APPSC Paper I · Probation Officer Paper II: Social Work & Criminology · Topic 3
3 APPSC Paper I Forms of Crime, Crime in India, Punishment and Prisons questions with answers
92 questions from APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology question paper with answers and APPSC DPO Social Work & Criminology Mock 1 with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
3.1Forms of crime: white-collar, economic, corruption, organised, cyber and terror crimesNotes
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): White-collar crimes such as hoarding, smuggling, black-marketing, monopolies,- etc. have virtually paralysed India's economic stability
Reason (R): the problem of crime has assumed new dimensions and needs to be tackled effectively.
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Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Both statements are true. APPSC keyed 'both correct' without saying R explains A.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q26, final key
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The United Nations Convention Against Corruption entered into force from:
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Answer C. 14th December 2005
UNCAC was adopted on 31 October 2003, opened for signing on 9 December 2003 (Anti-Corruption Day), and entered into force on 14 December 2005.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q31, final key
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"Economic offences are often subtle murders practiced on the community, sabotaging the national economy. They have to be tackled with a new seriousness." This statement was given by?
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Answer B. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer called economic offences subtle murders on the community that sabotage the national economy.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q38, final key
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Which among the following is an economic offence?
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Answer D. Trade in human body parts
Robbery, theft and extortion are ordinary property offences under the IPC; illegal trade in human organs is an organised economic offence.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q39, final key
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In a crime like ‘terrorist financing’ the funds may stem from-
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Answer C. Both legal and Illegal sources
Terrorist financing can use legal sources (donations, business income) as well as illegal ones (drugs, extortion).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q50, final key
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Phishing attack is a form of:
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Answer A. Cyber crime
Phishing uses fake emails or websites to steal credentials, so it is classified as a cyber crime.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q54, final key
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Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 defines corrupt practices in relation to elections?
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Answer B. Section 123
Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 lists corrupt practices such as bribery and undue influence.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q61, final key
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The committee which submitted the Report on Prevention of Corruption?
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Answer B. Santhanam Committee
The Santhanam Committee (1962-64) reported on prevention of corruption and led to the Central Vigilance Commission.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q62, final key
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The term used to denote the use of criminal law to penalize alleged, perceived or potential HIV exposure is called:
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Answer B. HIV criminalization
Using criminal law against alleged, perceived or potential HIV exposure or transmission is called HIV criminalisation.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q70, final key
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Which one of the following pairs of a section of the IT Act, 2000 and the offence is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer B. Section 67 – Cyber terrorism
Section 67 punishes publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form. Cyber terrorism is Section 66F.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Consider the following statements about the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002:
1. 'Proceeds of crime' are property derived from criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence.
2. The Supreme Court upheld its key provisions in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India (2022).
3. The Act came into force on the day it received assent in 2003.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Act was enacted in 2002 (assent January 2003) but came into force only on 1 July 2005.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which one of the following Act–year pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Whistle Blowers Protection Act – 2011
The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was passed and received assent in 2014. The other pairs are correct.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Consider the following statements about the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019:
1. It lets the Central Government designate individuals as terrorists.
2. It allows NIA officers of the rank of Inspector and above to investigate UAPA cases.
3. It abolished the National Investigation Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. 1 and 2 only
The 2019 amendment added the power to list individuals (Fourth Schedule) and let NIA officers of Inspector rank investigate. The NIA was not abolished; its powers were widened the same year.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Cyber crimes are harder to investigate than many conventional crimes.
Reason (R): The offender may act from another country, and digital evidence can be altered or erased quickly.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are correct. Cross-border reach and the volatility of digital evidence are the main reasons cyber crimes are hard to detect, investigate and prosecute.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under Section 4 of the PMLA, 2002, money laundering not linked to NDPS Act offences is punishable with rigorous imprisonment of:
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Answer D. 3 to 7 years
Section 4 prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than 3 years, extendable to 7 years, and fine; the maximum is 10 years where the proceeds relate to NDPS Act offences.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In which year did Edwin Sutherland first present the concept of white-collar crime, in his presidential address to the American Sociological Society?
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Answer C. 1939
Sutherland's presidential address 'White-Collar Criminality' was delivered in December 1939; his book White Collar Crime followed in 1949.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Who introduced the term 'white-collar crime' into criminology?
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Answer A. Edwin H. Sutherland
Edwin Sutherland coined 'white-collar crime' in his 1939 address to the American Sociological Society and developed it in the book White Collar Crime (1949).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which act was made a specific offence by the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018?
