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APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I question paper with answers
- 140 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
- Year 2026
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this paper (10)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Current Events
Which city is set to establish India's 1st Quantum Computing Valley by January 2026 ?
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Answer B. Amaravati
Andhra Pradesh announced the Amaravati Quantum Valley, India's first quantum computing hub, with an IBM Quantum System Two, targeted for January 2026.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q1, final key
- Q2 Current Events
Which of the following State recently decided to implement e-voting through an Android based mobile application ?
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Answer D. Bihar
Bihar became the first state to allow mobile-app based e-voting, used in urban local body polls in June 2025.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q2, final key
- Q3 Current Events
Khichan and Menar wetlands, recently seen in news are located in which State ?
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Answer C. Rajasthan
Khichan (Phalodi) and Menar (Udaipur) in Rajasthan were declared Ramsar sites in June 2025.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q3, final key
- Q4 Current Events
The World's tallest rail arch bridge i.e., Chenab Rail Bridge recently inaugurated by P. M. Narendra Modi is in which State ?
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Answer A. Jammu and Kashmir
The Chenab Rail Bridge in Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir, part of the USBRL project, was inaugurated in June 2025.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q4, final key
- Q5 Current Events
Recently an MoU for the Tapti Basin Mega Recharge Project was signed by which of the following States ?
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Answer C. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra signed the MoU in 2025 for the Tapti Basin Mega Recharge groundwater project.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q5, final key
- Q6 Current Events
Yashoda AI Initiative to enhance women's AI and Cybersecurity skills was launched by
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Answer B. National Commission for Women
The National Commission for Women launched the YASHODA AI campaign in 2025 to build AI literacy and cyber safety among women.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q6, final key
- Q7 Current Events
What was the revised coastline length of India announced by Ministry of Home Affairs ?
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Answer D. 11098.81 km
Re-measurement announced in 2025 put India's coastline at 11,098.81 km, up from the earlier 7,516.6 km.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q7, final key
- Q8 Current Events
In July 2025, what was the initiative announced by P. M. Modi for digitisation of ancient manuscripts ?
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Answer A. Gyan Bharatham Mission
The Gyan Bharatam Mission aims to survey, conserve and digitise India's manuscript heritage.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q8, final key
- Q9 Current Events
Recently which State declared August 07 as Sustainable Agriculture Day, to be observed annually in honour of M. S. Swaminathan ?
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Answer B. Maharashtra
Maharashtra declared 7 August, Swaminathan's birth anniversary, as Sustainable Agriculture Day in 2025.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q9, final key
- Q10 Current Events
The 'Thalliki Vandanam' Scheme offers an annual assistance of __________ per school going child.
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Answer A. Rs. 15,000
Andhra Pradesh's Thalliki Vandanam gives Rs. 15,000 a year for each school-going child: Rs. 13,000 is credited to the mother and Rs. 2,000 goes to the school maintenance/development fund.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q10, final key
- Q11 Current Events
Which team won the title of 2025 Women's Premier League ?
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Answer D. Mumbai Indians
Mumbai Indians beat Delhi Capitals in the 2025 WPL final to win their second title.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q11, final key
- Q12 Current Events
Recently Government of India declared __________ as Ayurveda Day.
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Answer D. September 23
From 2025 Ayurveda Day is fixed on 23 September instead of following Dhanteras.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q12, final key
- Q13 Current Events
The World Economic forum 2025 met in Davos to discuss global co-operation in which area ?
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Answer D. AI governance and climate change
WEF 2025 at Davos, themed 'Collaboration for the Intelligent Age', focused on AI and climate among other global issues.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q13, final key
- Q14 Current Events
Which two countries recently declared support for Venezuela amid US pressure on President Maduro ?
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Answer D. China and Russia
China and Russia, Maduro's long-standing backers, voiced support for Venezuela against US pressure.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q14, final key
- Q15 Current Events
To put drug abuse in check, Government of Andhra Pradesh has set a special task force named
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Answer B. EAGLE
AP set up EAGLE (Elite Anti-Narcotics Group for Law Enforcement) to fight drugs; OCTOPUS is AP's counter-terror force.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q15, final key
- Q16 General Science & Technology
The drum of a Photostat machine is made up of which one of the following elements ?
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Answer A. Selenium
Selenium is photoconductive, so it was used to coat photocopier drums.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q16, final key
- Q17 General Science & Technology
Which one of the following bacteria present in the soil produces a peculiar smell if it rains on parched soil ?
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Answer C. Streptomycetes
Streptomyces bacteria release geosmin, which gives the earthy smell (petrichor) after rain on dry soil.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q18, final key
- Q18 General Science & Technology
Which gas is the most abundant in Sun ?
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Answer D. Hydrogen
The Sun is about 73% hydrogen and 25% helium by mass.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q20, final key
- Q19 General Science & Technology
A sensitive magnetic field instrument can be effectively shielded from the external magnetic field by placing it inside which of the following materials ?
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Answer C. Soft Iron of high permeability
High-permeability soft iron draws magnetic field lines into itself, so the space inside an iron enclosure is shielded.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q21, final key
- Q20 General Science & Technology
What is the principle behind thermocouple ?
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Answer C. Seebeck effect
A thermocouple produces an emf when its two junctions are at different temperatures: the Seebeck effect.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q22, final key
- Q21 General Science & Technology
Which of the following Gas is produced when Baking soda is heated ?
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Answer B. Carbon dioxide
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 on heating.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q23, final key
- Q22 General Science & Technology
The combination of which of the following processes results in the formation of a rainbow ?
