Free mock test · APPSC Paper I
APPSC Paper I Mock 1 with answers
- 150 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
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Topics in this test (10)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the fifth BRICS Working Group meeting on Geospatial Technologies held in India in 2026:
I. It was organised under the aegis of the Department of Science and Technology.
II. It was held in hybrid mode.
III. Its theme was 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are true: DST aegis, hybrid mode, and the RICS theme.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'IIT-Tirupati Hosts 5th BRICS Working Group Meeting on Geospatial Technologies' (source: The Hindu)
- Q2 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the Sabarimala case, whose reference a larger Supreme Court Bench began hearing in April 2026:
I. In 2018 a Constitution Bench, by a 4:1 majority, held that excluding women of menstruating age from the temple was unconstitutional.
II. Justice Indu Malhotra wrote the dissent in the 2018 judgment.
III. Before the nine-judge Bench in 2026, the Union government supported the 2018 verdict and opposed the review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct: the 2018 verdict was 4:1 and Justice Indu Malhotra dissented. Statement III is wrong: the Union, through Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, told the Court that it backs the review petitions against the 2018 verdict. Source: https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/supreme-court-9-judge-bench-to-hear-sabarimala-reference-from-april-7
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (April 2026)
- Q3 Current Events
While Andhra Pradesh signed an MoU with IFMR (Krea University) in June 2026 for the Swarna Andhra 2047 Vision, the Chief Minister noted that the State had recorded a compound annual growth rate of about how much during 2014–19?
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Answer C. 13.5%
The CM said the State achieved a compound annual growth rate of 13.5% during 2014–19; the present growth rate is around 11%, and the Vision targets 15% a year. Source: https://deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/cm-moots-15-per-cent-growth-rate-for-ap-under-swarna-andhra-vision-2047-1965494
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (June 2026)
- Q4 Current Events
Consider the following statements about Alluri Sitarama Raju, recalled on his 129th birth anniversary in 2026:
I. The Rampa Rebellion led by him took place between 1922 and 1924.
II. He was captured and killed by British forces at Koyyuru on 7 May 1924.
III. The Madras Forest Act, 1882 had restricted the access of tribal people to forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I, II and III
All three are true.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Alluri Sitarama Raju: 129th Birth Anniversary' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q5 Current Events
Which body facilitates and authorises private-sector space activities in India, including missions such as Skyroot's Vikram-I?
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Answer B. IN-SPACe
IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) authorises private space activities.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Vikram-I Stacked at Sriharikota' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q6 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the International Day of Yoga observed on 21 June 2026: I. It was the 12th International Day of Yoga. II. The Day was proclaimed by a UN General Assembly resolution adopted in December 2014. III. The first International Day of Yoga was observed in 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 21 June as the International Day of Yoga by a resolution of 11 December 2014; the first Day was observed in 2015, so the 2026 observance was the 12th. Source: https://www.un.org/en/observances/yoga-day ; https://newsonair.gov.in/theme-of-iyd-2026-is-yoga-for-healthy-ageing-pm-modi-will-lead-main-event-in-kolkata/
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (June 2026)
- Q7 Current Events
Under which model will the Amended BharatNet Programme be implemented in Andhra Pradesh, as per the May 2026 agreement?
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Answer A. State-led model, through Andhra Pradesh BharatNet Infrastructure Limited (APBIL)
The Amended BharatNet Programme in Andhra Pradesh follows the State-led model and is implemented through APBIL.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Implementation of Amended Bharat Net Programme (ABP) in Andhra Pradesh (PIB)
- Q8 Current Events
Which one of the following about the 'Andhra Model of Education' announced in 2026 is NOT correct?
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Answer C. It aims to raise government school enrolment by at least 25%.
The model aims to raise government school enrolment by at least 10% (not 25%) along with 100% enrolment; Chromebooks for Class IX, statewide smart kitchens and the Nidamarru international school are part of it.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Andhra Model of Education: 100% School Enrolment Goal (The Hindu)
- Q9 Current Events
The ₹133.11-crore project of the Union Fisheries Ministry to open and stabilise the Rayadoruvu sea mouth of Pulicat Lake (in the news in September 2026) followed representations by which Tirupati MP?
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Answer A. Maddila Gurumoorthy
Tirupati MP Maddila Gurumoorthy is credited with prompting the Rayadoruvu sea-mouth project, which is expected to bring in seawater and marine species, replenish fish stocks and ease conflict between fishers of the two States. Source: https://www.dtnext.in/news/tamilnadu/tn-ap-fishermen-agree-on-gps-based-demarcation-to-end-pulicat-lake-fishing-feud
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (September 2026)
- Q10 Current Events
Consider the following statements about India's first indigenous Super Pressure Balloon (2026):
I. It is filled with hydrogen.
II. It can carry a payload of up to 500 kg.
III. It was developed by Red Balloon Aerospace under Mission SANA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. The hydrogen-filled balloon was built by Red Balloon Aerospace under Mission SANA; its payload is up to 50 kg, not 500 kg.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: India's First Indigenous Super Pressure Balloon Launched from Vijayawada (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q11 Current Events
In May 2026, Andhra Pradesh minister Nara Lokesh met Gloria Wu in Singapore to propose a pilot digital trade corridor. She is the CEO of which organisation?
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Answer C. Singapore Commodities Intelligence Centre (CIC)
Gloria Wu is the CEO of the Singapore Commodities Intelligence Centre (CIC), whose blockchain platform was proposed for the trade corridor.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Andhra Pradesh-Singapore Cooperation: Digital Trade Corridor, Amaravati Economic Region and MICE Vision (The Hindu)
- Q12 Current Events
Consider the following statements about the Vande Mataram Coastal Cyclothon-2026, launched in January 2026:
I. It is organised by the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF).
II. It marks 150 years of the national song 'Vande Mataram', written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
III. It covered only the eastern coast, from West Bengal to Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
CISF launched the cyclothon on 28 January 2026 under the theme 'Surakshit Tat, Samridh Bharat' (Secure Coasts, Prosperous India) to mark 150 years of 'Vande Mataram' and raise coastal-security awareness among fishing communities. Riders covered about 6,500 km along both the east and west coasts, passing Srikakulam to Sullurpeta in Andhra Pradesh, and finished at Kochi on 22 February. So III is wrong. Source: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/central-industrial-security-force-organises-vande-mataram-coastal-cyclothon-2026/
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (January 2026)
- Q13 Current Events
The total proposed ayacut of the Veligonda Project in Andhra Pradesh is approximately:
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Answer D. 4.47 lakh acres
The total ayacut is about 4.47 lakh acres across 30 mandals; of this, the erstwhile Prakasam district gets 3.36 lakh acres.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Veligonda Project' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q14 Current Events
Who announced, during a visit to Tirumala in June 2026, the donation of 25 electric buses by Reliance Foundation for pilgrims?
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Answer D. Anant Ambani
Reliance Executive Director Anant Ambani announced the 25 electric buses (about Rs 27.5 crore); they were flagged off in September 2026.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Tirumala Introduces Digital Pilgrim Centre ... (The Hindu)
- Q15 Current Events
In April 2026, a dispersing male tiger called 'Explorer' was again reported in East Godavari district after crossing the Godavari. From which tiger reserve had it originally dispersed?
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Answer A. Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve
Explorer dispersed from the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve in Chandrapur district, Maharashtra, and travelled more than 650 km into Andhra Pradesh. Source: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/andhra-pradesh/andhra-launch-special-operation-to-explore-royal-bengal-tiger-4100410
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (April 2026)
- Q16 Current Events
Consider the following statements about APEX Korea:
I. APEX stands for Andhra Pradesh External Engagement.
II. It was established by the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC).
III. It was inaugurated by Minister Nara Lokesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I and III only
APEX Korea (Andhra Pradesh External Engagement-Korea) was set up by the AP Economic Development Board, not APIIC, and inaugurated by Nara Lokesh.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'APEX Korea: AP' (source: The Hindu)
- Q17 Current Events
Match the State (List I) with its share in the 2026 regional action plan on human-elephant conflict (List II):
List I
a. Karnataka
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Kerala
d. Andhra Pradesh
List II
I. 17%
II. 20%
III. 25%
IV. 38%
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Karnataka 38%, Tamil Nadu 25%, Kerala 20% and Andhra Pradesh 17% (about Rs 169.98 crore of the Rs 999.87-crore plan).
