminality' was delivered in December 1939; his book White Collar Crime followed in 1949.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q72 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was set up under an Act passed in which year, after the Mumbai terror attacks of November 2008?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 2008
The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 created a central agency, under the Ministry of Home Affairs with headquarters in New Delhi, to investigate terror and other scheduled offences.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q73 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the twenty-year equivalence of life imprisonment in Section 57 IPC is only for calculating fractions of punishment and does not mean a life convict is automatically released after twenty years?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Laxman Naskar v. Union of India
In Laxman Naskar (2000) the Court held that Section 57 is for computing fractions; a life sentence lasts for the convict's natural life unless remitted or commuted.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q74 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
A 'detenu' in prison statistics means a person who is:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Held under a preventive detention law without being convicted of an offence
A detenu is held under a preventive detention law (for example the National Security Act 1980 or a State goondas Act) to prevent a feared act, not as punishment after trial.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q75 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Large-scale Vipassana meditation courses for prisoners were introduced at Tihar Jail in the mid-1990s when the Inspector General of Prisons was:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Kiran Bedi
As Inspector General of Prisons at Tihar (1993–95), Kiran Bedi introduced reforms such as Vipassana meditation, education, panchayats and community involvement; she received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1994.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
-
75 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Who introduced the term 'white-collar crime' into criminology?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Edwin H. Sutherland
Edwin Sutherland coined 'white-collar crime' in his 1939 address to the American Sociological Society and developed it in the book White Collar Crime (1949).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q77 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
In which case did the Supreme Court (1995) direct the setting up of a Criminal Injuries Compensation Board to compensate rape victims?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Delhi Domestic Working Women's Forum v. Union of India
In Delhi Domestic Working Women's Forum (1995) the Court called for legal help for rape victims, anonymity, and a Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ideas later reflected in Section 357A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q78 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
A death sentence passed by a Court of Session cannot be executed unless it is:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Confirmed by the High Court
Section 366 CrPC (now BNSS 407) requires the Sessions Court to submit the proceedings to the High Court, and the sentence is not executed until confirmed.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q79 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
The prison system in which inmates worked together in silence by day and slept in separate cells at night is known as the:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Auburn system
The Auburn (silent or congregate) system of New York had congregate work in silence by day and separate cells at night. The Pennsylvania (separate) system kept prisoners alone in their cells day and night.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q80 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
A 'prison panchayat' as a correctional practice refers to:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. elected committees of inmates that share in running welfare activities such as food, sanitation and recreation
Prison panchayats are a form of inmate self-government: elected prisoners help manage food, cleanliness, recreation and discipline. They build responsibility and are encouraged in reformative prison practice.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q81 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Which act was made a specific offence by the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Giving a bribe to a public servant
New Section 8 makes giving or promising an undue advantage to a public servant an offence; Section 9 makes commercial organisations liable for bribes given on their behalf.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q82 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Section 357A of the CrPC, which required every State to frame a victim compensation scheme, was inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 2008
The 2008 amendment added Section 357A (victim compensation scheme) and a definition of 'victim'. The 2013 amendment added 357B (compensation in addition to fine for acid attack) and 357C (free treatment of victims).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q83 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Under Section 235(2) of the CrPC (now Section 258(2) of the BNSS), after convicting the accused, the Sessions Judge must:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Hear the accused on the question of sentence
Section 235(2) CrPC, now Section 258(2) BNSS, requires a separate hearing of the accused on sentence after conviction.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q84 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
The Transfer of Prisoners Act 1950 provides for:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. The removal of prisoners from one State to another
The Transfer of Prisoners Act 1950 lets prisoners be removed from a prison in one State to a prison in another with the consent of both governments. Transfer of foreign prisoners is under the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 2003.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q85 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
In 2018 the Supreme Court constituted a committee to examine prison reforms, including overcrowding and the shortage of staff. It was headed by:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Justice Amitava Roy
While hearing the Re Inhuman Conditions in 1382 Prisons matter, the Supreme Court in September 2018 set up a committee headed by former Supreme Court judge Amitava Roy to examine problems in prisons and suggest reforms.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q86 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Who distinguished 'occupational crime' (committed by individuals for themselves) from 'corporate crime' (committed for the corporation)?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Marshall Clinard and Richard Quinney
Clinard and Quinney, in their typology of criminal behaviour systems, split white-collar crime into occupational crime and corporate crime.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q87 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
Disclosing the identity of a victim of rape (old IPC Section 228A) is an offence under which section of the BNS?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Section 72
BNS 72 (old IPC 228A) bars printing or publishing the name or any matter that may reveal the identity of a rape victim, with up to two years' imprisonment.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q88 Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons
In T. V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu (1983), the Supreme Court held that a delay of more than how long in executing a death sentence entitles the convict to commutation, a rule later overruled?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Two years
Vatheeswaran fixed two years; Sher Singh (1983) and the Constitution Bench in Triveniben (1989) rejected any fixed period.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q89 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Consider the following statements about the Juvenile Justice Board:
1. The State Government constitutes one or more Boards for every district.
2. In the absence of the Principal Magistrate, the two social worker members may pass the final order in a case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1 only
Section 4(1) provides for one or more Boards in every district. A final order needs at least two members, one of whom must be the Principal Magistrate.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q90 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Match the following items given in List-I with the items given in List-II under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
List – I List – II a. Registration of child care institutions 1. Section 52 b. Open shelter 2. Section 54 c. Fit person 3. Section 41 d. Inspection of institutions 4. Section 43 Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Registration is under Section 41, open shelters under Section 43, fit person under Section 52 and inspection of institutions under Section 54.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q91 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Assertion (A): Remand homes under the Children Acts were meant for the long-term reformative training of children.
Reason (R): Remand homes kept children for a short time while their cases were pending before the court.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false but (R) is true
A is false: long-term training was given in certified or approved schools. R is true: remand homes held children temporarily during inquiry.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q92 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Which of the following is NOT one of the four general principles of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Final authority of parents in all decisions concerning the child
The four general principles are non-discrimination (Art. 2), best interests of the child (Art. 3), the right to life, survival and development (Art. 6) and respect for the views of the child (Art. 12).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q93 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Consider the following orders:
1. Attend school or a vocational training centre
2. Not visit a specified place
3. Undergo a de-addiction programme
Which of these can the Board pass as additional orders under section 18(2) of the JJ Act 2015?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 1, 2 and 3
Section 18(2) lets the Board add orders to attend school, a vocational training centre or a therapeutic centre, to stay away from a specified place, or to undergo a de-addiction programme.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q94 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Consider the following statements about a 'fit facility' under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015:
1. It is recognised by the Juvenile Justice Board or the Child Welfare Committee after due inquiry.
2. It takes temporary responsibility for a child for a specific purpose.
3. Once granted, its recognition cannot be withdrawn.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1 and 2 only
Section 51 lets the Board or the Committee recognise a fit facility for temporary care for a specific purpose, and also lets it withdraw the recognition for reasons recorded in writing. So statement 3 is wrong.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q95 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Match List I with List II:
List I
a. Evelyn Ruggles-Brise
b. Gladstone Committee (1895)
c. Indian Jails Committee (1919-20)
d. Mulla Committee (1980-83)
List II
1. Recommended Borstal institutions for adolescents in India
2. Started the Borstal experiment in England
3. All India Committee on Jail Reforms
4. Recommended a separate penal reformatory for young adult offenders in England
Select the correct answer:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
Ruggles-Brise started Borstal (a-2), acting on the Gladstone Committee's call for a separate penal reformatory for young adult offenders (b-4); the Cardew Committee recommended Borstals in India (c-1); the Mulla Committee was the All India Committee on Jail Reforms (d-3).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q96 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Match the following sections of the POCSO Act, 2012 with their subjects:
List – I List – II a. Section 3 1. Procedure for media b. Section 11 2. Penetrative sexual assault c. Section 23 3. Designation of Special Courts d. Section 28 4. Sexual harassment Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
Section 3 defines penetrative sexual assault, Section 11 sexual harassment, Section 23 bars the media from disclosing the child's identity, and Section 28 provides for Special Courts.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q97 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Which of the following pairs (clause of section 2 of the JJ Act 2015 : term defined) is NOT correctly matched?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Section 2(14) : Juvenile Justice Board
Section 2(14) defines a child in need of care and protection. The Juvenile Justice Board is defined in a separate clause of section 2, as the Board constituted under section 4.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q98 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Inspection committees appointed under Section 54 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 must visit the child care institutions at least once in every:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Three months
Section 54 asks the State Government to appoint State and district inspection committees, which must visit the registered and fit institutions at least once in three months.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q99 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
In Andhra Pradesh, the observation homes, special homes and children's homes under the Juvenile Justice Act are run by the Department of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Juvenile Welfare, Correctional Services and Welfare of Street Children
Andhra Pradesh has a separate Department of Juvenile Welfare, Correctional Services and Welfare of Street Children that runs the JJ homes; adult prisons are under the Prisons Department.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q100 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Under Section 35 of the POCSO Act, 2012, the Special Court shall, as far as possible, complete the trial within what period from taking cognizance of the offence?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. One year
Section 35 requires the child's evidence to be recorded within 30 days of cognizance and the trial to be completed, as far as possible, within one year.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
-