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Answer A. Dispersion and Total Internal Reflection
Sunlight is refracted and dispersed on entering a raindrop and internally reflected at its back before leaving.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q25, final key
- Q23 General Science & Technology
Digiboxx an alternative to google drive, provides 20 GB of free cloud storage was launched by
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Answer B. NITI Aayog
DigiBoxx, an Indian cloud storage platform, was launched by NITI Aayog in 2020.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q27, final key
- Q24 General Science & Technology
Which of the following is equal to One Byte ?
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Answer B. String of eight bits
One byte = 8 bits.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q28, final key
- Q25 General Science & Technology
Out of the following who has devised the logical operators AND, OR and NOT ?
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Answer A. George Boole
George Boole developed Boolean algebra with the AND, OR and NOT operations.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q29, final key
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115 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q26 Sustainable Development & Environment
If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, their functioning will be adversely affected because
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Answer D. Mineral movement will be blocked
Decomposers return minerals from dead matter to the soil; without them nutrient cycling stops.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q30, final key
- Q27 Geography of India & AP
Which of the following channels of sea separates India and Srilanka ?
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Answer A. Palk strait
The Palk Strait lies between Tamil Nadu and northern Sri Lanka.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q31, final key
- Q28 Geography of India & AP
Which Himalayan part is lying between the Kali and Teesta River ?
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Answer C. Nepal Himalayas
By river divisions: Punjab (Indus–Sutlej), Kumaon (Sutlej–Kali), Nepal (Kali–Teesta), Assam (Teesta–Dihang).
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q32, final key
- Q29 Geography of India & AP
Which river of the following is South based tributary of the River Ganga ?
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Answer D. Betwa
Ghaghara, Gandak and Kosi join the Ganga from the north; Betwa rises in the peninsula and reaches the Ganga system from the south via the Yamuna.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q33, final key
- Q30 Sustainable Development & Environment
What is the objective of 'National River Conservation Plan' ?
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Answer A. To improve the water quality of the river
NRCP funds pollution abatement works (sewage interception, treatment) to improve river water quality.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q34, final key
- Q31 Geography of India & AP
Which of the following is not a major control of the climate ?
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Answer D. Distance from river
Latitude, altitude and distance from the sea are major climate controls; distance from a river is not.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q35, final key
- Q32 Sustainable Development & Environment
During which year Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India ?
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Answer B. 1972
The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in 1972.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q36, final key
- Q33 Geography of India & AP
Which of the following Indian State is having Red laterite soils ?
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Answer A. Andhra Pradesh
Red and lateritic soils are typical of peninsular states like Andhra Pradesh; the others have alluvial soils.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q37, final key
- Q34 Sustainable Development & Environment
In which State of India Corbet National Park is located ?
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Answer B. Uttarakhand
Jim Corbett National Park (1936), India's first national park, is in Nainital district, Uttarakhand.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q38, final key
- Q35 Geography of India & AP
Who proclaimed that 'dams' are the 'temples of modern India' ?
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Answer D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Jawaharlal Nehru called dams like Bhakra Nangal the temples of modern India.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q39, final key
- Q36 Geography of India & AP
What is the name of shifting cultivation in Bastar District of Chhattisgarh ?
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Answer C. Dipa
Shifting cultivation is called Dipa (or Deepa) in Bastar; Jhum in the north-east, Pamlou in Manipur, Ladang in Malaysia.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q40, final key
- Q37 Geography of India & AP
Which of the following region of India is ideal for utilising Tidal Energy ?
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Answer A. Gulf of Khambhat
The Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay) has India's highest tidal range, making it the best tidal energy site.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q42, final key
- Q38 Geography of India & AP
The longest river flowing in Andhra Pradesh is
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Answer D. Godawari
The Godavari, India's second longest river, is also the longest river flowing through Andhra Pradesh.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q43, final key
- Q39 Geography of India & AP
The main source of irrigation in Andhra Pradesh is
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Answer A. Canals
Canals (Godavari and Krishna delta systems) irrigate the largest area in Andhra Pradesh.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q44, final key
- Q40 Geography of India & AP
The Eastern ghats in Andhra Pradesh are best described as
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Answer C. Discontinuous and eroded hills
The Eastern Ghats are old, broken by rivers like the Godavari and Krishna, and heavily eroded.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q45, final key
- Q41 Sustainable Development & Environment
Which of these best describes the idea of sustainable development ?
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Answer B. A idea first mentioned in the Brundtland Report in 1987, it is "development that meets the needs of the present generations without making it harder for future generations to meet their own needs".
The Brundtland Report 'Our Common Future' (1987) defined sustainable development as meeting present needs without compromising future generations.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q46, final key
- Q42 Sustainable Development & Environment
The three main pillars of sustainable development are
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Answer B. Economic, Environmental and Social
Sustainable development rests on economic growth, environmental protection and social inclusion.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q47, final key
- Q43 Sustainable Development & Environment
What does the Precautionary Principle mean in environmental protection ?
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Answer B. We should take preventive action to protect the environment even if we are not completely sure of the harm
The precautionary principle (Rio Principle 15) says lack of full scientific certainty must not delay measures to prevent serious environmental harm.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q48, final key
- Q44 Sustainable Development & Environment
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the UN wants to
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Answer B. Get rid of poverty, take care of the environment and make sure everyone has peace and plenty
The 17 SDGs (2015, Agenda 2030) aim to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure peace and prosperity for all.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q49, final key
- Q45 Sustainable Development & Environment
The Paris Climate Agreement (2015) mainly aims to
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Answer B. Limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels
The Paris Agreement aims to hold warming well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue 1.5°C.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q50, final key
- Q46 Sustainable Development & Environment
Which of the following best explains the relationship between deforestation and biodiversity loss ?