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Answer C. Giving a bribe to a public servant
New Section 8 makes giving or promising an undue advantage to a public servant an offence; Section 9 makes commercial organisations liable for bribes given on their behalf.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Who distinguished 'occupational crime' (committed by individuals for themselves) from 'corporate crime' (committed for the corporation)?
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Answer A. Marshall Clinard and Richard Quinney
Clinard and Quinney, in their typology of criminal behaviour systems, split white-collar crime into occupational crime and corporate crime.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
3.1Crime in India: patterns and trends, crimes against women and children, agencies and victimologyNotes
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Lie Detector test or Polygraph test is an aid to:
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Answer A. Investigative process
A polygraph records body responses during questioning; it is a tool for investigation (consent is needed: Selvi v State of Karnataka, 2010).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q35, final key
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The provisions relating to the Victim compensation scheme has been inserted in:
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Answer A. Code of Criminal Procedure 1972
Section 357A (victim compensation scheme) was inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure in 2009. The Code is of 1973; the option says 1972.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q37, final key
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Restitution to a victim of crime used to be paid by:
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Answer B. Offender
Restitution means the offender pays back or makes good the victim's loss. Compensation from public funds is paid by the state.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q40, final key
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The recent criminal law amendment in year 2013 took place after which case?
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Answer D. Nirbhaya Gang Rape case
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013 followed the December 2012 Delhi gang rape (Nirbhaya) and the Justice Verma Committee report.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q45, final key
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Incest Rape is a crime which is related to:
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Answer B. Rape committed by the blood relation like father, brother etc.
Incest is sexual intercourse between close blood relatives, such as father or brother.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q47, final key
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NCRB stands for?
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Answer A. National Crime Record Bureau
NCRB is the National Crime Records Bureau (1986), which publishes 'Crime in India'.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q48, final key
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The headquarter of National Crime Records Bureau is located in:
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Answer A. New Delhi
NCRB, set up in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is headquartered in New Delhi.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q59, final key
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A rise in the number of crimes recorded by the NCRB always shows that the actual amount of crime in society has increased.
Reason (R): Recorded crime depends also on how willing people are to report and how readily the police register cases, for example through e-FIR and Zero FIR.
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Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Recorded crime is only the crime that is reported and registered. Easier registration and more awareness can raise the figures even if actual crime has not grown, so A is false and R is true.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A police officer who does not record the information given to him about an acid attack or rape is himself liable to punishment.
Reason (R): The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 added Section 166A to the IPC to punish a public servant who fails to record such information.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
IPC 166A(c), added in 2013 (now BNS 199(c)), punishes a public servant who fails to record information about offences such as acid attack, assault on women, trafficking and rape, with six months to two years' imprisonment and fine.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Match the following institutions with their headquarters:
List – I List – II a. INTERPOL 1. Ghaziabad b. National Forensic Sciences University 2. Lyon c. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy 3. Hyderabad d. CBI Academy 4. Gandhinagar Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
INTERPOL is headquartered in Lyon (France); NFSU in Gandhinagar (Gujarat); the SVP National Police Academy, which trains IPS officers, in Hyderabad; and the CBI Academy in Ghaziabad (Uttar Pradesh).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which one of the following is NOT one of the three elements of Cohen and Felson's routine activity theory?
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Answer D. Weak social bonds
Routine activity theory (1979) says crime happens when a motivated offender and a suitable target meet in the absence of a capable guardian, in the course of daily routines.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into force on:
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Answer B. 1 July 2024
The BNS replaced the IPC 1860, the BNSS replaced the CrPC 1973 and the BSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872, all from 1 July 2024.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid (IPC 326A, added in 2013) is now dealt with under which section of the BNS?
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Answer D. Section 124
IPC 326A (acid attack) and 326B (attempt to throw acid) are now BNS 124(1) and 124(2). Punishment under 124(1) is at least ten years, extendable to life, with fine paid to the victim.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was set up under an Act passed in which year, after the Mumbai terror attacks of November 2008?
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Answer D. 2008
The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 created a central agency, under the Ministry of Home Affairs with headquarters in New Delhi, to investigate terror and other scheduled offences.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In which case did the Supreme Court (1995) direct the setting up of a Criminal Injuries Compensation Board to compensate rape victims?