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Regional Action Plan for Human-Elephant Conflict' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q18 Current Events
While distributing free satellite transponders to fishermen at Singarayakonda in August 2026, the State listed welfare measures for fishing communities, including fisheries development boards at:
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Answer C. Visakhapatnam and Bhimavaram
The measures listed included ₹20,000 aid in the fishing-ban period, pensions from age 50, a modern fish market at Singarayakonda, housing for the local Yanadi community and fisheries development boards at Visakhapatnam and Bhimavaram. Source: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/satellite-transponders-to-boost-fishermens-safety-at-sea-1978427
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (August 2026)
- Q19 Current Events
The Andhra Pradesh State Handbook of Youth Opportunity, which ranked Visakhapatnam first in 2026, was released at GITAM Deemed to be University by:
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Answer D. M. Sribharat
The handbook was released by MP M. Sribharat at GITAM Deemed to be University, Visakhapatnam.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Visakhapatnam Tops Andhra Pradesh's YouthPOWER Rankings (The Hindu)
- Q20 Current Events
In February 2026, APSCHE reported large-scale quantum training in Andhra Pradesh linked to the Amaravati Quantum Valley. The Quantum Valley Tech Park at Amaravati is to be anchored by an IBM Quantum System Two built on which IBM processor?
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Answer D. Heron
IBM, TCS and the Andhra Pradesh government plan India's largest quantum computer at the Amaravati Quantum Valley Tech Park: an IBM Quantum System Two with a 156-qubit Heron processor. Sycamore is Google's processor; Eagle and Condor are other IBM processors. Source: https://newsroom.ibm.com/2025-05-02-ibm,-tata-consultancy-services-and-government-of-andhra-pradesh-unveil-plans-to-deploy-indias-largest-quantum-computer-in-the-countrys-first-quantum-valley-tech-park
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (February 2026)
- Q21 Current Events
In August 2026, a Project Elephant report with a regional action plan on human-elephant conflict was released in Visakhapatnam on World Elephant Day. World Elephant Day is observed every year on:
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Answer A. 12 August
World Elephant Day is observed on 12 August. On that occasion in 2026 the report was released in Visakhapatnam by AP Deputy Chief Minister K. Pawan Kalyan and Union Minister of State Kirti Vardhan Singh. Source: https://www.wii.gov.in/news/human_elephant_conflict_reports
Source: Medha AI, based on KP's 21st Century IAS Academy current affairs digest (August 2026)
- Q22 General Science & Technology
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Waves used by bats to navigate - Infrasound
Bats emit and detect ultrasonic waves (above 20 kHz) to locate obstacles and prey, not infrasound.
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science, Sound
- Q23 General Science & Technology
Consider the following statements about artificial sweeteners:
1. The use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and soft drinks because it is unstable at cooking temperature.
2. Sucralose is stable at cooking temperature.
3. Saccharin is less sweet than cane sugar.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer A. 1 and 2 only
Aspartame breaks down on heating, so it is used in cold foods and drinks; sucralose is stable at cooking temperature. Saccharin is about 550 times sweeter than cane sugar, so statement 3 is wrong.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Chemistry ch.16 (Chemistry in Everyday Life)
- Q24 General Science & Technology
Match List I (Organism) with List II (Kingdom):
List I:
- A. Amoeba
- B. Yeast
- C. Nostoc (cyanobacterium)
- D. Fern
List II:
- 1. Monera
- 2. Protista
- 3. Fungi
- 4. Plantae
Select the correct answer:
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Answer D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Amoeba is a unicellular eukaryote (Protista), yeast is a fungus, cyanobacteria such as Nostoc are prokaryotes (Monera), and ferns are plants.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Biology, Biological Classification
- Q25 General Science & Technology
Match List I (mission) with List II (launch vehicle):
List I
a. Chandrayaan-1
b. Chandrayaan-3
c. Aditya-L1
d. Mangalyaan
List II
I. LVM3-M4
II. PSLV-C25
III. PSLV-C11
IV. PSLV-C57
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Chandrayaan-1 flew on PSLV-C11, Chandrayaan-3 on LVM3-M4, Aditya-L1 on PSLV-C57 and Mangalyaan on PSLV-C25.
Source: ISRO mission pages
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Start free - Q26 General Science & Technology
Assertion (A): Heavy industries and thermal power stations are usually located on or near coalfields.
Reason (R): Coal is a bulky material that loses weight on use as it is reduced to ash.
Choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: since coal is bulky and weight-losing, it is cheaper to set up plants near the coalfields.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.64
- Q27 General Science & Technology
Match the following diseases with their vector or carrier:
List I
a. Malaria
b. Dengue
c. Kala-azar
d. Amoebiasis
List II
I. Sandfly
II. Housefly (mechanical carrier)
III. Female Anopheles mosquito
IV. Female Aedes mosquito
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Malaria is spread by female Anopheles, dengue by female Aedes, kala-azar by sandflies, and houseflies carry the amoebiasis parasite to food.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.143; NCERT Class 8 Science (old) p.37; NCERT Class 11 Biology p.56; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.144
- Q28 General Science & Technology
Match the following with the person associated with them:
List I
a. World Wide Web
b. Linux operating system kernel
c. First network e-mail using '@'
d. Analytical Engine
List II
I. Charles Babbage
II. Ray Tomlinson
III. Tim Berners-Lee
IV. Linus Torvalds
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Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Tim Berners-Lee invented the WWW, Linus Torvalds created Linux, Ray Tomlinson sent the first network e-mail with '@', and Charles Babbage designed the Analytical Engine.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Fundamentals of Human Geography p.78
- Q29 General Science & Technology
Consider the following statements about a rainbow:
1. A rainbow is seen in the part of the sky opposite to the Sun.
2. It is formed by dispersion, refraction and internal reflection of sunlight in raindrops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both 1 and 2
Raindrops act like tiny prisms: sunlight is refracted and dispersed on entering, reflected inside and refracted again on leaving, and the bow is seen with the Sun behind the observer.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Science, The Human Eye and the Colourful World
- Q30 General Science & Technology
LPG has almost no smell of its own, so a strong-smelling compound is added to it so that leaks can be detected. This compound is
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Answer A. Ethyl mercaptan (ethanethiol)
A small amount of ethyl mercaptan, a sulphur compound with a strong unpleasant smell, is added to LPG as an odorant.
Source: Standard chemistry (LPG odorisation, IS 4576)
- Q31 General Science & Technology
The structural and functional unit of the human kidney is the:
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Answer A. Nephron
Each kidney has a large number of nephrons, which filter blood and form urine.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Science, Life Processes
- Q32 History of India & AP
Consider the following statements about the Sudarshana lake in Gujarat:
I. It was built by a local governor during the rule of the Mauryas.
II. The Shaka ruler Rudradaman claimed he repaired it by imposing a special tax on his subjects.
III. A later inscription on the same rock records its repair under a Gupta ruler.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Rudradaman claimed he repaired the lake with his own resources, without imposing any tax.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I, Theme 2
- Q33 History of India & AP
The Bahmani kingdom was founded in 1347 by:
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Answer A. Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah
Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah, also called Hasan Gangu, founded the Bahmani kingdom in 1347 with Gulbarga as capital.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.6 Vijayanagara Empire
- Q34 History of India & AP
Which one of the following did NOT take place during the Governor-Generalship of Lord Ellenborough (1842-44)?
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Answer C. First Anglo-Sikh War
Ellenborough's short tenure saw the end of the First Afghan War (troops withdrawn in 1842), the annexation of Sindh (1843) and the Gwalior war (1843). The First Anglo-Sikh War came under Hardinge I.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.144
- Q35 History of India & AP
Annie Besant started her Home Rule League in September 1916 at:
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Answer C. Madras
Annie Besant's Home Rule League was set up at Madras in September 1916.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.35
- Q36 History of India & AP
Consider the following statements about the Motupalli inscription of Ganapatideva:
I. It assured sea traders that the cargo of ships wrecked on the coast would not be seized.
II. It exempted foreign traders from all taxes.
III. It listed the duties to be paid on different articles of trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. II only
Only II is wrong: the king gave up all but the customary tax, so traders were not exempted from all taxes.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies (2020 ed.), ch.12 The Kakatiyas; AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom
- Q37 History of India & AP
Which one of the following was NOT a police station raided by Alluri Sitarama Raju's rebels in August 1922?