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Answer B. Deforestation destroys natural habitats, leading to extinction of species and disruption of ecosystems
Clearing forests removes the habitats species depend on, so populations decline or go extinct and food webs and ecosystem functions break down.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q51, final key
- Q47 Sustainable Development & Environment
How can improper waste management, especially biomedical and e-waste, indirectly contribute to deforestation and biodiversity loss ?
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Answer B. By releasing toxic substances into soil and water, damaging ecosystems and forcing land-use changes like deforestation
Biomedical and e-waste leach heavy metals and toxic chemicals into soil and water; this degrades habitats and pushes land-use change such as clearing land for new dumps.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q52, final key
- Q48 Sustainable Development & Environment
What is the main goal of sustainable agriculture ?
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Answer C. To produce food while protecting the environment and conserving resources for the future
Sustainable agriculture aims to meet today's food needs without degrading soil, water and biodiversity, so future generations can also produce food.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q53, final key
- Q49 Sustainable Development & Environment
Which of the following is an example of renewable energy used in the energy transition ?
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Answer D. Solar and Wind energy
Solar and wind are replenished naturally and are the main renewable sources replacing fossil fuels in the energy transition.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q54, final key
- Q50 Sustainable Development & Environment
Which of the following best describes the role of biotechnology in environmental sustainability ?
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Answer A. Using genetically modified microbes and plants to reduce pollution and conserve natural resources
Environmental biotechnology uses engineered microbes and plants for bioremediation, biofertilizers and biodegradable products, cutting pollution and saving resources.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q55, final key
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90 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q51 Sustainable Development & Environment
What is the main difference between Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) and Life-Cycle Assessment (LCA) ?
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Answer C. EIA evaluates environmental impacts before a project starts, while LCA assesses impacts throughout the entire life of a product or process
EIA is a pre-project appraisal of a proposed project's likely effects at a site; LCA traces a product's or process's impacts from raw material extraction to disposal ('cradle to grave').
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q56, final key
- Q52 Sustainable Development & Environment
How do Green Chemistry and Cleaner Production Technologies support the goals of EIA and LCA ?
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Answer D. By reducing waste generation, minimizing pollution and ensuring sustainability throughout a product's life cycle
Green chemistry and cleaner production prevent waste and pollution at source, lowering the impacts that EIA and LCA measure across a product's life.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q57, final key
- Q53 Sustainable Development & Environment
Which of the following statements correctly explains the purpose of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 in India ?
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Answer C. It provides a framework for protecting and improving the environment and controlling all forms of pollution.
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, passed after the Bhopal gas tragedy, is an umbrella law empowering the Centre to protect and improve the environment and prevent, control and abate pollution.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q58, final key
- Q54 Sustainable Development & Environment
How can Artificial Intelligence (AI), Quantum Computing and Data Science together improve environmental monitoring and management ?
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Answer B. By analysing large datasets to predict pollution levels, optimize resource use and simulate complex climate models
These tools process huge sensor and satellite datasets, forecast pollution, optimise resource use and run complex climate simulations that support policy.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q59, final key
- Q55 Disaster Management
Which of the following statements best differentiates between natural and manmade disasters ?
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Answer B. Natural disasters originate from environmental or geological phenomena, whereas manmade disasters result from technological failures or human activities.
The difference lies in origin: natural disasters come from geological, hydro-meteorological or biological processes; manmade ones from technological failure, accidents or human action.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q60, final key
- Q56 Disaster Management
Which of the following statements best reflects the functional role of the Andhra Pradesh State Disaster Management Authority (APSDMA) as per the Disaster Management Act (2005) ?
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Answer B. APSDMA functions as the apex state-level statutory body responsible for formulating policies, approving state disaster management plans and coordinating with the NDMA and district authorities for prevention, mitigation and preparedness activities.
Under Sections 14-18 of the DM Act 2005, each state has an SDMA chaired by the Chief Minister that lays down state policy, approves the State Plan and coordinates with NDMA and DDMAs.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q61, final key
- Q57 Disaster Management
Identify the correct relationship between the geographical regions of Andhra Pradesh and their predominant disaster vulnerabilities.
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Answer C. Coastal districts such as Srikakulam, Vizianagaram and Nellore are highly prone to cyclones and floods, while Rayalaseema districts like Anantapur and Kurnool are more susceptible to droughts due to arid climate and low rainfall
AP's long Bay of Bengal coastline exposes coastal districts to cyclones, storm surges and floods, while semi-arid, low-rainfall Rayalaseema (Anantapur, Kurnool) is chronically drought-prone.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q62, final key
- Q58 Disaster Management
Which of the following statements correctly identifies the institutional hierarchy and primary responsibilities of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) as established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 ?
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Answer B. NDMA, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, is responsible for national policy and coordination, whereas NIDM serves as the apex national institute for training, capacity building and research under NDMA's guidance.
NDMA (Section 3, chaired by the PM) lays down national DM policies and plans; NIDM (Section 42) handles training, research and capacity building within the broad policies set by NDMA.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q63, final key
- Q59 Disaster Management
Which of the following correctly matches the stages of the disaster management cycle with their primary focus areas ?
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Answer D. Pre-disaster – preparedness and mitigation; During-disaster – emergency response; Post-disaster – recovery and rehabilitation
In the DM cycle, prevention, mitigation and preparedness come before a disaster, rescue and relief (response) during it, and recovery, rehabilitation and reconstruction after it.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q64, final key
- Q60 Disaster Management
In earthquake studies, which of the following statements best distinguishes magnitude from intensity ?