50 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Where neither a court under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005 nor a Special Court under the POCSO Act exists, the 'Children's Court' under the JJ Act 2015 means:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. the Court of Session
Section 2(20): a Children's Court is a court under the CPCR Act 2005 or a POCSO Special Court, and where none exists, the Court of Session with jurisdiction.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q102 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Which section of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 makes registration compulsory for every institution housing children in need of care and protection or children in conflict with law?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Section 41
Section 41 requires all institutions housing such children, whether run by the State Government or by a voluntary or non-governmental organisation, to be registered under the Act, whether or not they receive government grants.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q103 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Which international meeting adopted the Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners and recommended the wider use of open penal institutions?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. First UN Congress on the Prevention of Crime and the Treatment of Offenders, Geneva, 1955
The First UN Congress (Geneva, 1955) adopted the Standard Minimum Rules and a resolution recommending open institutions. They were revised in 2015 as the Nelson Mandela Rules.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q104 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Mission Vatsalya, implemented from 2021–22, is the successor to which earlier scheme?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Child Protection Services, earlier known as the Integrated Child Protection Scheme
ICPS (2009) was renamed Child Protection Services in 2017 and was subsumed in Mission Vatsalya from 2021–22, which funds statutory bodies, child care institutions, non-institutional care and the Childline service.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q105 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Under section 9 of the JJ Act 2015, a claim that the accused was a child on the date of the offence:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. may be raised before any court at any stage, even after the final disposal of the case
The court must inquire into the claim and, if the person was a child on the date of the offence, forward the matter to the Board; any sentence passed is treated as having no effect.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q106 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Under Section 52 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a person recognised as a 'fit person' may:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Temporarily receive a child for care, protection and treatment for a specified period
A fit person is recognised by the Board or the Committee, after verifying credentials, to receive a child temporarily for care, protection and treatment for a specified period.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q107 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
The Sampurnanand Camp at Chakia in Uttar Pradesh is an example of an open-air camp in which prisoners were employed mainly on:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Construction of a dam and canal project
The Sampurnanand Camp at Chakia (Varanasi region, early 1950s) used prisoners for building the Chandraprabha dam; open camps were typically linked to public works.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q108 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
The statutory bodies charged with monitoring the implementation of the POCSO Act, 2012 are:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. The National and State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights
Section 44 of POCSO asks the NCPCR and the State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights, constituted under the CPCR Act, 2005, to monitor the implementation of the Act.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q109 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Under the JJ (Amendment) Act, 2021, the power to issue adoption orders was moved from the court to:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. the District Magistrate (including the Additional District Magistrate)
To cut delays, the 2021 amendment transferred adoption orders under section 61 to the District Magistrate.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q110 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
Under Section 53 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, every child care institution must have which body to manage the institution and monitor the progress of every child?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Management Committee
Section 53 requires every institution to have a Management Committee, set up as prescribed, to manage the institution and monitor each child's progress. Children's committees are separate bodies of the children themselves.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q111 Open Prisons and Juvenile Correctional Institutions
The 'Borstal' system of training young offenders takes its name from:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A village near Rochester in Kent, England
Borstal is a village near Rochester in Kent, where the English prison authorities began the first experiment in separate training of young adult offenders in 1902.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q112 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Under Section 6 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT a class of criminal court in a State?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Metropolitan Magistrates
Section 6 of the BNSS lists Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrates of the first class, Judicial Magistrates of the second class and Executive Magistrates. The separate class of Metropolitan Magistrates found in Section 6 of the CrPC was dropped.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q113 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Insertion of Article 39A in the Constitution
2. Enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act
3. The Law Commission's 41st Report on revising the Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Coming into force of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 3, 1, 2, 4
41st Report (1969), Article 39A (42nd Amendment, 1976), Legal Services Authorities Act (1987), BNSS in force (1 July 2024).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q114 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The report of a probation officer under the Probation of Offenders Act is treated as confidential.