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Answer C. Pedanandipadu
Pedanandipadu in Guntur district was the scene of a no-tax campaign; Chintapalli, Krishnadevipeta and Rajavommangi police stations were raided in August 1922.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, 2025), national movement chapter Q131; Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra Q198
- Q38 History of India & AP
Match List I (Buddhist text) with List II (content):
List I
a. Vinaya Pitaka
b. Sutta Pitaka
c. Abhidhamma Pitaka
d. Mahavamsa
List II
I. Philosophical matters
II. Rules for those who joined the sangha
III. Regional history of Buddhism in Sri Lanka
IV. Teachings of the Buddha
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Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
The Vinaya Pitaka has rules for the sangha, the Sutta Pitaka the Buddha's teachings, the Abhidhamma Pitaka philosophy, and the Mahavamsa is a Sri Lankan chronicle.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I, Theme 4
- Q39 History of India & AP
Consider the following statements about building techniques from the twelfth century:
I. Limestone cement mixed with stone chips hardened into concrete.
II. Arches, domes and limestone mortar were used extensively in buildings after 1190.
III. The trabeate style was introduced into India by the Delhi Sultans.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is wrong: the trabeate (beam and pillar) style was the older indigenous method; the arcuate style of arches and domes was introduced later.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social (old ed.) ch.22; Class 7 Sem-1 ch.4
- Q40 History of India & AP
The British officials who framed the revenue settlement of the Bombay Deccan in the 1820s were influenced by the economist whose theory held that a landowner should get only the 'average rent'. Who was he?
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Answer C. David Ricardo
Officials in the Bombay Deccan were influenced by David Ricardo's idea that the landowner should get only the 'average rent'.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History III, Theme 9 'Colonialism and the Countryside'; Modern India (reference) ch.12
- Q41 History of India & AP
Match List I (Congress session) with List II (President):
List I
a. Benaras, 1905
b. Lahore, 1909
c. Bombay, 1915
d. Amritsar, 1919
List II
I. Motilal Nehru
II. S.P. Sinha
III. Madan Mohan Malaviya
IV. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Benaras 1905 - Gokhale; Lahore 1909 - Malaviya; Bombay 1915 - S.P. Sinha; Amritsar 1919 - Motilal Nehru.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.25; Modern India (reference) p.26; Modern India (reference) p.30
- Q42 History of India & AP
Acharya Nagarjuna, who is said to have lived in the Satavahana period, founded which school of Buddhist philosophy?
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Answer C. Madhyamaka (Sunyavada)
Acharya Nagarjuna founded the Madhyamaka (Sunyavada) school of Mahayana Buddhism.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 (Satavahanas) p.52; Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check)
- Q43 History of India & AP
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
A. Gentlemen's Agreement
B. Report of the States Reorganisation Commission
C. Founding of the Visalandhra Mahasabha
D. Operation Polo in Hyderabad State
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Answer B. D, C, B, A
Operation Polo (1948), Visalandhra Mahasabha (1949), SRC report (1955), Gentlemen's Agreement (1956).
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.261; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.354; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.258
- Q44 History of India & AP
A wall relief in Cave 15 at Ellora shows Vishnu as Narasimha, the man-lion. It is a work of the period of the:
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Answer A. Rashtrakutas
The Narasimha relief in Cave 15 at Ellora belongs to the Rashtrakuta period.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social (old ed.) ch.11 (Fig. 11.1)
- Q45 History of India & AP
Which one of the following pairs of Sufi terms is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Murid - teaching master
A murid is a disciple, not the master; the other pairs are correct.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part II, Theme 6 (Bhakti-Sufi Traditions)
- Q46 History of India & AP
Who founded the Atmiya Sabha in Calcutta, the forerunner of the Brahmo Samaj?
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Answer B. Raja Rammohun Roy
Raja Rammohun Roy founded the Atmiya Sabha, which was the forerunner of the Brahmo Samaj.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.131; Modern India (reference) p.92
- Q47 History of India & AP
In Subhas Chandra Bose's Provisional Government of Free India (1943), who was in charge of the Women's Department and led the Rani Jhansi Regiment?
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Answer C. Lakshmi Swaminathan
Lakshmi Swaminathan headed the Women's Department of the Provisional Government and commanded the Rani Jhansi Regiment of the INA.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.69
- Q48 History of India & AP
Consider the following statements:
I. Kharidika and nivartana in Eastern Chalukya grants were measures of land area.
II. The royal emblem of the Eastern Chalukyas was the varaha (boar).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: kharidika and nivartana measured land area, and the varaha was the dynasty's emblem.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q49 History of India & AP
Which Andhra leader was defeated by Subhas Chandra Bose in the Congress presidential election of 1939 and was described by Gandhi as his own defeat?
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Answer C. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
In the 1939 (Tripuri) election Bose defeated Pattabhi Sitaramayya, Gandhi's candidate, by 1580 votes to 1377.
Source: Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.61
- Q50 History of India & AP
Consider the following statements about the Buddhist sangha:
I. Its internal working followed the traditions of ganas and sanghas, where consensus was reached through discussion and, failing that, by a vote.
II. Bhikkhus and bhikkhunis kept their earlier caste ranks inside the sangha.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. II only
Only statement II is wrong: once within the sangha, all were regarded as equal, having shed their earlier social identities.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes I, ch.4 (p.92)
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Start free - Q51 History of India & AP
Consider the following statements about Delhi before the Sultanate:
I. Dhillika (Delhi) was built by the Tomara Rajputs.
II. The Tomaras were displaced by the Chahamanas (Chauhans) of Ajmer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
The Tomaras built Dhillika; in the mid-12th century they were displaced by the Chauhans of Ajmer, from whom Ghori took Delhi in 1192.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.4 Delhi Sultanate
- Q52 History of India & AP
When the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) Yogam was registered in 1903 with Sree Narayana Guru as its permanent chairman, who became its general secretary?
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Answer B. Kumaran Asan
The SNDP Yogam was registered in 1903 under the Indian Companies Act, with Sree Narayana Guru as permanent chairman and the poet Kumaran Asan as general secretary.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.89
- Q53 Geography of India & AP
Match List I with List II:
List I (Evidence for continental drift)
a. Jig-saw fit
b. Tillite
c. Placer deposits
d. Distribution of fossils
List II (Example)
I. Gold of the Ghana coast derived from the Brazil plateau
II. Mesosaurus found only in South Africa and Brazil
III. Computer fit of the Atlantic margins at the 1,000-fathom line
IV. Gondwana glacial sediments with counterparts in six southern landmasses
Select the correct code:
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Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Bullard's computer fit shows the jig-saw match, tillite of the Gondwana system shows common glaciation, Ghana's placer gold came from Brazil, and Mesosaurus fossils link South Africa and Brazil.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.4
- Q54 Geography of India & AP
Match List I with List II:
List I (Tributary)
a. Gandak
b. Ghaghara
c. Ramganga
d. Son
List II (Joins the Ganga at/near)
I. Sonpur
II. Arrah
III. Chhapra
IV. Kannauj
Select the correct code:
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Answer D. a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
The Gandak joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna, the Ghaghara at Chhapra, the Ramganga near Kannauj and the Son near Arrah.
Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.3 (Drainage System)
- Q55 Geography of India & AP
Match the following traditional Indian seasons with the corresponding Gregorian months:
List I (Season)
a. Vasanta
b. Grishma
c. Sharada
d. Shishira
List II (Months)
I. January-February
II. September-October
III. March-April
IV. May-June
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Vasanta is March-April, Grishma May-June, Sharada September-October and Shishira January-February.