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Answer B. Magnitude is measured by the energy released at the focus, whereas intensity refers to the degree of shaking and damage observed at different places
Magnitude (Richter/moment scale) is a single instrumental value for the energy released; intensity (Modified Mercalli scale) describes observed shaking and damage, which varies from place to place.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q65, final key
- Q61 Disaster Management
Which of the following States of India was badly affected by Titli Cyclone in 2018 ?
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Answer A. Andhra Pradesh
Very Severe Cyclonic Storm Titli (October 2018) made landfall near Palasa and devastated Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh along with southern Odisha.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q66, final key
- Q62 Disaster Management
Which of the following combinations correctly lists major causes of floods in India ?
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Answer A. Heavy rainfall, poor drainage, deforestation and dam failure
Floods in India are mainly caused by intense monsoon rain, choked drainage, deforestation in catchments that increases runoff, and dam breaches or sudden releases.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q67, final key
- Q63 Disaster Management
Which is one of the long-term ecological and economic consequences of recurrent droughts ?
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Answer B. Depletion of groundwater, land degradation and rural migration
Repeated droughts force over-pumping of aquifers, degrade land towards desertification and push farm families to migrate for work.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q68, final key
- Q64 Disaster Management
The 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy was primarily caused by the accidental release of which toxic gas ?
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Answer C. Methyl Isocyanate (MIC)
On the night of 2-3 December 1984, methyl isocyanate leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal, killing thousands.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q69, final key
- Q65 Disaster Management
Which of the following statements best shows the link between education and long-term disaster mitigation ?
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Answer D. Educated communities are more likely to follow land-use rules and early warning instructions
Education builds risk awareness, so people respect zoning and building rules and act promptly on warnings, which reduces losses over the long term.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q71, final key
- Q66 Disaster Management
During Cyclone Hudhud (2014), APSDMA's quick coordination between meteorological alerts and district administration helped minimize casualties. Which underlying principle of disaster governance does this reflect ?
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Answer A. Proactive risk governance integrating early warning with preparedness
Acting on IMD warnings before landfall (evacuation, pre-positioning) through district machinery is proactive risk governance that links early warning to preparedness.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q72, final key
- Q67 Disaster Management
A drought-prone district in Rayalaseema adopted a watershed-based community resilience project. After five years, groundwater levels improved, but crop yield remained stagnant. Which factor is most likely responsible for the partial success ?
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Answer D. Community ignored crop diversification and soil management
Rising groundwater shows the watershed works were effective; yields stay flat when farmers keep the same crops and neglect soil health, so the missing farm-level practices explain the partial success.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q73, final key
- Q68 Disaster Management
The main objective of disaster management is to
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Answer B. Reduce loss of life and property
Hazards cannot be eliminated; disaster management aims to reduce risk and minimise loss of life, property and livelihoods.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q74, final key
- Q69 Disaster Management
Which organisation is responsible for disaster management at the National level in India ?
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Answer B. NDMA
The National Disaster Management Authority, set up under the DM Act 2005 and chaired by the Prime Minister, is the apex national body for disaster management.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q75, final key
- Q70 Data Analysis
Study the following Pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below :
Cost estimated by a family in renovation of their house for different works is given in the chart. Total cost estimation is Rs. 3,60,000.
Work Share of estimate Flooring 19% Wood polishing 10% Sanitation 10% Elevation 11% Miscellaneous 9% Doors and windows 12% Painting 16% Interior design 13% During the process of renovation, the family actually incurs interior design expenditure of Rs. 52,200. The interior design expenditure incurred by the family is what percent increased of total estimated cost in it ?
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Answer C. 1.5
Estimated interior design = 13% of 3,60,000 = Rs. 46,800. Excess = 52,200 − 46,800 = Rs. 5,400, which is 5,400/3,60,000 × 100 = 1.5% of the total estimate. (Measured against the interior design estimate itself the rise would be 5,400/46,800 ≈ 11.5%, which is not an option, so the question means a share of the total estimate.)
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q76, final key
- Q71 Data Analysis
Study the following Pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below :
Cost estimated by a family in renovation of their house for different works is given in the chart. Total cost estimation is Rs. 3,60,000.
Work Share of estimate Flooring 19% Wood polishing 10% Sanitation 10% Elevation 11% Miscellaneous 9% Doors and windows 12% Painting 16% Interior design 13% What is the difference between the amount estimated by the family in elevation and wood polishing ?
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Answer D. Rs. 3,600
Elevation 11% − wood polishing 10% = 1% of 3,60,000 = Rs. 3,600.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q77, final key
- Q72 Data Analysis
If the mean of a set of observations x₁, x₂, ..., x₁₀ is 30, then the mean of x₁ + 2, x₂ + 4, ...., x₁₀ + 20 is
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Answer C. 41
Total added = 2 + 4 + ... + 20 = 110, so the mean rises by 110/10 = 11: 30 + 11 = 41.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q78, final key
- Q73 Data Analysis
If Σ(xᵢ − 5) = 30 and Σ(xᵢ − 5)² = 75 (sums over i = 1 to 15), then standard deviation of 15 observations is
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Answer A. 1
With dᵢ = xᵢ − 5: mean of d = 30/15 = 2; variance = 75/15 − 2² = 5 − 4 = 1; SD = 1 (shifting by 5 does not change SD).
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q79, final key
- Q74 Data Analysis
The median of x + 4, x − 7/2, x − 5/2, x − 3, x − 2, x + 1/2, x − 1/2 and x + 5 is ________ (x > 0).