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Answer A. Delhi Domestic Working Women's Forum v. Union of India
In Delhi Domestic Working Women's Forum (1995) the Court called for legal help for rape victims, anonymity, and a Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ideas later reflected in Section 357A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Section 357A of the CrPC, which required every State to frame a victim compensation scheme, was inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act of:
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Answer C. 2008
The 2008 amendment added Section 357A (victim compensation scheme) and a definition of 'victim'. The 2013 amendment added 357B (compensation in addition to fine for acid attack) and 357C (free treatment of victims).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Disclosing the identity of a victim of rape (old IPC Section 228A) is an offence under which section of the BNS?
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Answer A. Section 72
BNS 72 (old IPC 228A) bars printing or publishing the name or any matter that may reveal the identity of a rape victim, with up to two years' imprisonment.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
3.2Punishment: definition, nature and theories; corporal and capital punishment, sentencing and pardonNotes
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Among the following which country awards death penalty to offenders by lethal injunction?
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Answer B. United States of America
The United States carries out executions by lethal injection ('injunction' in the question is a misprint). Germany, Brazil (for peacetime crimes) and Ukraine have abolished the death penalty.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q42, final key
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Which country among the following does not have capital punishment?
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Answer A. United Kingdom
The United Kingdom abolished the death penalty (fully by 1998); the USA, India and China retain it.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q64, final key
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“Punishment is inflicted by the group in its corporate capacity upon one who is regarded as the member of the same group” – who defined it?
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Answer B. Sutherland
This definition of punishment, as suffering inflicted by a group in its corporate capacity on its own member, is from Sutherland (and Cressey).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q66, final key
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The Supreme court of India in which case opined that the extreme sentence of death should not be inflicted save in the ‘rarest of rare’ cases when alternative option is unquestionably foreclosed?
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Answer B. Bacchan Singh Vs State of Punjab
Bachan Singh v State of Punjab (1980) upheld the death penalty but limited it to the 'rarest of rare' cases.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q69, final key
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Proponents of this Theory of punishment argue that for this punitive model to work, it is necessary that the punishment suffered by the offender must be equivalent to the pain of the victim who has suffered the consequences of offender’s wrongful actions.
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Answer C. Retributive Theory
Retributive theory demands that the punishment be proportionate to the harm caused ('eye for an eye').
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q71, final key
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In what kind of sentencing, a judge makes a discretionary decision as to what the maximum and minimum sentences should be for each convicted offender?
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Answer C. Indeterminate sentencing
In indeterminate sentencing the judge sets a minimum and maximum term and the release date is decided later, often by a parole board.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q73, final key
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Under which theory, severe punishments are inflicted upon the offender so that he abstains from committing a crime in future and it would also be a lesson to the other members of the society, as to what can be the consequences of committing a crime?
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Answer C. Deterrent theory
Deterrent theory uses severe punishment to stop the offender from repeating the crime and to warn others in society.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q114, final key
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In which case the Supreme Court expressed its reservation on mercy petitions by persons convicted under TADA and other similar statutes and said that they stand on a different footing than the petitions filed by persons convicted under general law?
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Answer D. Devender Pal Singh Bhullar & Anr. Vs State of NCT of Delhi
In Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT of Delhi), 2013, the Supreme Court said delay in deciding mercy petitions of TADA-type terror convicts stands on a different footing from that of ordinary convicts; Shatrughan Chauhan (2014) later overruled this.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q116, final key
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Article 161 of the Constitution of India states provisions related to -
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Answer B. Pardoning power of the Governor of a State
Article 161 gives the Governor power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions and to suspend, remit or commute sentences for offences against State laws.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q130, final key
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Power exercised by the President of India to grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India is?
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Answer A. Executive power
The pardoning power in Article 72 is an executive power, exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Maru Ram, 1980; Kehar Singh, 1989).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q131, final key
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In which case the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India held that for the purpose of calculation of the total period of imprisonment under the law, the period of imprisonment for life should be taken to equivalent to the period of imprisonment for 20 years?
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Answer A. Laxman Naskar Vs State of West Bengal
In Laxman Naskar v. State of West Bengal (2000) the Supreme Court accepted that, for remission under State rules, life imprisonment is reckoned as 20 years; it does not mean a lifer must be released after 20 years.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q132, final key
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Arrange the following Supreme Court decisions on the death penalty in chronological order:
1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
2. Jagmohan Singh v. State of U.P.
3. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India
4. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
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Answer A. 2, 1, 4, 3
Jagmohan Singh (1973), Bachan Singh (1980), Machhi Singh (1983), Shatrughan Chauhan (2014).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The retributive theory looks backward to the offence already committed.
