APPSC Paper I · Paper I · Topic 5
5 APPSC Paper I Indian Polity & Governance questions with answers
21 questions from APPSC Paper I Mock 1 with answers and APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
5.1.1Constitution: making, features & rightsNotes
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The Preamble promises 'equality of status and of opportunity'. Consider the following statements about how the Constitution gives effect to it:
I. Political equality is secured by Articles 325 and 326.
II. Civic equality is secured by Articles 14 to 18.
III. Economic equality is promoted by Article 39, which directs that men and women equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood and that there is equal pay for equal work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I, II and III
All three are correct: civic equality through Articles 14-18, political equality through Articles 325-326, and economic equality through Article 39.
Source: PW Polity ch.5 Preamble
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Match List I (clause of Article 13) with List II (content):
List I
a. Article 13(1)
b. Article 13(2)
c. Article 13(3)
d. Article 13(4)
List II
I. Nothing in the Article applies to an amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368
II. Meaning of 'law' and 'laws in force'
III. Laws in force before the commencement of the Constitution are void to the extent of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights
IV. The State shall not make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Article 13(1) goes with Laws in force before the commencement of the Constitution are void to the extent of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights; Article 13(2) goes with The State shall not make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights; Article 13(3) goes with Meaning of 'law' and 'laws in force'; Article 13(4) goes with Nothing in the Article applies to an amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368. Clause (4) was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 13
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Right to property belongs to which one of the following categories.
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Answer A. Legal Right
The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Part III; it is now a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q138, final key
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Which article empowers the individual to move to supreme court directly for violation of any fundamental right ?
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Answer C. Article 32
Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, lets a person go directly to the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q139, final key
5.2.1Union & State governmentNotes
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Consider the following statements about a joint sitting of Parliament:
Statement I: Its quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of both Houses.
Statement II: It is conducted according to the rules of procedure of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
The quorum is one-tenth of the total members of the two Houses. Joint sittings follow the Lok Sabha's rules of procedure, so Statement II is wrong.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 118(3)
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Consider the following statements about money bills in a State Legislature:
I. A bill is not a money bill merely because it provides for the imposition of fines or the demand of fees for licences.
II. When a money bill is sent to the Legislative Council, it carries the certificate of the Speaker that it is a money bill.
III. A bill is not a money bill merely because it provides for the imposition of a tax by a local authority for local purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct. Article 199(2) excludes bills dealing only with fines, licence fees or local taxes from the meaning of money bill, and Article 199(4) requires the Speaker's certificate on a money bill sent to the Council and presented to the Governor.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 199
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In the Indian Constitution which article empowers governor to appoint Anglo Indian Members ?
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Answer C. Article 333
Article 333 allowed the Governor to nominate one Anglo-Indian to the Legislative Assembly; the provision lapsed in 2020 under the 104th Amendment.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q133, final key
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Which Parliamentary Committee is known as the "Ombudsmen" ?
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Answer B. Petitions Committee
The Committee on Petitions examines citizens' petitions and complaints against the administration, so it works like an ombudsman for the public.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q140, final key
5.3.1JudiciaryNotes
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One of the earliest Public Interest Litigation cases, which arose from newspaper reports about undertrial prisoners in Bihar who had spent long years in jail, is known as
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Answer B. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) dealt with undertrial prisoners in Bihar and is one of the earliest PILs.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.6
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Consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court inquires into the misbehaviour of a member of the UPSC on a reference made by the President.
II. Article 139A, which enables the Supreme Court to transfer cases between High Courts, was inserted by the 44th Amendment Act.
III. Parliament can enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Article 139A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th.
Source: PW Polity ch.17 (The Indian Judicial System); Constitution Arts 138, 139A, 317
5.4.1Federalism & local governmentNotes
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Which of the following factors does the Governor have regard to while specifying a transitional area, a smaller urban area or a larger urban area under Article 243Q(2)?
I. Population of the area
II. Density of population in the area
III. Revenue generated for local administration
IV. Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer D. I, II, III and IV
All four are listed in Article 243Q(2), along with economic importance and other factors the Governor thinks fit.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 243Q(2)
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If a State fails to comply with directions given by the Union in the exercise of its executive power, the President may hold that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. This is provided in
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Answer B. Article 365
Article 365 allows the President to treat a State's failure to follow Union directions as a failure of constitutional machinery.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.64; Constitution of India Art. 365
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Who is the president of apex council which monitors the Godavari and Krishna water management boards ?
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Answer C. Central Water Resource Minister
Under Section 84 of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014, the Apex Council supervising the Godavari and Krishna River Management Boards is chaired by the Union Minister of Water Resources, with both Chief Ministers as members.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q134, final key
5.5.1Constitutional bodies, elections & special provisionsNotes
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Under the statute that provides for it, the Union Home Minister is named as a member of the committee on whose recommendation the President appoints which of the following?
I. Central Vigilance Commissioner
II. Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission
III. Chief Information Commissioner
IV. Chairperson of the Lokpal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer A. I and II only
The Union Home Minister is named by statute on the committees for the Central Vigilance Commissioner (PM, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition) and the NHRC Chairperson (PM, Speaker, Home Minister, both Leaders of Opposition, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha). The RTI Act names only 'a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM' for the CIC committee, and the Lokpal committee has no Union Minister other than the PM.
Source: CVC Act 2003 s.4; PHRA 1993 s.4; RTI Act 2005 s.12(3); Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 s.4
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Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), the Supreme Court held that, until Parliament made a law, the CEC and Election Commissioners would be appointed on the advice of a committee that included the Chief Justice of India.
Statement II: The law enacted by Parliament in 2023 retained the Chief Justice of India as a member of the Selection Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only Statement I is correct. The 2023 judgment named the PM, the Leader of Opposition and the CJI as an interim committee; the 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies; CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023
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Who among the following has got authority under our constitution to provide a joint service commission for a group of states ?
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Answer B. The parliament
Under Article 315, Parliament can by law create a Joint State Public Service Commission when the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions asking for it.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q136, final key
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The chairman and members of NHRC are appointed by
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Answer B. The President
The President appoints the NHRC chairperson and members on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q137, final key
5.6.1Governance, public policy & e-GovernanceNotes
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Consider the following statements about the core infrastructure created under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP):
1. State Wide Area Networks (SWAN) provide connectivity from the State headquarters down to the block level.
2. State Data Centres (SDC) were created to consolidate services, applications and infrastructure of State governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both 1 and 2
SWAN links State, district and block headquarters, and SDCs consolidate State applications and infrastructure; together with CSCs they form the NeGP core infrastructure.
Source: MeitY, NeGP core infrastructure (SWAN, SDC, CSC)
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Operation blackboard aims at
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Answer D. Providing primary education in an educationally backward area
Operation Blackboard (1987), from the National Policy on Education 1986, aimed to give every primary school basic facilities and teachers, improving primary education in backward areas.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q145, final key
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Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan launched on 9th July 2015 by
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Answer C. Sri APJ Abdul Kalam
Former President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam launched the Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan, which encourages science and maths learning among school children, on 9 July 2015.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q149, final key
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Sampada is a facility for e-registration of property documents launched by which State ?
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Answer C. Madhya Pradesh
SAMPADA is Madhya Pradesh's online system for e-registration and e-stamping of property documents.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q150, final key
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