Reason (R): The court can never disclose any part of the report to the offender.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Section 7 makes the report confidential, but the court may communicate its substance to the offender and allow him to produce evidence on it.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q115 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Assertion (A): A court must disclose the full contents of the probation officer's report to the offender in every case.
Reason (R): Section 7 of the Probation of Offenders Act makes the probation officer's report confidential.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false but (R) is true
A is false: under Section 7 the report is confidential, and the court only may, if it thinks fit, communicate its substance to the offender and allow him to produce relevant evidence. R is true.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q116 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Assertion (A): Furlough is granted to long-term prisoners even when they give no particular reason for wanting leave.
Reason (R): Furlough aims to let the prisoner keep in touch with family and society and to reduce the ill effects of continuous imprisonment.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true, and the purpose in R (keeping family ties, avoiding institutionalisation) is why furlough does not need a specific reason.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q117 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
In Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006), the Supreme Court issued directions on police reform. Which of the following was NOT one of them?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Transferring 'police' to the Union List
The seven directions included a State Security Commission, fixed tenure for the DGP and field officers, separation of investigation from law and order, a Police Establishment Board, Police Complaints Authorities and a National Security Commission. 'Police' remains in the State List; the Court cannot amend the Constitution.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q118 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Assertion (A): Free legal aid to an indigent accused in a criminal trial is a right enforceable in court.
Reason (R): Article 39A, being a Directive Principle, is directly enforceable by courts.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
A is true: the Supreme Court read free legal aid into Article 21 (Hoskot 1978, Hussainara 1979, Suk Das 1986), and CrPC 304 (now BNSS 341) provides it at State expense. R is false: Article 37 says Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q119 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Release after admonition under section 3 of the Probation of Offenders Act is available for any offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years.
Reason (R): Section 3 names theft (IPC 379) and cheating (IPC 420) among the offences it covers.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Section 3 covers IPC 379, 380, 381, 404, 420 and other offences punishable with up to two years or fine; seven years is the section 360 CrPC limit for adult men.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q120 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Assertion (A): Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the Juvenile Justice Board directs a probation officer to prepare a social investigation report on a child in conflict with law.
Reason (R): The report helps the Board learn the child's background and the circumstances in which the alleged offence was committed.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Section 8(3)(e) of the JJ Act requires the Board to direct the probation officer (or, if none is available, the Child Welfare Officer or a social worker) to make a social investigation and report, to ascertain the circumstances of the alleged offence. R gives the purpose of A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q121 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors the Supreme Court listed in Laxman Naskar v. State of West Bengal (2000) for considering premature release of a life convict?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. The convict's standing and popularity in his locality
The factors were: whether the offence affected society at large, the chance of recurrence, whether the convict has lost the potential to commit crime, whether any fruitful purpose is served by keeping him in prison, and the socio-economic condition of his family.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q122 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The Malimath Committee recommended that some useful features of the inquisitorial system be adopted in the Indian criminal justice system.
Reason (R): The Committee held that the 'quest for truth' should be the guiding principle of the criminal justice system.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Malimath found the adversarial system too passive and, wanting the courts to search actively for truth, recommended borrowing features of the inquisitorial system (for example a more active role for the judge). R therefore explains A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q123 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Match List I (body under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987) with List II (section that provides for it).
List – I List – II a. National Legal Services Authority 1. Section 19 b. State Legal Services Authority 2. Section 9 c. District Legal Services Authority 3. Section 3 d. Lok Adalats 4. Section 6 Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
NALSA is constituted under Section 3, SLSA under Section 6, DLSA under Section 9 and Lok Adalats are organised under Section 19.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q124 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Match the following items given in List-I with the items given in List-II.