Reason (R): The retributive theory justifies punishment mainly by its power to deter other people in future.
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Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is true: retribution responds to the past wrong. (R) is false: deterring others in future is the deterrent theory's justification.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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H. L. A. Hart listed the standard elements of legal punishment. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Answer B. It must be imposed by the victim personally
Hart's elements: unpleasant consequences, for an offence against legal rules, on an actual or supposed offender, intentionally administered by persons other than the offender, and imposed by an authority of the legal system. Private revenge by the victim is excluded.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): In India, life imprisonment is the rule and the death sentence the exception for murder.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court in Bachan Singh held that death should be imposed only in the rarest of rare cases, when the alternative is unquestionably foreclosed.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both are true, and Bachan Singh's rarest-of-rare doctrine is why life imprisonment is the normal sentence for murder.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Beccaria and Bentham, the main thinkers of the classical school, justified punishment chiefly on the ground of:
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Answer D. Deterrence of future crime
Both held that punishment is justified only so far as it prevents future crime; pain should just outweigh the pleasure of the offence.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Probation, parole, open prisons and vocational training in prisons are practical applications of which theory of punishment?
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Answer A. Reformative theory
These measures aim at rehabilitation and the return of the offender to society, which is the reformative aim.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the twenty-year equivalence of life imprisonment in Section 57 IPC is only for calculating fractions of punishment and does not mean a life convict is automatically released after twenty years?
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Answer D. Laxman Naskar v. Union of India
In Laxman Naskar (2000) the Court held that Section 57 is for computing fractions; a life sentence lasts for the convict's natural life unless remitted or commuted.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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A death sentence passed by a Court of Session cannot be executed unless it is:
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Answer D. Confirmed by the High Court
Section 366 CrPC (now BNSS 407) requires the Sessions Court to submit the proceedings to the High Court, and the sentence is not executed until confirmed.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under Section 235(2) of the CrPC (now Section 258(2) of the BNSS), after convicting the accused, the Sessions Judge must:
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Answer C. Hear the accused on the question of sentence
Section 235(2) CrPC, now Section 258(2) BNSS, requires a separate hearing of the accused on sentence after conviction.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In T. V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu (1983), the Supreme Court held that a delay of more than how long in executing a death sentence entitles the convict to commutation, a rule later overruled?
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Answer C. Two years
Vatheeswaran fixed two years; Sher Singh (1983) and the Constitution Bench in Triveniben (1989) rejected any fixed period.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
3.2Prisons in India and the prison as a communityNotes
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What is the main law dealing with prisons in India?
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Answer B. The Prisons Act 1894
The main law on prisons in India is the Prisons Act 1894 (with the Model Prisons Act 2023 offered to states).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q49, final key
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According to Section 59 (25) of the Prisons Act of 1894, who are appointed as Prison Visitors are called -
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Answer A. Official and Non Official visitors
Rules under Section 59(25) of the Prisons Act, 1894 provide for appointment of both official and non-official visitors to prisons.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q77, final key
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Which among the following is the first legislation related to prisons regulation in India?
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Answer B. Prisons Act 1894
The Prisons Act, 1894 is the first comprehensive law regulating prisons in India and is still in force.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q79, final key
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The term ‘Prison’ has been defined under which section of The Prisons Act 1894?
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Answer C. Section 3 (1)
Section 3(1) of the Prisons Act, 1894 defines 'prison'.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q80, final key
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NPIP stands for:
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Answer B. National Prisons Information Portal
NPIP is the National Prisons Information Portal, run with e-Prisons to give information on prisons and inmates.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q82, final key
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The subject matters relating to the establishment of prisons and allied matters comes under the legislative domain of the States under which list of the Constitution of India?
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Answer B. List II of the seventh schedule
'Prisons, reformatories, borstal institutions' are Entry 4 of List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q89, final key
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Who among the following philosophers opined the prison system called ‘Panoptican’ as a social control mechanism?