Source: Indian Geography (reference) ch.3 Climate
- Q56 Geography of India & AP
Arrange the following steps in Indian agricultural development in chronological order:
I. Agro-climatic planning initiated by the Planning Commission
II. Intensive Agricultural District Programme launched
III. Policy of liberalisation and free market economy
IV. Introduction of HYV package technology
Select the correct order (earliest first):
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. II, IV, I, III
IADP came first (early 1960s), then HYV package technology (mid-1960s), agro-climatic planning (1988) and liberalisation (1990s).
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.3 Land Resources and Agriculture
- Q57 Geography of India & AP
Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. First airmail flight between Allahabad and Naini
II. Opening of the Bombay-Thane railway line
III. NHAI becomes operational
IV. Drawing up of the Nagpur Plan for roads
Select the correct answer:
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Answer A. II, I, IV, III
Bombay-Thane railway (1853), airmail Allahabad-Naini (1911), Nagpur Plan (1943) and NHAI operational (1995).
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.7 Transport and Communication
- Q58 Geography of India & AP
Consider the following statements about forests of Andhra Pradesh:
I. Moist deciduous forests are found in the agency areas of Srikakulam, Vizianagaram and East Godavari.
II. Dry deciduous forests grow where rainfall is 125-200 cm.
III. Tidal forests occur in the Korangi (Coringa) region of East Godavari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Moist deciduous forests are in the north coastal agency and tidal forests at Korangi; dry deciduous forests get 75-100 cm, not 125-200 cm.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.2 Forests (Forests in Andhra Pradesh) p.60
- Q59 Geography of India & AP
Match the air masses in List I with their source regions in List II:
List I
a. Maritime tropical (mT)
b. Continental tropical (cT)
c. Continental polar (cP)
d. Continental arctic (cA)
List II
I. Subtropical hot deserts
II. Permanently ice-covered continents of the Arctic and Antarctica
III. Warm tropical and subtropical oceans
IV. Very cold snow-covered continents in high latitudes
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Answer B. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
mT forms over warm tropical oceans, cT over subtropical hot deserts, cP over cold snow-covered high-latitude continents and cA over the permanently ice-covered Arctic and Antarctica.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.9 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems
- Q60 Geography of India & AP
Match List I with List II:
List I (Coastal stretch)
a. Konkan
b. Kannad plain
c. Malabar
d. Coromandel
List II (State)
I. Karnataka
II. Tamil Nadu
III. Kerala
IV. Maharashtra
Select the correct code:
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Answer D. a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
Konkan is the Maharashtra coast (Mumbai-Goa), the Kannad plain is the Karnataka coast, Malabar is the Kerala coast and Coromandel is the southern part of the east coast in Tamil Nadu.
Source: AP SCERT Class 9 Geography ch.2 (Physical Features of India)
- Q61 Geography of India & AP
Match the following places with the temperatures given for them in textbook examples:
List I (Place and time)
a. Drass, on a winter night
b. Rajasthan desert, in summer
c. Pahalgam, in summer
d. Thiruvananthapuram, on a winter night
List II (Temperature)
I. About 20 C
II. About 22 C
III. About 50 C
IV. As low as minus 45 C
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Answer B. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Drass may drop to minus 45 C on a winter night, the Rajasthan desert touches 50 C in summer, Pahalgam is about 20 C in summer and Thiruvananthapuram about 22 C on a winter night.
Source: AP SCERT Class 9 Geography ch.4 Climate (NCERT Contemporary India I)
- Q62 Geography of India & AP
Match the place in Andhra Pradesh in List I with the mineral in List II:
List I
a. Nellore belt
b. Mangampeta (erstwhile Kadapa district)
c. Tummalapalle (YSR Kadapa)
d. Wajrakarur (Anantapur)
List II
I. Mica
II. Uranium
III. Diamond
IV. Barytes
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Answer D. a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
Nellore is known for mica, Mangampeta for barytes, Tummalapalle for uranium and Wajrakarur for diamonds.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) ch. Minerals and Mining; NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.5 Mineral and Energy Resources; Indian Geography: Human & Economic (reference) - Minerals, Energy and Industries
- Q63 Geography of India & AP
Consider the following statements about villages in India as per Census 2011:
I. India has 640,867 villages.
II. The size of villages is less than 200 persons in the hill states of north-eastern India, western Rajasthan and the Rann of Kachchh.
III. In Kerala and parts of Maharashtra a village may have as many as 17,000 persons.
IV. Only about 75 per cent of the villages are inhabited.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. IV only
Only statement IV is incorrect. Of India's 640,867 villages, 597,608, that is about 93 per cent, are inhabited.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy ch.1 (Population) and Appendix
- Q64 Geography of India & AP
Consider the following statements:
I. The Handri-Neeva project lifts Krishna water from the Srisailam reservoir to Rayalaseema.
II. The Veligonda project brings Godavari water to western Prakasam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Handri-Neeva lifts Krishna water from Srisailam; Veligonda also draws Krishna water from Srisailam, not Godavari water.
Source: AP irrigation project data
- Q65 Geography of India & AP
Match List I with List II:
List I (Region)
a. Equatorial belt and coastal areas of the monsoon lands
b. Interior continental areas
c. Central parts of tropical lands and eastern and interior parts of temperate lands
d. Rain-shadow zones of continental interiors and high latitudes
List II (Annual precipitation (as given in NCERT))
I. 50-100 cm
II. Less than 50 cm
III. Over 200 cm
IV. 100-200 cm
Select the correct code:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
The equatorial belt and monsoon coasts get over 200 cm; interior continental areas 100-200 cm; central tropical lands and the eastern and interior temperate lands 50-100 cm; rain-shadow interiors and high latitudes less than 50 cm.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.10 (Water in the Atmosphere)
- Q66 Geography of India & AP
Which one of the following gives the correct order of the hill ranges of the Meghalaya plateau from west to east?
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Answer C. Garo - Khasi - Jaintia
From west to east the Meghalaya plateau has the Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills, named after the tribes living there.
Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.2 (Structure and Physiography); AP SCERT Class 9 Geography ch.2 (Physical Features of India)
- Q67 Geography of India & AP
Consider the following statements about the advancing south-west monsoon:
I. Except the extreme north-west, the monsoon winds cover the country in about a month.
II. Early in the season the windward side of the Western Ghats receives more than 250 cm of rainfall.
III. The Deccan plateau and parts of Madhya Pradesh receive some rain even though they lie in the rain-shadow area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct as described in the textbook account of the advancing monsoon.
Source: AP SCERT Class 9 Geography ch.4 Climate (NCERT Contemporary India I)
- Q68 Geography of India & AP
Match the place or area in List I with what it is known for in List II:
List I
a. Krishna-Godavari basin
b. Ramagiri (erstwhile Anantapur district)
c. Agnigundala (erstwhile Guntur district)
d. Visakhapatnam
List II
I. Natural gas
II. Copper
III. Gold
IV. Strategic petroleum reserve
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Answer B. a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
The Krishna-Godavari basin has natural gas, Ramagiri is a gold field, Agnigundala has copper and Visakhapatnam has a strategic petroleum reserve.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.5 Mineral and Energy Resources; Indian Geography: Human & Economic (reference) - Minerals, Energy and Industries
- Q69 Geography of India & AP
Match the zones of Indian Railways in List I with the cities where their headquarters are located in List II:
List I (Railway zone)
a. South East Central Railway
b. South Central Railway
c. Western Railway
d. Southern Railway
List II (Headquarters)
I. Chennai
II. Mumbai (Churchgate)
III. Bilaspur
IV. Secunderabad
Select the correct code:
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Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
South East Central Railway has its headquarters at Bilaspur, South Central at Secunderabad, Western at Mumbai (Churchgate) and Southern at Chennai.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy ch.7 (Transport and Communication)
- Q70 Geography of India & AP
Which one of the following pairs of tourist place and erstwhile district is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer A. Borra Caves - Prakasam
Borra Caves are in the Ananthagiri hills of the Araku region (erstwhile Visakhapatnam), not Prakasam.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.4 Landforms - Andhra Pradesh p.98; AP Tourism data
- Q71 Geography of India & AP
Match List I with List II:
List I (Karst feature)
a. Swallow hole
b. Stalagmite
c. Uvala
d. Lapies
List II (Description)
I. Calcium carbonate deposit rising up from the cave floor
II. Small to medium shallow depression formed by solution
III. Maze of ridges and grooves on limestone
IV. Valley sink formed when sinkholes join
Select the correct code:
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Answer C. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Swallow holes are small shallow solution depressions, stalagmites rise from cave floors, uvalas form when sinkholes join, and lapies are irregular ridges and grooves.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.6
- Q72 Geography of India & AP
Which one of the following pairs (Peak - Country) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer C. Nanda Devi - Nepal
Nanda Devi (7,817 m) is in India; Makalu, Dhaulagiri and Annapurna are in Nepal.