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Answer C. x − 5/4
Ascending order: x−7/2, x−3, x−5/2, x−2, x−1/2, x+1/2, x+4, x+5. With 8 values the median is the mean of the 4th and 5th: (x−2 + x−1/2)/2 = x − 5/4.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q80, final key
- Q75 Data Analysis
The arithmetic mean of 8 observations was calculated as 48. In doing so, an observation was wrongly taken as 91 for 19. What will be the correct mean ?
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Answer D. 39
Wrong total = 8 × 48 = 384; correct total = 384 − 91 + 19 = 312; correct mean = 312/8 = 39.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q81, final key
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65 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
The consecutive even numbers are such that if the first is divided by 4, the second is divided by 3, the third by 7, the sum of the quotients is 39. Find the smallest number.
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Answer C. 52
Let the numbers be n, n+2, n+4: n/4 + (n+2)/3 + (n+4)/7 = 39 gives 61n + 104 = 3276, so n = 52 (check: 13 + 18 + 8 = 39).
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q82, final key
- Q77 Data Analysis
Answer the questions based on Pie charts.
Chart 1 – Shows the distribution by value of top 6 suppliers of rice is 2025.
Chart 2 – Shows the distribution by quantity of top 6 suppliers of rice in 2025.
The total value is Rs. 5,988 millions.
The total quantity is 998 million tonnes. A.P. – Andhra Pradesh, T.N. – Tamil Nadu, Ke – Kerala, Ka – Karnataka, Ma – Maharashtra, Orissa – Orissa
State Chart 1 (value) Chart 2 (quantity) AP 24% 36% TN 11% 8% Ke 10% 9% Ka 20% 14% Ma 18% 15% Orissa 17% 18% Which State has highest average price ?
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Answer C. Karnataka
Average price is proportional to value share ÷ quantity share: Ka 20/14 ≈ 1.43, Ma 18/15 = 1.2, Orissa 17/18 ≈ 0.94, AP 24/36 ≈ 0.67. Karnataka is highest.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q83, final key
- Q78 Data Analysis
Answer the questions based on Pie charts.
Chart 1 – Shows the distribution by value of top 6 suppliers of rice is 2025.
Chart 2 – Shows the distribution by quantity of top 6 suppliers of rice in 2025.
The total value is Rs. 5,988 millions.
The total quantity is 998 million tonnes. A.P. – Andhra Pradesh, T.N. – Tamil Nadu, Ke – Kerala, Ka – Karnataka, Ma – Maharashtra, Orissa – Orissa
State Chart 1 (value) Chart 2 (quantity) AP 24% 36% TN 11% 8% Ke 10% 9% Ka 20% 14% Ma 18% 15% Orissa 17% 18% The average price for Andhra Pradesh is (Million Rs. per 1 ton)
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Answer A. 4
AP value = 24% of 5,988 = 1,437.12 million Rs; AP quantity = 36% of 998 = 359.28 million tonnes; 1,437.12 ÷ 359.28 = 4.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q84, final key
- Q79 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
In an examination, 76% of candidates passed in Physics and 72% passed in Mathematics, 10% failed in both subjects. If 16240 candidates passed in both subjects. How many students appeared for the exams ?
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Answer C. 28000
Passed in at least one = 100 − 10 = 90%; passed both = 76 + 72 − 90 = 58%. Total = 16240 ÷ 0.58 = 28,000.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q85, final key
- Q80 Data Analysis
Answer the questions based on the table given below. There are Army, Navy and Airforce examinations. Number of candidates attended the above examinations, from different cities of India and the number qualified is given in the table (A = appeared ; Q = qualified).
Wings Punjab A Punjab Q Delhi A Delhi Q Bombay A Bombay Q Hyderabad A Hyderabad Q Vishakhapatnam A Vishakhapatnam Q Army 9500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 8800 1020 Navy 6400 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 1010 9750 1250 Airforce 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 1200 8950 0995 What is the average percentage of candidates qualified for Navy over the candidates appeared ?
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Answer B. 11.93
Navy qualified = 780 + 1020 + 890 + 1010 + 1250 = 4,950; appeared = 6400 + 8800 + 7800 + 8750 + 9750 = 41,500; 4,950 ÷ 41,500 × 100 ≈ 11.93%.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q86, final key
- Q81 Data Analysis
Answer the questions based on the table given below. There are Army, Navy and Airforce examinations. Number of candidates attended the above examinations, from different cities of India and the number qualified is given in the table (A = appeared ; Q = qualified).
Wings Punjab A Punjab Q Delhi A Delhi Q Bombay A Bombay Q Hyderabad A Hyderabad Q Vishakhapatnam A Vishakhapatnam Q Army 9500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 8800 1020 Navy 6400 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 1010 9750 1250 Airforce 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 1200 8950 0995 What is the approximate percentage of total number of qualified candidates from all wings together over from Delhi ?
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Answer B. 12
Delhi qualified = 1050 + 1020 + 1240 = 3,310; Delhi appeared = 9200 + 8800 + 9500 = 27,500; 3,310 ÷ 27,500 × 100 ≈ 12%. (Read literally as Delhi's share of all qualified candidates, 3,310 of 15,125 ≈ 21.9%, no option fits; the key uses Delhi's own pass rate.)
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q87, final key
- Q82 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
The average age of a class of 50 students and a teacher reduces by 0.7 years if we exclude the teacher. If the initial average is 18 years, find the age of teacher.