List – I List – II a. John Augustus 1. First paid probation officer, Boston (1878) b. Matthew Davenport Hill 2. Recorder of Birmingham c. Edward H. Savage 3. Police court mission of the Church of England Temperance Society (1876) d. Frederic Rainer 4. Boston shoemaker who stood bail for offenders (1841) Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
Augustus (Boston shoemaker, 1841); Hill (Recorder of Birmingham); Savage, a former police chief, became Boston's first paid probation officer under the 1878 law; Rainer, a printer, gave the gift that led the Church of England Temperance Society to start the police court mission in 1876.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q125 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Assertion (A): In supervision, a probation officer has to combine control over the probationer with help and guidance.
Reason (R): Probation is both a conditional release under the authority of the court and a treatment measure for the offender.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Because probation is at once a court order with conditions (control) and a way of reforming the offender in the community (treatment), the officer plays both roles. R explains A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
-
25 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q126 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Assertion (A): Remission earned under prison rules does not by itself entitle a life convict to release.
Reason (R): A life sentence lasts for the remainder of the convict's life unless the appropriate Government remits it.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true, and R explains A: since life imprisonment is for the whole life (Godse, 1961), earned remission has effect only when the Government passes a remission order.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q127 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Which of the following is NOT ordinarily counted as a component (sub-system) of the criminal justice system?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Election Commission
The criminal justice system is usually described as police, prosecution, courts and corrections (prisons, probation, parole). The Election Commission has no role in it.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q128 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Which of the following pairs (provision : subject) is NOT correctly matched?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Article 39A : Right to constitutional remedies
Article 39A is equal justice and free legal aid. The right to constitutional remedies is Article 32. The other pairs are correct.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q129 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A government servant released on probation under section 4 does not suffer any disqualification that a law attaches to a conviction.
Reason (R): An order under section 4 wipes out the conviction itself.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Section 12 removes the disqualification, but the conviction stands; the Supreme Court has held that the employer may still act on the conduct that led to it (e.g. Union of India v. Bakshi Ram, 1990).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q130 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
The report in which a probation officer describes an offender's family, education, work, habits and past conduct to help the court choose the most suitable way of dealing with him is called the:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Pre-sentence (social investigation) report
This is the pre-sentence or social investigation report. Section 14(a) of the Probation of Offenders Act asks the probation officer to inquire into the circumstances or home surroundings of an accused, on the court's direction, to help it decide how to deal with him.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q131 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Which US law abolished federal parole for offences committed after 1 November 1987 and replaced it with 'supervised release'?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Sentencing Reform Act 1984
The Sentencing Reform Act 1984 (part of the Comprehensive Crime Control Act) introduced sentencing guidelines and determinate sentences, ending parole for federal offences committed from 1 November 1987.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q132 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
On the standard of proof in criminal cases, the Malimath Committee recommended that:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A lower standard be adopted under which it is enough that the court is convinced the fact is true
The Committee felt that 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' had become too exacting and suggested a standard lower than it, under which the court need only be convinced that the fact is true (a 'clear and convincing' standard).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q133 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
For a person accused of a bailable offence, bail is:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A matter of right
Under CrPC 436 (now BNSS 478), a person accused of a bailable offence who is ready to give bail shall be released; bail is his right.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q134 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Section 18 of the Probation of Offenders Act saves section 31 of which Act?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Reformatory Schools Act, 1897
Section 18 leaves section 31 of the Reformatory Schools Act, 1897 untouched, along with the other enactments it names.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q135 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Under Section 18 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, the Board may release a child found to have committed an offence on probation of good conduct and place the child under the care of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A parent, guardian or fit person
Section 18(1)(e) allows release on probation of good conduct under the care of a parent, guardian or fit person, who executes a bond (with or without surety) for the child's good behaviour for up to three years.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q136 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Remission given to a prisoner for helping to put out a fire in the prison or preventing another prisoner's escape is called:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Special remission
Special remission is awarded by the Superintendent or Inspector General for meritorious acts such as fire-fighting or preventing an escape.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q137 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Plea bargaining, added to the CrPC as Chapter XXI-A by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005, is available only for offences punishable with imprisonment of up to:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Seven years
Under Section 265A of the CrPC, plea bargaining is barred for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment above seven years, for notified socio-economic offences and for offences against a woman or a child below 14. The BNSS (Sections 289 to 300) keeps the scheme with the same seven-year limit.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q138 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, who is the Chairman of a District Legal Services Authority?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. The District Judge