Source: AP SCERT Class 9 Geography ch.2 (Physical Features of India)
- Q73 Indian Polity & Governance
The Preamble promises 'equality of status and of opportunity'. Consider the following statements about how the Constitution gives effect to it:
I. Political equality is secured by Articles 325 and 326.
II. Civic equality is secured by Articles 14 to 18.
III. Economic equality is promoted by Article 39, which directs that men and women equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood and that there is equal pay for equal work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I, II and III
All three are correct: civic equality through Articles 14-18, political equality through Articles 325-326, and economic equality through Article 39.
Source: PW Polity ch.5 Preamble
- Q74 Indian Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about a joint sitting of Parliament:
Statement I: Its quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of both Houses.
Statement II: It is conducted according to the rules of procedure of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
The quorum is one-tenth of the total members of the two Houses. Joint sittings follow the Lok Sabha's rules of procedure, so Statement II is wrong.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 118(3)
- Q75 Indian Polity & Governance
One of the earliest Public Interest Litigation cases, which arose from newspaper reports about undertrial prisoners in Bihar who had spent long years in jail, is known as
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Answer B. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) dealt with undertrial prisoners in Bihar and is one of the earliest PILs.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.6
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75 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Indian Polity & Governance
Which of the following factors does the Governor have regard to while specifying a transitional area, a smaller urban area or a larger urban area under Article 243Q(2)?
I. Population of the area
II. Density of population in the area
III. Revenue generated for local administration
IV. Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer D. I, II, III and IV
All four are listed in Article 243Q(2), along with economic importance and other factors the Governor thinks fit.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 243Q(2)
- Q77 Indian Polity & Governance
Under the statute that provides for it, the Union Home Minister is named as a member of the committee on whose recommendation the President appoints which of the following?
I. Central Vigilance Commissioner
II. Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission
III. Chief Information Commissioner
IV. Chairperson of the Lokpal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer A. I and II only
The Union Home Minister is named by statute on the committees for the Central Vigilance Commissioner (PM, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition) and the NHRC Chairperson (PM, Speaker, Home Minister, both Leaders of Opposition, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha). The RTI Act names only 'a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM' for the CIC committee, and the Lokpal committee has no Union Minister other than the PM.
Source: CVC Act 2003 s.4; PHRA 1993 s.4; RTI Act 2005 s.12(3); Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 s.4
- Q78 Indian Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about the core infrastructure created under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP):
1. State Wide Area Networks (SWAN) provide connectivity from the State headquarters down to the block level.
2. State Data Centres (SDC) were created to consolidate services, applications and infrastructure of State governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both 1 and 2
SWAN links State, district and block headquarters, and SDCs consolidate State applications and infrastructure; together with CSCs they form the NeGP core infrastructure.
Source: MeitY, NeGP core infrastructure (SWAN, SDC, CSC)
- Q79 Indian Polity & Governance
Match List I (clause of Article 13) with List II (content):
List I
a. Article 13(1)
b. Article 13(2)
c. Article 13(3)
d. Article 13(4)
List II
I. Nothing in the Article applies to an amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368
II. Meaning of 'law' and 'laws in force'
III. Laws in force before the commencement of the Constitution are void to the extent of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights
IV. The State shall not make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Article 13(1) goes with Laws in force before the commencement of the Constitution are void to the extent of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights; Article 13(2) goes with The State shall not make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights; Article 13(3) goes with Meaning of 'law' and 'laws in force'; Article 13(4) goes with Nothing in the Article applies to an amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368. Clause (4) was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 13
- Q80 Indian Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about money bills in a State Legislature:
I. A bill is not a money bill merely because it provides for the imposition of fines or the demand of fees for licences.
II. When a money bill is sent to the Legislative Council, it carries the certificate of the Speaker that it is a money bill.
III. A bill is not a money bill merely because it provides for the imposition of a tax by a local authority for local purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct. Article 199(2) excludes bills dealing only with fines, licence fees or local taxes from the meaning of money bill, and Article 199(4) requires the Speaker's certificate on a money bill sent to the Council and presented to the Governor.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 199
- Q81 Indian Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court inquires into the misbehaviour of a member of the UPSC on a reference made by the President.
II. Article 139A, which enables the Supreme Court to transfer cases between High Courts, was inserted by the 44th Amendment Act.
III. Parliament can enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Article 139A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th.
Source: PW Polity ch.17 (The Indian Judicial System); Constitution Arts 138, 139A, 317
- Q82 Indian Polity & Governance
If a State fails to comply with directions given by the Union in the exercise of its executive power, the President may hold that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. This is provided in
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Answer B. Article 365
Article 365 allows the President to treat a State's failure to follow Union directions as a failure of constitutional machinery.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.64; Constitution of India Art. 365
- Q83 Indian Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), the Supreme Court held that, until Parliament made a law, the CEC and Election Commissioners would be appointed on the advice of a committee that included the Chief Justice of India.
Statement II: The law enacted by Parliament in 2023 retained the Chief Justice of India as a member of the Selection Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only Statement I is correct. The 2023 judgment named the PM, the Leader of Opposition and the CJI as an interim committee; the 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies; CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023
- Q84 Indian Economy & Planning
According to NCERT, as part of financial sector reforms the foreign investment limit in Indian banks was raised to around
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Answer B. 74 per cent
NCERT states the foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 74 per cent.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.3 (p.58)
- Q85 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor:
I. The SDF rate is the floor of the LAF corridor.
II. The MSF rate is the ceiling of the LAF corridor.
III. After April 2022 the fixed-rate reverse repo continued to be the floor of the corridor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
I and II are correct. From April 2022 the SDF rate replaced the fixed-rate reverse repo as the floor.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.4 Monetary Policy and Inflation (LAF corridor)
- Q86 Indian Economy & Planning
Which of the following statements about the GST Council is/are INCORRECT?
I. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
II. Its Vice-Chairperson is chosen by the members from among the State members.
III. One-third of the total members form the quorum for its meetings.
IV. The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer A. III only
Only statement III is incorrect: the quorum is one-half of the total members, not one-third. The other three statements follow Article 279A.
Source: Constitution Art. 279A; Polity reference (Parliament; Federal Dynamics) (p.138)
- Q87 Indian Economy & Planning
Match List I (institution) with List II (headquarters):
List I
a. New Development Bank
b. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
c. Asian Development Bank
d. Bank for International Settlements
List II
I. Manila
II. Basel
III. Shanghai
IV. Beijing
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
The New Development Bank is headquartered in Shanghai, the AIIB in Beijing, the ADB in Manila and the BIS in Basel.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.6 pp.85-87
- Q88 Indian Economy & Planning
Match the following industrial nodes with the industrial corridors they belong to:
List I
a. Krishnapatnam
b. Orvakal
c. Kopparthi
d. Dholera
List II
I. Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor
II. Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor
III. Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor
IV. Hyderabad-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor
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Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
The Union Budget 2024-25 named Kopparthi on the Visakhapatnam-Chennai corridor and Orvakal on the Hyderabad-Bengaluru corridor. Krishnapatnam Industrial Area is a node of the Chennai-Bengaluru corridor, and Dholera is on the Delhi-Mumbai corridor.