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Answer B. Sir Jeremy Bentham
Jeremy Bentham designed the Panopticon, a prison where one watcher can see all inmates.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q90, final key
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The recently formulated Model Prison Manual, 2016 is an initiative by:
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Answer C. The Ministry of Home Affairs
The Model Prison Manual 2016 was prepared by the Ministry of Home Affairs (with BPR&D) and sent to States and UTs as a guide.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q128, final key
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The Model Prison Manual 2016 has prescribed the objective and detailed procedure for the pre-mature release of prisoners to:
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Answer C. The States and Union Territories
Prisons are a State subject, so the Model Prison Manual 2016 lays down premature release procedure for adoption by all States and Union Territories.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q129, final key
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Match List I (author) with List II (work on prisons and institutions):
List I
a. Donald Clemmer
b. Gresham Sykes
c. Erving Goffman
d. Michel Foucault
List II
1. Asylums
2. Discipline and Punish
3. The Prison Community
4. The Society of Captives
Select the correct answer:
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Answer A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Clemmer, The Prison Community (1940); Sykes, The Society of Captives (1958); Goffman, Asylums (1961); Foucault, Discipline and Punish (1975).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Arrange the following laws on prisons in chronological order:
1. Transfer of Prisoners Act
2. Prisons Act
3. Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act
4. Prisoners Act
Select the correct order:
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Answer A. 2, 4, 1, 3
Prisons Act 1894, Prisoners Act 1900, Transfer of Prisoners Act 1950, Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act 2023.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Assertion (A): Clemmer held that a prisoner with a long sentence who joins close-knit inmate groups becomes more deeply prisonized.
Reason (R): Deep prisonization makes it harder for a prisoner to adjust to free society after release.
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Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Clemmer listed factors that raise prisonization: a long sentence, an unstable personality, few outside contacts and membership of inmate primary groups. R states a consequence of prisonization, not the cause of its degree, so it does not explain A.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Section 27 of the Prisons Act 1894 requires certain classes of prisoners to be kept apart. Which of the following separations is NOT required by it?
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Answer C. Prisoners of one religion from those of another
Section 27 requires separation of women from men, of male prisoners under 21 from other prisoners (and, among them, those who have reached puberty from those who have not), of unconvicted from convicted criminal prisoners, and of civil from criminal prisoners. It does not segregate prisoners by religion.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In the inmate argot described by Gresham Sykes, a 'rat' is an inmate who:
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Answer A. Betrays fellow inmates by informing to the prison staff
Sykes's argot roles include the rat (informer), the center man (sides with officials), the gorilla (takes by force), the merchant (trades goods) and the real man (keeps the code).
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, a first-time offender who has been in detention as an undertrial for up to what part of the maximum sentence for the offence shall be released on bond by the court?
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Answer B. One-third
BNSS s.479 (replacing CrPC s.436A) keeps the one-half rule for undertrials generally but reduces it to one-third for first-time offenders. It does not apply to offences punishable with death or life imprisonment, and the jail superintendent must move the court.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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A 'detenu' in prison statistics means a person who is:
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Answer A. Held under a preventive detention law without being convicted of an offence
A detenu is held under a preventive detention law (for example the National Security Act 1980 or a State goondas Act) to prevent a feared act, not as punishment after trial.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The prison system in which inmates worked together in silence by day and slept in separate cells at night is known as the:
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Answer B. Auburn system
The Auburn (silent or congregate) system of New York had congregate work in silence by day and separate cells at night. The Pennsylvania (separate) system kept prisoners alone in their cells day and night.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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The Transfer of Prisoners Act 1950 provides for:
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Answer B. The removal of prisoners from one State to another
The Transfer of Prisoners Act 1950 lets prisoners be removed from a prison in one State to a prison in another with the consent of both governments. Transfer of foreign prisoners is under the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 2003.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
3.2Prison programmes and reforms: committees, prisoners' rights and international standardsNotes
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The famous case related directions given to Prison authorities and police on providing legal aid to the poor prisoners.
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Answer C. Sheela Barse Vs Union of India
Sheela Barse cases (1983 and 1986) led to Supreme Court directions to police and jail authorities on legal aid and protection of prisoners; the key names Sheela Barse.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q65, final key
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Which Committee for the very first time recommended the principle of reformation and rehabilitation of offenders?
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Answer D. Indian Jails Committee (1919-1920)
The Indian Jails Committee 1919-20 was the first to state that reformation and rehabilitation of offenders should be objects of prison administration.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q67, final key
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National Committee on Women Prisoners was appointed under the authority of _____.
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Answer A. Justice V R Krishna Iyer
The National Expert Committee on Women Prisoners (1986-87) was chaired by Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q78, final key
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In which case the Supreme Court has emphasized upon reducing overcrowding in prison and upon giving proper medical care to the prisoners?