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Answer C. 53
Total with teacher = 51 × 18 = 918; students' total = 50 × 17.3 = 865; teacher = 918 − 865 = 53 years.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q88, final key
- Q83 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
A person covers ¾th of his journey by car at 80 km/h, half of the remainder by auto at 20 km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. Find the average speed during the entire journey.
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Answer C. 35.5 km/h
For a journey of 1 unit: time = (3/4)/80 + (1/8)/20 + (1/8)/10 = 3/320 + 2/320 + 4/320 = 9/320; average speed = 320/9 ≈ 35.56 km/h, given as 35.5 km/h.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q89, final key
- Q84 Data Analysis
For a unimodal data, the mode is 62, median is 58 then its arithmetic mean is
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Answer C. 56
Empirical relation: Mode = 3 Median − 2 Mean, so 62 = 174 − 2 Mean, giving Mean = 56.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q90, final key
- Q85 Indian Economy & Planning
The total income of the country divided by its total population is called
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Answer B. Per Capita Income
Per capita income = national income ÷ population; it shows the average income per person.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q91, final key
- Q86 Indian Economy & Planning
Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on educational levels of people, health status and per capita income, is
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Answer D. Human Development Report
UNDP's Human Development Report (since 1990) ranks countries on the Human Development Index, built from health (life expectancy), education and per capita income.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q92, final key
- Q87 Indian Economy & Planning
Gross Domestic Product is defined as
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Answer B. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year
GDP is the market value of all final goods and services produced within a country's domestic territory in a given year; counting only final goods avoids double counting.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q93, final key
- Q88 Indian Economy & Planning
In India, who will issue currency notes on behalf of the Central Government ?
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Answer A. RBI
Under Section 22 of the RBI Act, 1934 the Reserve Bank has the sole right to issue bank notes in India (one-rupee notes are issued by the Government itself).
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q94, final key
- Q89 Indian Economy & Planning
The Second Five Year Plan was based on a modified Soviet Model. What was that model ?
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Answer C. Mahalanobis Model
The Second Plan (1956-61) followed P. C. Mahalanobis's two/four-sector model stressing rapid growth of heavy and basic industries.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q95, final key
- Q90 Current Events
Which city in AP is being developed as Global AI hub ?
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Answer D. Visakhapatnam
In 2025 Google announced a gigawatt-scale AI hub and data centre campus in Visakhapatnam, branding it India's AI hub.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q96, final key
- Q91 Indian Economy & Planning
How many Sutralu (Guiding Principles) were proposed to help achieve the goals of Swarna Andhra Vision 2047 ?
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Answer C. Only 10
The Swarna Andhra @ 2047 vision document sets out ten guiding principles (Das Sutralu), such as zero poverty, skilling, water security and farming using deep tech.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q97, final key
- Q92 Indian Economy & Planning
What is the primary economic target set for Andhra Pradesh under the Swarna Andhra @ 2047 vision by the year 2047 ?
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Answer A. Rs. 308 Lakh crore economy
Swarna Andhra @ 2047 targets a GSDP of about USD 2.4 trillion (≈ Rs. 308 lakh crore) by 2047, with per capita income around USD 42,000.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q98, final key
- Q93 Indian Economy & Planning
Which sector is characterized by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government ?
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Answer B. Unorganised sector
The unorganised (informal) sector consists of small, scattered enterprises that are largely unregistered and outside government regulation.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q99, final key
- Q94 Indian Economy & Planning
Planning Commission of India was established in
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Answer B. 1950
The Planning Commission was set up by a resolution of the Union Government in March 1950, with Jawaharlal Nehru as its first chairman.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q101, final key
- Q95 Indian Economy & Planning
Disguised unemployment is mainly found in
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Answer C. Agriculture
Disguised unemployment means more people work on a job than needed, so their marginal productivity is near zero; it is typical of family farms in Indian agriculture.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q102, final key
- Q96 Indian Economy & Planning
Per Capita Income is obtained by
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Answer B. National Income ÷ Population
Per capita income is national income divided by the total population of the country.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q103, final key
- Q97 Indian Economy & Planning
Green Revolution mainly increased the production of
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Answer C. Wheat and Rice
The Green Revolution of the late 1960s used high-yielding varieties, irrigation and fertilisers, and its gains were mostly in wheat and later rice.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q104, final key
- Q98 Indian Economy & Planning
NITI Aayog was established in
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Answer C. 2015
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on 1 January 2015.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q105, final key
- Q99 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
If blue is written as green, green is written as red, red is written as yellow, yellow is written as black and black is written as white then what is the color of turmeric ?
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Answer C. Black
Turmeric is yellow, and in this code yellow is written as black, so the answer is black.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q107, final key
- Q100 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Identify the game which is different from others :
Cricket, Baseball, Football, Billiards, Badminton
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Answer C. Billiards
Cricket, baseball, football and badminton are played in the open field or court with players moving around; billiards is a cue sport played on a table, so it is the odd one.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q108, final key
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40 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
If ÷ denotes –, × denotes +, – denotes ×, + denotes ÷, then 28 × 12 + 4 ÷ 6 – 4 = ?
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Answer D. 7
Replace the signs: 28 + 12 ÷ 4 – 6 × 4 = 28 + 3 – 24 = 7.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q109, final key
- Q102 Data Analysis
The table represents the expenditure of a company (in thousand rupees) per annum over the given year. What is the average amount of salary per year which the company has to pay during these four years ?