Source: Union Budget 2024-25 speech (Andhra Pradesh); NICDC corridor nodes
- Q89 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about the AP MSME & Entrepreneur Development Policy (4.0) 2024-29, as given in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:
I. Power cost is reimbursed at Rs 1.00 per unit for 6 years.
II. Net SGST is reimbursed 100% for 6 years, capped at 5% of annual turnover.
III. Expansion units get a technology upgradation subsidy of 20% of FCI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct as per the AP SES 2024-25.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.6, p.98-99
- Q90 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements:
I. Gross value added of a firm is the value of its output minus the value of intermediate goods used.
II. Net value added is gross value added plus depreciation.
III. GDP is the sum of gross value added of all producing units in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
I and III are correct. Net value added is gross value added minus (not plus) depreciation.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.30)
- Q91 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about the Bank Rate:
I. It is published under Section 49 of the RBI Act, 1934.
II. It is now aligned with the Marginal Standing Facility rate.
III. It is the rate at which the RBI absorbs surplus liquidity from banks without collateral.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
I and II are correct. Absorbing surplus liquidity without collateral is done through the Standing Deposit Facility.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.4 Monetary Policy and Inflation (Bank Rate; SDF)
- Q92 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about the Goods and Services Tax:
I. The Central Sales Tax that existed before GST was a destination-based tax.
II. GST is a destination-based consumption tax.
III. Input tax credit under GST removes the cascading effect of taxes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer B. II and III only
Statements II and III are correct. The old Central Sales Tax was origin-based: the revenue was kept by the State where the sale originated.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.5 (Box 5.3, p.92-93); Indian Economy reference ch.5 (Government Budgeting and Fiscal Policy) (p.57)
- Q93 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about autonomous and accommodating transactions:
I. Autonomous transactions are called 'above the line' items.
II. Official reserve transactions are autonomous transactions.
III. A balance of payments surplus or deficit is judged by comparing autonomous receipts with autonomous payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Official reserve transactions are made to fill the BoP gap, so they are accommodating ('below the line') items.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.6 (Open Economy)
- Q94 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about the Soil Health Card scheme:
I. It was launched at Suratgarh in Rajasthan.
II. Soil samples are tested only for nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
III. It was launched in 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer A. II only
Statement II is NOT correct. I is true (Suratgarh, February 2015); II is false (samples are tested on 12 parameters including micronutrients, pH, EC and organic carbon); III is true.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.8 Agriculture and Allied Sector, p.114
- Q95 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements:
I. The average combined CPI (base 2012=100) of AP for April-December 2024 was higher than that of All-India.
II. AP's combined CPI peaked in October 2024 during April-December 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
As per AP SES 2024-25, AP's combined CPI averaged 197.9 against 192.6 for India, and peaked at 201.3 in October 2024.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.36
- Q96 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements:
I. Gross capital formation is gross fixed capital formation plus change in stocks.
II. Net investment is gross investment minus depreciation.
III. Depreciation forms part of the income of households.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
I and II are correct. Depreciation is an allowance for wear and tear of capital and does not become anybody's income.
Source: PW Indian Economy (ref) ch.2 (p.16-17); NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.35)
- Q97 Indian Economy & Planning
Arrange the following benchmark systems for bank lending rates in India in the order in which they were introduced:
I. Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
II. Base Rate
III. External benchmark based lending rate
IV. Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer C. IV, II, I, III
The order is BPLR (2003), Base Rate (July 2010), MCLR (April 2016) and external benchmark linked rates (October 2019).
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.4 p.43; RBI circulars on lending rates
- Q98 Indian Economy & Planning
Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
I. The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is under the Ministry of Finance.
II. Disinvestment proceeds are non-debt-creating capital receipts.
III. Disinvestment increases the financial assets of the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is not correct. Sale of shares in PSUs reduces the government's financial assets; that is why it is a capital receipt.
Source: Indian Economy reference ch.5 (Government Budgeting and Fiscal Policy) (p.51); NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.5 (p.79)
- Q99 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about trade policy reforms after 1991:
I. Import licensing was abolished except for hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries.
II. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured consumer goods and agricultural products were fully removed in 1991 itself.
III. Export duties were removed to make Indian goods more competitive.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer C. II only
Statement II is incorrect: these quantitative restrictions were fully removed only from April 2001. Statements I and III are correct.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.3
- Q100 Indian Economy & Planning
Consider the following statements about the PLFS Annual Report 2023-24 (persons aged 15 years and above, usual status):
I. The unemployment rate was 3.2%.
II. The female labour force participation rate was 41.7%.
III. The labour force participation rate was 60.1%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct. PLFS 2023-24 gives UR 3.2%, female LFPR 41.7% and LFPR 60.1%.
Source: PLFS Annual Report 2023-24; PW Indian Economy
-
50 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Indian Economy & Planning
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Andhra Pradesh at current prices for 2024-25 (First Advance Estimates) is about
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Answer B. Rs 16.06 lakh crore
AP GSDP for 2024-25 (FAE) at current prices is Rs 16.06 lakh crore (Rs 16,06,109 crore). The constant-price figure is Rs 8.73 lakh crore.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.12; AP SES 2024-25 p.21
- Q102 Sustainable Development & Environment
Match List I with List II:
List I
a. Calotropis
b. Cuscuta
c. Ophrys
d. Bamboo
List II
I. Breeds only once in its lifetime
II. Pollination through sexual deceit of a bee
III. Produces poisonous cardiac glycosides
IV. Parasitic plant without chlorophyll and leaves
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Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Calotropis makes cardiac glycosides, Cuscuta is a parasite without chlorophyll, Ophrys uses sexual deceit and bamboo breeds once.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.210; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.208; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.214
- Q103 Sustainable Development & Environment
Match the following pollutants with their major source:
List I
a. Fly ash
b. Methyl isocyanate
c. Chlorofluorocarbons
d. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN)
List II
I. Photochemical reactions of NOx and hydrocarbons in sunlight
II. Coal-based thermal power plants
III. Pesticide plant at Bhopal (1984 leak)
IV. Refrigerators and aerosol sprays
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Answer D. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
Fly ash - thermal power plants, methyl isocyanate - Bhopal pesticide plant, CFCs - refrigerators and aerosols, PAN - photochemical reactions.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Biology Sem-2 ch.7 p.74; NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Unit 14
- Q104 Sustainable Development & Environment
Assertion (A): Thawing of permafrost can speed up global warming.
Reason (R): Thawing permafrost releases stored carbon as carbon dioxide and methane.
Choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Permafrost holds large carbon stores; thawing releases CO2 and methane, a positive feedback.
Source: IPCC AR6 WGI ch.5
- Q105 Sustainable Development & Environment
Match the works or concepts in List I with their authors in List II.
List I
a. Ecological footprint
b. Limits to Growth
c. Our Common Future
d. Small Is Beautiful
List II
I. E.F. Schumacher
II. World Commission on Environment and Development
III. Club of Rome
IV. Mathis Wackernagel and William Rees
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Answer C. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Ecological footprint - Wackernagel and Rees; Limits to Growth - Club of Rome; Our Common Future - WCED (Brundtland Commission); Small Is Beautiful - E.F. Schumacher.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Contemporary World Politics p.95-96; Wackernagel and Rees 1996
- Q106 Sustainable Development & Environment
For species–area relationships analysed over very large areas such as entire continents, the slope (Z) of the regression line is found to be in the range of:
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Answer C. 0.6 to 1.2
Over entire continents the slope is much steeper, with Z between 0.6 and 1.2 (1.15 for fruit-eating birds and mammals of tropical forests), compared with 0.1 to 0.2 within a region.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.232
- Q107 Sustainable Development & Environment
Match the following terms with their meaning:
List I
a. Leachate
b. Refuse derived fuel
c. Extended Producer Responsibility
d. Bio-mining
List II
I. Liquid formed by water percolating through waste
II. Producers manage their products after use
III. Fuel from the combustible fraction of solid waste
IV. Excavating and treating old dumpsite waste
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Answer B. a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
Leachate is liquid from waste, RDF is fuel from combustible waste, EPR makes producers responsible after use, and bio-mining treats legacy dumpsite waste.
Source: SWM Rules 2016; SBM-U 2.0 guidelines
- Q108 Sustainable Development & Environment
Match the following COPs with their outcome:
List I
a. COP13, Bali
b. COP16, Cancun
c. COP19, Warsaw
d. COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh
List II
I. Green Climate Fund established
II. Agreement on a loss and damage fund
III. Bali Action Plan
IV. Warsaw International Mechanism for loss and damage
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Answer C. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Bali adopted the Bali Action Plan, Cancun set up the Green Climate Fund, Warsaw set up the WIM, and Sharm el-Sheikh agreed on a loss and damage fund.