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Answer C. Rama Murthy Vs State of Karnataka
In Rama Murthy v State of Karnataka (1997) the Supreme Court listed prison problems including overcrowding and poor medical care and gave directions.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q84, final key
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In case the rights available to prisoners under the constitution are violated by the State or its authorities the prisoner can avail the remedies by approaching the Supreme or High Court under:
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Answer A. Article 32 of the Constitution of India
Article 32 lets a person move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 226 for High Courts).
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q85, final key
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Prison Discipline Committee in year 1836 was appointed in year by -
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Answer A. Lord Macauley
The Prison Discipline Committee (1836-38) was set up on the initiative of Lord Macaulay.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q86, final key
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The Report of the All India Committee on Jail Reforms, 1980-83 is also called as:
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Answer D. Mulla Committee
The All India Committee on Jail Reforms (1980-83) was chaired by Justice A.N. Mulla, so its report is called the Mulla Committee report.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q126, final key
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Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners is also known as:
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Answer C. Nelson Mandela Rules
The revised UN Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners (2015) are called the Nelson Mandela Rules.
Source: APPSC DPO 2023 SW & Criminology (Notification 11/2022), Q133, final key
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Select the correct answer regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The Mulla Committee recommended that the subject 'Prisons' be placed in the Concurrent List.
Reason (R): 'Prisons' is an entry in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
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Answer C. (A) is true but (R) is false
The Mulla Committee did recommend moving prisons to the Concurrent List. Prisons are at present in the State List (List II, Entry 4), not the Union List, so R is false.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Consider the following statements about remedies available to prisoners:
1. A prisoner can approach a High Court under Article 226 for the enforcement of legal rights as well as fundamental rights.
2. The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 is itself a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both 1 and 2
Article 226 lets a High Court issue writs for fundamental rights 'and for any other purpose', so it is wider than Article 32. Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, is itself in Part III and so is a fundamental right.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Match List I (committee) with List II (period):
List I
a. Prison Discipline Committee
b. Indian Jails Committee
c. All India Jail Manual Committee
d. All India Committee on Jail Reforms
List II
1. 1980–83
2. 1957–59
3. 1836
4. 1919–20
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Answer C. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Prison Discipline Committee (Macaulay) 1836; Indian Jails Committee (Cardew) 1919–20; All India Jail Manual Committee 1957–59; All India Committee on Jail Reforms (Mulla) 1980–83.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Select the correct answer regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): A convicted prisoner loses all his fundamental rights while serving the sentence.
Reason (R): Article 21 says no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
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Answer D. (A) is false but (R) is true
D. Bhuvan Mohan Patnaik (1974) and Sunil Batra (1978) held that a prisoner keeps the fundamental rights that are not inconsistent with lawful imprisonment. R correctly states Article 21.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which international instrument states that the penitentiary system shall include treatment of prisoners whose essential aim is their reformation and social rehabilitation?
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Answer A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966
Article 10 of the ICCPR requires that persons deprived of liberty be treated with humanity and dignity; Article 10(3) says the essential aim of the penitentiary system shall be reformation and social rehabilitation. India acceded to the ICCPR in 1979.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Which one of the following is a correctional (treatment) programme rather than a custodial measure?
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Answer B. Vocational training in trades such as tailoring, carpentry or weaving
Correctional programmes aim at reform: education, vocational training, productive work with wages, counselling, recreation, religious and moral instruction, and aftercare. Counting, searches and walls are custodial measures.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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Large-scale Vipassana meditation courses for prisoners were introduced at Tihar Jail in the mid-1990s when the Inspector General of Prisons was:
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Answer A. Kiran Bedi
As Inspector General of Prisons at Tihar (1993–95), Kiran Bedi introduced reforms such as Vipassana meditation, education, panchayats and community involvement; she received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1994.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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A 'prison panchayat' as a correctional practice refers to:
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Answer C. elected committees of inmates that share in running welfare activities such as food, sanitation and recreation
Prison panchayats are a form of inmate self-government: elected prisoners help manage food, cleanliness, recreation and discipline. They build responsibility and are encouraged in reformative prison practice.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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In 2018 the Supreme Court constituted a committee to examine prison reforms, including overcrowding and the shortage of staff. It was headed by:
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Answer D. Justice Amitava Roy
While hearing the Re Inhuman Conditions in 1382 Prisons matter, the Supreme Court in September 2018 set up a committee headed by former Supreme Court judge Amitava Roy to examine problems in prisons and suggest reforms.
Source: Medha AI, based on the APPSC District Probation Officer Paper II (Social Work & Criminology) syllabus (12/2026)
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