Section 9 makes the District Judge the Chairman of the District Legal Services Authority.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q139 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 comes into force in a State:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. On the date the State Government notifies in the Official Gazette
Under section 1(3), the Act comes into force in a State on the date the State Government appoints by notification; States brought it in at different times.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q140 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Under Section 12 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, a child alleged to be in conflict with law who is released on bail may be placed:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Under the supervision of a probation officer or under the care of a fit person
Section 12(1) lets the child be released on bail with or without surety, or placed under the supervision of a probation officer or under the care of a fit person.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q141 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Where the offence was investigated by a central agency such as the CBI, the State Government's power to remit the sentence is to be exercised, under Section 435 CrPC (now Section 477 BNSS) as read in Union of India v. V. Sriharan (2015):
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. after consultation with the Central Government, which the Court read as its concurrence
The Constitution Bench in Sriharan held that 'consultation' in Section 435 CrPC means concurrence where a central agency investigated the case; the provision is now Section 477 BNSS.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q142 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
The principle 'the police are the public and the public are the police', a foundation of community policing, is credited to:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Sir Robert Peel
The idea is one of the principles associated with Sir Robert Peel, who set up the London Metropolitan Police in 1829.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q143 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that a procedure depriving a person of personal liberty under Article 21 must be:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Fair, just and reasonable
Maneka Gandhi held that 'procedure established by law' must be fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive, and read Articles 14, 19 and 21 together.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q144 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Before making an order under section 4(1), the court shall take into consideration:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. The report, if any, of the probation officer concerned
Section 4(2): the court takes into account the probation officer's report, if any. (Under section 6, for offenders under 21, calling for the report is compulsory.)
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q145 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
The duties of probation officers are laid down in which section of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Section 14
Section 14 lists the duties: inquiry into an accused's circumstances on the court's direction, supervision of probationers, help with compensation or costs, advice to persons released under Section 4, and other prescribed duties.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q146 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Which of the following categories of prisoners is generally NOT eligible for furlough under State furlough and parole rules?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A habitual offender
State rules (e.g. the Bombay Furlough and Parole Rules 1959) usually exclude habitual offenders, along with prisoners whose release is a danger to security or who have escaped before.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q147 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Which value lies at the heart of Packer's due process model?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Reliability of fact-finding and protection of the individual against official error
The due process model distrusts informal, administrative fact-finding and insists on formal, adversarial adjudication so that the innocent are protected and state power is limited.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q148 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
In which case did the Supreme Court lay down detailed requirements to be followed in every arrest, such as the arrest memo, informing a relative and medical examination, to prevent custodial violence?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) laid down 11 requirements on arrest and detention; many were later written into the CrPC in 2008-10 and continue in the BNSS.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q149 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Section 360(10) of the CrPC provides that nothing in section 360 shall affect the provisions of:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 and laws for the treatment of youthful offenders
Section 360(10) keeps the Probation of Offenders Act and laws for youthful offenders intact; the Act, where in force, is the main law on probation.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
- Q150 Criminal Justice System, Probation and Parole
Under Section 13(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, in an exceptional case the court may allow which of the following to act as a probation officer?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Any other person who, in the court's opinion, is fit to act in the special circumstances of the case
Section 13(1) lists: a person appointed or recognised by the State Government, a person provided by a society recognised by the State Government, or, in an exceptional case, any other person the court thinks fit.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
Want your score and what to study next?
Take this test in Medha AI with a timer and negative marks, or download it as a PDF above.
Start freeMore free papers
- APPSC Paper I Mock 1 with answers150 Qs
- APPSC Paper II Mock 1 with answers150 Qs
- APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I question paper with answers140 Qs
- APPSC ASWO 2025 Paper II question paper with answers134 Qs
- APPSC ASO 2025 Paper II question paper with answers140 Qs
- APPSC HWO 2025 Paper II question paper with answers142 Qs
- APPSC EO Gr III 2026 Paper II question paper with answers144 Qs
- APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology question paper with answers147 Qs
- APPSC DPO 2023 Psychology question paper with answers143 Qs
- APPSC ASO Paper II Mock 1 with answers150 Qs
- APPSC HWO Paper II Mock 1 with answers150 Qs
- APPSC EO Paper II Mock 1 with answers150 Qs
- APPSC DPO Psychology Mock 1 with answers150 Qs
Medha AI is an independent preparation service. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to APPSC, TSPSC, MPSC, UPSC or any other commission or government body.