Source: UNFCCC decisions
- Q109 Sustainable Development & Environment
How many targets are there under the 17 Sustainable Development Goals?
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Answer B. 169
The 17 SDGs have 169 targets.
Source: UNGA Resolution A/RES/70/1 (2030 Agenda)
- Q110 Sustainable Development & Environment
In the species-area relationship log S = log C + Z log A, the value of Z for most taxa within a region lies in the range of:
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Answer D. 0.1 to 0.2
Within a region the slope Z lies between 0.1 and 0.2 regardless of the taxonomic group.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.232
- Q111 Sustainable Development & Environment
Bio-methanation of kitchen waste mainly produces
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Answer D. Biogas rich in methane
Bio-methanation (anaerobic digestion) yields methane-rich biogas and digested slurry used as manure.
Source: SWM Rules 2016; standard text
- Q112 Sustainable Development & Environment
Greenhouse gases warm the lower atmosphere mainly by absorbing
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Answer B. long-wave (infrared) radiation emitted by the earth
GHGs let in short-wave solar radiation but absorb outgoing long-wave terrestrial radiation, warming the atmosphere.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Physical Geography p.96 (file kegy2 p.106)
- Q113 Sustainable Development & Environment
Which one of the following is NOT one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals?
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Answer D. Population stabilisation
Population stabilisation is not an SDG; Zero hunger (SDG 2), Reduced inequalities (SDG 10) and Life on land (SDG 15) are.
Source: UNGA Resolution A/RES/70/1 (2030 Agenda)
- Q114 Disaster Management
Two coastal villages in Krishna district face the same cyclone hazard. Village X has a cyclone shelter, a working early-warning system and mostly pucca houses; Village Y has none of these. Compared with Y, Village X has lower:
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Answer C. Disaster risk, because its vulnerability is lower and its capacity higher
The hazard (cyclone frequency and strength) is the same for both; preparedness lowers vulnerability and raises capacity, so X's risk is lower.
Source: UNDRR Terminology (2017); NDMA Cyclone Guidelines (2008)
- Q115 Disaster Management
Consider the following statements about the Sendai Framework:
1. One of its targets is to substantially reduce global disaster mortality by 2030.
2. One of its targets is to substantially increase the availability of and access to multi-hazard early warning systems by 2030.
3. It is a legally binding international treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. 1 and 2 only
Reducing mortality (target a) and increasing access to multi-hazard early warning systems (target g) are Sendai targets. The Framework is a voluntary, non-binding agreement.
Source: UNDRR, Sendai Framework for DRR 2015-2030
- Q116 Disaster Management
A satellite image has a spatial resolution of 10 m. How many pixels are needed to cover an area of 1 square kilometre?
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Answer D. 10,000
1 km = 1,000 m, so one side has 1,000/10 = 100 pixels; the square needs 100 x 100 = 10,000 pixels.
Source: Standard remote sensing calculation
- Q117 Disaster Management
Consider the following statements about naming of cyclones over the North Indian Ocean:
1. The Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC), New Delhi, run by IMD, assigns the names.
2. A name, once used, is reused for another cyclone after ten years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. 1 only
RSMC New Delhi (IMD) names a system when it reaches cyclonic storm strength, taking names in sequence from the 2020 list. A used name is retired and never repeated, so statement 2 is wrong.
Source: WMO, Northern Indian Ocean names; IMD RSMC New Delhi
- Q118 Disaster Management
The National Executive Committee constituted under Section 8 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 is chaired by
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Answer B. the Union Home Secretary
Section 8 makes the Secretary of the ministry having administrative control of disaster management (the Union Home Secretary) the ex officio Chairperson of the NEC.
Source: Disaster Management Act 2005 s.8
- Q119 Disaster Management
Flood inundation maps prepared from satellite data most commonly rely on
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Answer C. comparing satellite images of the same area taken before and after the flood
Change detection compares a pre-flood (normal water) image with a post-flood image; water present only in the later image is the flood inundation.
Source: NRSC Disaster Management Support (flood maps)
- Q120 Disaster Management
As per the IMD classification of low-pressure systems, a 'Severe Cyclonic Storm' has maximum sustained surface winds of:
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Answer B. 89-117 km/h
IMD: cyclonic storm 62-88 km/h, severe cyclonic storm 89-117 km/h, very severe 118-166 km/h, extremely severe 167-221 km/h, super cyclonic storm 222 km/h or more.
Source: IMD classification of cyclonic disturbances
- Q121 Disaster Management
Which of the following best describes the basic idea of Community-Based Disaster Management (CBDM)?
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Answer D. The local community takes part in assessing its own risks and in planning and carrying out preparedness and response, since it is the first responder
CBDM recognises that people on the spot are the first to respond and know local conditions best; they join in hazard and vulnerability mapping, village disaster management plans, task forces and drills, with support from government and NGOs. It complements, not replaces, government action.
Source: NIDM, Community Based Disaster Management training material; NDMP 2019
- Q122 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
If 3 * 4 = 25 and 5 * 12 = 169, then what is 8 * 15?
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Answer D. 289
3^2 + 4^2 = 25 and 5^2 + 12^2 = 169, so 8 * 15 = 8^2 + 15^2 = 64 + 225 = 289.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q123 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
In a code, 'P 6m $ Q' means Q is 6 m North of P; '&' means East, '%' means South and '*' means West in the same way. A runner follows the route 'A 10m $ B 8m & C 4m % D 6m * E', reaching each point in turn. M is the midpoint of the straight path from B to C. What is the distance between M and E, and in which direction is E with respect to M?
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Answer C. 2√5 m, South-West
Take A = (0, 0). B = (0, 10), C = (8, 10), D = (8, 6), E = (2, 6), and M = (4, 10). From M to E: 2 m West and 4 m South, so the distance is √(4 + 16) = 2√5 m and E is South-West of M.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q124 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Statements:
1. All mobiles are phones.
2. No phones are laptops.
3. Some laptops are tablets.
Conclusions:
I. Some tablets are not phones.
II. No mobiles are laptops.
Considering the statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
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Answer C. Both I and II follow
Both I and II follow. The tablets that are laptops are not phones, so some tablets are not phones. Mobiles lie inside phones and phones are separate from laptops, so no mobile is a laptop.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q125 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
At 3 o'clock the hands of a clock are at right angles. At what time between 3 o'clock and 4 o'clock will they be at right angles again?
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Answer B. 32 8/11 minutes past 3
After 3:00 the minute hand gains 5.5 degrees per minute. It must go from 90 degrees behind to 90 degrees ahead, i.e. gain 180 degrees: M = 180/5.5 = 360/11 = 32 8/11 minutes past 3.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
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25 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q126 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kamala and Sita was 6 : 5. Four years from now, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sita's present age?
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Answer D. 16 years
Six years ago the ages were 6k and 5k. Four years from now they are 6k + 10 and 5k + 10, and 10(6k + 10) = 11(5k + 10) gives k = 2. Sita is now 10 + 6 = 16 years.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q127 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
In a certain code, BAT is written as 69 and ROAD is written as 152. Using the same rule, how is ANDHRA written?
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Answer A. 276
BAT: (2 + 1 + 20) x 3 = 69 and ROAD: (18 + 15 + 1 + 4) x 4 = 152, so code = (sum of letter positions) x (number of letters). ANDHRA: (1 + 14 + 4 + 8 + 18 + 1) x 6 = 46 x 6 = 276.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q128 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
From her school in Eluru, Anitha walks 7 km East, then 4 km South, then 3 km West and then 4 km North. How far is she from the school and in which direction?
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Answer C. 4 km, East
Net East-West = 7 - 3 = 4 km East; net North-South = 4 - 4 = 0. She is 4 km East of the school.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q129 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Statements:
1. All actors are boxers.
2. Some boxers are cyclists.
3. No cyclists are dancers.
Conclusions:
I. Some actors are cyclists.
II. Some boxers are not dancers.
Considering the statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Only II follows
Only II follows. 'All actors are boxers' and 'Some boxers are cyclists' give no definite link between actors and cyclists. The boxers who are cyclists are not dancers, so some boxers are not dancers.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q130 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
A figure is a grid of equal small squares with 3 rows and 5 columns. Count all the squares of every size in it.