Year Salary Transport Interest Tax 2020 200 90 3 80 2021 250 100 2.5 100 2022 300 120 3 70 2023 350 130 3.5 80 Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Rs. 2,75,000
Average salary = (200 + 250 + 300 + 350) ÷ 4 = 1100 ÷ 4 = 275 thousand = Rs. 2,75,000.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q110, final key
- Q103 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
If January 8, 2004 was a Thursday, then what day of the week is January 11, 2005 ?
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Answer C. Tuesday
From 8 Jan 2004 to 8 Jan 2005 is 366 days (2004 is a leap year and includes 29 Feb), i.e. 2 odd days, so 8 Jan 2005 is Saturday; 3 days later, 11 Jan 2005 is Tuesday.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q112, final key
- Q104 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
A class has 50 students with average weight of 45 kgs. Out of these there are 30 girls with average weight of 42.5 kgs. What is the average weight of boys ?
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Answer B. 48.75
Total = 50 × 45 = 2250 kg; girls = 30 × 42.5 = 1275 kg; boys = 975 ÷ 20 = 48.75 kg.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q113, final key
- Q105 Data Analysis
If the median and mean of a data are respectively 30.5 and 26.2 then the mode is
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Answer D. 39.1
Empirical relation: Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean = 91.5 – 52.4 = 39.1.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q114, final key
- Q106 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
Eight boxes are kept one above the other. The red box is kept between the white and pink boxes. The indigo box is kept between black and green boxes. The green box is kept immediately above the white box which is box number four from below. Seven boxes are kept above the yellow box. Where is the blue box kept ?
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Answer D. Above the black box
From the bottom: yellow 1, white 4, green 5; red must sit between white and pink, so pink 2 and red 3; indigo is between green and black, so indigo 6, black 7, leaving blue at 8, the top, above the black box.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q115, final key
- Q107 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
P, Q, X, Y and Z have different heights. Q is taller than X but shorter than P. X is taller than Y. Z is taller than Y. More than two people are taller than Z. How many people are taller than Y ?
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Answer A. 4
P > Q > X > Y and Z > Y. Since more than two people are taller than Z, P, Q and X are all taller than Z, so the order is P > Q > X > Z > Y and all four others are taller than Y.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q116, final key
- Q108 Data Analysis
What is the variance of the following data ?
Class Interval 4 – 8 8 – 12 12 – 16 16 – 20 Frequency 3 6 4 7 Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 19
Mid-points 6, 10, 14, 18 with N = 20: mean = 260 ÷ 20 = 13; Σfx² = 3760, so variance = 3760 ÷ 20 – 13² = 188 – 169 = 19.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q117, final key
- Q109 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
A person puts one coin at 1'O clock, two coins at 2'O clock, 3 coins at 3'O clock and so on in a box. Then the number of coins he has put in the box between 6.30 am to 6.30 pm in a day is
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Answer A. 78
Hours struck between 6.30 am and 6.30 pm: 7 to 12 (57 coins) and 1 to 6 pm (21 coins); total 57 + 21 = 78.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q118, final key
- Q110 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
The mean of 99 employees out of 100 employees is Rs. 50. If the salary of 100th employee is Rs. 49.50 more than the average mean salary of 100 employees, then the mean (average) of all the employees, is
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Answer A. 50.50
Let the mean be M. Then 100M = 99 × 50 + (M + 49.5), so 99M = 4999.5 and M = 50.50.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q119, final key
- Q111 Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability
If PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 and RISK is coded as 2398, then RIVETS is coded as
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Answer C. 234769
From the codes R = 2, I = 3, V = 4, E = 7, T = 6, S = 9, so RIVETS = 2 3 4 7 6 9.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q120, final key
- Q112 History of India & AP
Who was the ruler of the Delhi when Portuguese made their entry into India ?
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Answer A. Sikandar Lodi
Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498, when Sikandar Lodi (1489–1517) ruled Delhi.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q122, final key
- Q113 History of India & AP
Who was the governor general during the time of second Anglo-Mysore battle ?
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Answer B. Warren Hastings
The Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780–84) was fought when Warren Hastings was Governor-General; it ended with the Treaty of Mangalore.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q123, final key
- Q114 History of India & AP
"Treaty of Mungi - Shevagaon" was agreed upon between
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Answer A. The Marathas and The Nizam
After Baji Rao I defeated Nizam-ul-Mulk at Palkhed in 1728, the Treaty of Mungi-Shevgaon was signed between the Marathas and the Nizam.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q124, final key
- Q115 History of India & AP
According to the Civil (local) Marriage Act, 1872, what is the marriageable age for the girl and boy ?
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Answer D. 14 and 18
The Native (Civil) Marriage Act, 1872, promoted by Keshab Chandra Sen and the Brahmo Samaj, fixed the minimum age at 14 for girls and 18 for boys.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q125, final key
- Q116 History of India & AP
Responsible governments were introduced in provinces/states after dismantling dual rule/administration through which Act ?
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Answer A. Indian Government Act, 1935
The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces and gave them provincial autonomy with responsible governments.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q126, final key
- Q117 History of India & AP
Which governor general eased the entry of British investors and traders into India without any problems ?
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Answer A. William Bentink
Under William Bentinck, the Charter Act of 1833 ended the Company's trade and allowed Europeans to settle and own land in India freely, opening the country to British investors and traders.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q127, final key
- Q118 History of India & AP
Who worked three times as the Chairman of Indian National Congress and was called as its grandfather ?
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Answer B. Dadabhai Naoroji
Dadabhai Naoroji presided over the Congress in 1886, 1893 and 1906 and is called the Grand Old Man of India.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q128, final key
- Q119 History of India & AP
Who presided over the Nagpur Congress Session in 1891 ?