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Answer A. 26
In an m x n grid, the number of k x k squares is (m - k + 1)(n - k + 1). For 3 x 5: 1 x 1 = 3 x 5 = 15; 2 x 2 = 2 x 4 = 8; 3 x 3 = 1 x 3 = 3. Total = 26.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q131 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
What is the sum of all the three-digit numbers that can be formed with the digits 1, 2 and 3, each used exactly once in a number?
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Answer A. 1,332
There are 6 numbers. Each digit appears twice in each place, so the sum = 2 x (1 + 2 + 3) x 111 = 1,332 (123 + 132 + 213 + 231 + 312 + 321).
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q132 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
One rule converts PEN into RGP and BOX into DQZ. Under this rule, which of the following word-code pairs is INCORRECT?
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Answer A. RICE - TKDG
Each letter moves 2 places forward (P-R, E-G, N-P). RICE should be TKEG, because C + 2 = E, not D; the other three follow the rule.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q133 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Village Q is to the North of village P. Village R is to the East of Q. Village S is to the South of R and to the East of P. In which direction is P with respect to R?
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Answer D. South-West
Let P = (0, 0). Q = (0, a) with a > 0; R = (b, a) with b > 0; S = (b, 0) is South of R and East of P. From R, P is b units West and a units South, i.e. South-West, whatever the distances.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q134 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Statement: M ≥ N = O ≤ P
Conclusions:
I. M > O
II. M = O
Which of the conclusions definitely follow(s)?
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Answer C. Either I or II follows
M ≥ N = O gives M ≥ O. Neither 'M > O' nor 'M = O' is certain by itself, but together they make up M ≥ O, so either I or II follows.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q135 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
On what day of the week did 15 August 1947 fall?
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Answer B. Friday
Odd days: 1600 years = 0; 300 years (1601-1900) = 1; 1901-1946 = 46 years with 11 leap years = 46 + 11 = 57 = 1 odd day; 1 Jan to 15 Aug 1947 = 31+28+31+30+31+30+31+15 = 227 days = 3 odd days. Total = 0 + 1 + 1 + 3 = 5, and 5 odd days means Friday (0 = Sunday).
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q136 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
The simple interest on a sum for 3 years at 7.5% per annum exceeds the simple interest on the same sum for 2 1/2 years at 8% per annum by Rs 125. What is the sum?
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Answer D. Rs 5,000
Interest for 3 years at 7.5% = 22.5% of P; for 2 1/2 years at 8% = 20% of P. So 2.5% of P = 125 and P = Rs 5,000.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q137 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Find the next term in the series: 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
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Answer C. 35
Terms are one less than the squares 121, 100, 81, 64, 49; the next is 36 - 1 = 35 (differences 21, 19, 17, 15, 13).
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q138 Data Analysis
Study the table and answer the question.
Paddy production (in thousand tonnes) in four districts (hypothetical data):
District | 2021 | 2022 | 2023
Guntur | 400 | 440 | 506
Krishna | 360 | 378 | 405
East Godavari | 500 | 450 | 540
West Godavari | 600 | 630 | 735
By what percentage (approximately) was the total production of the four districts in 2023 more than their total production in 2021?
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Answer D. 17.53%
Total 2021 = 400+360+500+600 = 1860; total 2023 = 506+405+540+735 = 2186. Increase = 326, and 326/1860 x 100 = 17.53%.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q139 Data Analysis
What is the mode of 4, 6, 4, 8, 6, 4, 9?
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Answer D. 4
The mode is the most frequent value; 4 appears three times, 6 twice and the others once.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q140 Data Analysis
Study the table and answer the question.
Cotton production (in thousand bales) in four districts (hypothetical data):
District | 2022 | 2023 | 2024
Guntur | 240 | 270 | 300
Kurnool | 320 | 304 | 368
Prakasam | 180 | 216 | 234
Anantapur | 160 | 165 | 198
What is the ratio of the total cotton production of the four districts in 2022 to that in 2024?
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Answer D. 9:11
Total 2022 = 240 + 320 + 180 + 160 = 900; total 2024 = 300 + 368 + 234 + 198 = 1,100. Ratio = 900 : 1,100 = 9 : 11.
Source: Hypothetical data; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q141 Data Analysis
Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4 is 2.5.
2. Standard deviation is unaffected by a change of scale (multiplying every value by a constant).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. Neither 1 nor 2
1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4 is bimodal (modes 2 and 3); modes are not averaged. SD is unaffected by change of origin but is multiplied by |k| under a change of scale.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Statistics for Economics, Measures of Dispersion
- Q142 Data Analysis
The question below is followed by two statements, I and II. Decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Question: What is the speed of a train?
I. The train crosses a 200 m long platform in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses a signal pole in 12 seconds.
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Answer C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone
Statement I alone: speed = (L + 200)/20, but the train's length L is unknown. Statement II alone: speed = L/12, again with L unknown. Together: L/12 = (L + 200)/20 gives L = 300 m and speed = 25 m/s (90 km/h). So both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone.
Source: Hypothetical data; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q143 Data Analysis
Consider the following statements:
1. The sum of absolute deviations is least when they are taken about the median.
2. In a perfectly symmetric unimodal distribution, the mean, median and mode are equal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both 1 and 2
Σ|x − A| is minimised at A = median, which is why mean deviation is often taken about the median. In a symmetric unimodal curve all three averages coincide at the centre.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Statistics for Economics, Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion
- Q144 Data Analysis
Cotton production in a district (in thousand bales, hypothetical data):
Year: 2019 2020 2021 2022 2023
Production: 100 85 71 80 68
In which year was the percentage decline in production over the previous year the largest?
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Answer A. 2021
Percentage declines: 2020: 15/100 = 15%; 2021: 14/85 = 16.47%; 2023: 12/80 = 15% (2022 was a rise). The largest percentage decline is in 2021, though the largest fall in bales was in 2020.
Source: Hypothetical data; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q145 Data Analysis
What is the arithmetic mean of the first 10 even natural numbers?
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Answer A. 11
The first n even numbers have sum n(n + 1), so the mean is n + 1 = 11.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q146 Data Analysis
Number of tourists (in thousands) who visited Araku Valley in three years (hypothetical data): 2021 - 40, 2022 - 55, 2023 - 66. What was the percentage increase in tourists from 2022 to 2023?
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Answer A. 20%
Increase = 66 - 55 = 11 thousand; percentage increase = 11/55 x 100 = 20%.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q147 Data Analysis
What is the mean deviation about the median of 2, 4, 7, 9 and 13?
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Answer A. 3.2
Median = 7 (3rd of 5 ordered values). Absolute deviations: 5, 3, 0, 2, 6 (sum 16). Mean deviation = 16/5 = 3.2.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q148 Data Analysis
Each question below is followed by two statements, I and II. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Question: For real numbers x and y, is x greater than y?
I. x squared is greater than y squared.
II. x + y is greater than 0.
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Answer C. Both statements together are needed; neither alone is sufficient
From I, (x - y)(x + y) > 0. Alone this allows x = -3, y = 1 (x < y) or x = 3, y = 1 (x > y). II alone allows x = 1, y = 2 or x = 2, y = 1. Together, since x + y > 0, the product being positive forces x - y > 0, so x > y. Both are needed.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q149 Data Analysis
What is the median of 7, 3, 9, 5, 11 and 4?
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Answer B. 6
Arranged in order the data are 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 11. With an even count the median is the average of the 3rd and 4th values: (5 + 7) / 2 = 6.
Source: Standard statistics method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
- Q150 Data Analysis
Study the table and answer the question.
Employees in three departments of an office and the ratio of male to female employees (hypothetical data):
Department | Total employees | Male : Female
Accounts | 120 | 5 : 3
Sales | 210 | 4 : 3
Production | 360 | 7 : 5
Female employees of the Production department form what percentage of all female employees?
(The answer is rounded to two decimal places.)
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Answer C. 52.63%
Production females = 360 × 5/12 = 150; all females = 285. 150 / 285 × 100 = 52.63%.
Source: Hypothetical data; answer and every option computed and checked in Python
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