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Answer C. P. Anandacharyulu
P. Ananda Charlu, a lawyer from Chittoor district, presided over the 7th Congress session at Nagpur in 1891, the first Andhra to do so.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q129, final key
- Q120 History of India & AP
The first State formed on linguistic basis after independence was
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Answer D. Andhra Pradesh
Andhra State, carved out of Madras on 1 October 1953 after Potti Sriramulu's fast, was the first state formed on a linguistic basis after independence; it became Andhra Pradesh in 1956.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q130, final key
- Q121 History of India & AP
The French factory in Andhra Pradesh was established at
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Answer B. Machilipatnam
The French set up their factory at Machilipatnam in 1669, after getting a farman from the Golconda Sultan.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q131, final key
- Q122 History of India & AP
In the State of Andhra Pradesh, Ryotwari System was first introduced in
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Answer A. Rayalaseema
Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari system in the Ceded Districts (Rayalaseema) as Principal Collector from 1800; the Circars had the zamindari settlement.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q132, final key
- Q123 Indian Polity & Governance
In the Indian Constitution which article empowers governor to appoint Anglo Indian Members ?
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Answer C. Article 333
Article 333 allowed the Governor to nominate one Anglo-Indian to the Legislative Assembly; the provision lapsed in 2020 under the 104th Amendment.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q133, final key
- Q124 Indian Polity & Governance
Who is the president of apex council which monitors the Godavari and Krishna water management boards ?
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Answer C. Central Water Resource Minister
Under Section 84 of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014, the Apex Council supervising the Godavari and Krishna River Management Boards is chaired by the Union Minister of Water Resources, with both Chief Ministers as members.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q134, final key
- Q125 History of India & AP
In which district was the first Adi Andhra Session held ?
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Answer A. Krishna
The first Adi Andhra conference of the Dalit (Adi Andhra) movement was held at Vijayawada in Krishna district in 1917.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q135, final key
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15 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q126 Indian Polity & Governance
Who among the following has got authority under our constitution to provide a joint service commission for a group of states ?
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Answer B. The parliament
Under Article 315, Parliament can by law create a Joint State Public Service Commission when the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions asking for it.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q136, final key
- Q127 Indian Polity & Governance
The chairman and members of NHRC are appointed by
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Answer B. The President
The President appoints the NHRC chairperson and members on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q137, final key
- Q128 Indian Polity & Governance
Right to property belongs to which one of the following categories.
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Answer A. Legal Right
The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Part III; it is now a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q138, final key
- Q129 Indian Polity & Governance
Which article empowers the individual to move to supreme court directly for violation of any fundamental right ?
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Answer C. Article 32
Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, lets a person go directly to the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q139, final key
- Q130 Indian Polity & Governance
Which Parliamentary Committee is known as the "Ombudsmen" ?
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Answer B. Petitions Committee
The Committee on Petitions examines citizens' petitions and complaints against the administration, so it works like an ombudsman for the public.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q140, final key
- Q131 Indian Economy & Planning
What is the NABARD'S primary role ?
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Answer C. To act as refinance institution
NABARD is the apex development bank for agriculture and rural areas; its main role is to refinance cooperative banks, RRBs and others that lend in rural areas.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q141, final key
- Q132 Indian Economy & Planning
Where has the SBI inaugurated the country's first overseas banking unit (OBU) ?
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Answer D. Mumbai
SBI opened India's first offshore banking unit in the SEEPZ Special Economic Zone at Mumbai in 2003.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q142, final key
- Q133 Indian Economy & Planning
To prevent scams in Indian Capital Market, the government has assigned regulatory powers to ?
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Answer D. SEBI
SEBI, made a statutory body in 1992 after the securities scam, regulates India's capital market and protects investors.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q143, final key
- Q134 Indian Economy & Planning
The place where bankers meet and settle their mutual claims and accounts is known as
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Answer B. Clearing House
A clearing house is where banks exchange cheques and settle what they owe one another.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q144, final key
- Q135 Indian Polity & Governance
Operation blackboard aims at
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Answer D. Providing primary education in an educationally backward area
Operation Blackboard (1987), from the National Policy on Education 1986, aimed to give every primary school basic facilities and teachers, improving primary education in backward areas.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q145, final key
- Q136 Indian Economy & Planning
Integrated Rural Development Program envisages
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Answer D. Assistance to poor rural families to come up above the poverty line
IRDP (1978–80) gave subsidised assets and credit to rural poor families so that they could rise above the poverty line.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q146, final key
- Q137 Indian Economy & Planning
A key objective of the Talliki Vandanam Scheme is to reduce the burden of schooling cost, thus improving
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Answer B. The Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER)
Talliki Vandanam gives Rs. 15,000 a year to mothers for each school-going child in Andhra Pradesh, to cut schooling costs and raise the Gross Enrolment Ratio.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q147, final key
- Q138 General Science & Technology
Nation wide mobile number portability has been operational form
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Answer D. July 3rd 2015
Full (pan-India) mobile number portability, letting users keep their number when moving to another circle, began on 3 July 2015.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q148, final key
- Q139 Indian Polity & Governance
Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan launched on 9th July 2015 by
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Answer C. Sri APJ Abdul Kalam
Former President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam launched the Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan, which encourages science and maths learning among school children, on 9 July 2015.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q149, final key
- Q140 Indian Polity & Governance
Sampada is a facility for e-registration of property documents launched by which State ?
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Answer C. Madhya Pradesh
SAMPADA is Madhya Pradesh's online system for e-registration and e-stamping of property documents.
Source: APPSC EO Grade III 2026 Paper I (Notification 10/2025), Q150, final key
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