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APPSC ASO 2025 Paper II question paper with answers
- 140 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
- Year 2025
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this paper (10)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Economic Concepts
A statement has been given below followed by two conclusions. Assuming given statement to be true which of the following options will be correct for given conclusions.
Statement: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to reduce excess liquidity in the economy.
Conclusions:
I. An increase in CRR leads to a decrease in the lending capacity of banks.
II. An increase in CRR results in higher money supply in the economy.
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Answer A. Only Conclusion 1 follows
A higher CRR locks more of the banks' deposits with the RBI, so banks can lend less; this contracts, not expands, the money supply.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q1, final key
- Q2 Indian Economics
Which occupational category includes laborers who directly depend on natural resources for their work?
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Answer C. Primary occupational structure
The primary sector covers activities that draw directly on natural resources, such as agriculture, fishing, forestry and mining.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q2, final key
- Q3 Economic Concepts
Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below:
List-I List-II A. cash reserve ratio i. Buying and selling of government securities B. Expansionary monetary policy ii. Mandatory Percentage of reserves to be maintained by commercial banks C. Open market operations iii. Increasing money supply in the economy D. Central bank of a country iv. manages the monetary policy of a country Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
CRR is the mandatory reserve percentage, expansionary policy raises money supply, OMO is buying and selling government securities, and the central bank manages monetary policy.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q3, final key
- Q4 International Economics
Which of the following is most likely not the benefit accrued due to Foreign trade ?
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Answer D. Increase in the government expenditure on infrastructure
Specialisation, technology transfer and wider markets are direct gains from trade; higher government spending on infrastructure is a fiscal decision, not a benefit that trade itself brings.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q4, final key
- Q5 Indian Economics
Which one of the following is not a consequence of rural urban disparities prevailing in an economy?
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Answer D. More people will be moving to rural areas in order to work on agricultural sector
Rural-urban disparities push people from villages to towns, crowding cities and straining urban services; they do not draw people back to rural farm work.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q5, final key
- Q6 International Economics
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Free trade zones promote trade without any restriction between countries agreed to it.
Reason (R): The countries agree to free trade because both exporting and importing mutually gain from trade.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Members of a free trade area remove barriers among themselves, and they do so because each side gains from trade, so R explains A.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q6, final key
- Q7 Indian Economics
Consider the following statements:
Statement A: The Poverty line is determined by the minimum income at which food and non food basic necessities can be met.
Statement B: The headcount index measures the percentage of population living above the poverty line
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. Only Statement A is correct
The poverty line is the minimum income needed for basic food and non-food needs; the headcount ratio measures the share of people below, not above, that line.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q7, final key
- Q8 Economic Concepts
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Statement A: Market demand and supply determine the equilibrium in the perfect competitive industry, and all firms act as a price taker.
Statement B: A firm decides what price to be charged in the perfect competitive market.
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Answer A. Only statement A is true
Under perfect competition the industry's demand and supply set the price, and each firm simply accepts it; no single firm sets price.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q8, final key
- Q9 International Economics
In which of the following situations does Aid work better than Trade?
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Answer B. For relief in case of emergency
In emergencies such as disasters or famine, quick aid brings relief that trade cannot; specialisation, productivity and market access are gains from trade.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q9, final key
- Q10 International Economics
Capital does NOT boost economic growth in which of the following ways?
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Answer D. It is required for changing taste and preferences of the consumer
Capital raises output by making labour more productive and by building transport, communication, industry and agriculture; it has no role in changing consumer tastes.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q10, final key
- Q11 International Economics
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of a good International Monetary system?
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Answer D. Equilibrium distribution of income within each nation of the world
A good international monetary system promotes trade and investment flows and an equitable share of gains among nations; income distribution inside each country is a domestic matter.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q11, final key
- Q12 Economic Concepts
If budget account of government is in the surplus, what does it mean?
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Answer A. Government tax revenue collection is more than government spending and government transfer payments
A budget surplus means revenue exceeds total spending including transfers, so the government need not borrow.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q12, final key
- Q13 Economic Concepts
In income method of national income accounting, which of the following is NOT included while calculating the national income of India?
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Answer D. Salaries paid to Australian citizen working in Indian embassy in Australia
An Indian embassy abroad is part of India's economic territory, so this salary counts in India's domestic product; but an Australian citizen working there in Australia is a resident of Australia, so the salary is factor income paid to a non-resident and is excluded from India's national income.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q13, final key
- Q14 Economic Concepts
Demand of good or service is said to be elastic if its elasticity satisfies which of the following conditions?
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Answer C. Ed>1
Demand is elastic when the percentage change in quantity demanded exceeds the percentage change in price, i.e. Ed > 1.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q15, final key
- Q15 International Economics
Match the following economic concepts with their correct descriptions:
(i) Economic Terms:
1. Balance of Payments (BoP)
2. Balance of Trade (BOT)
3. Autonomous Transactions
(ii) Descriptions:
A. Difference between the value of exports and value of imports of goods.
B. Summaries the economic transactions of an economy with the rest of the World
C. Occur due to economic reasons independent of the state of the Balance of Payments
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Answer C. 1 → B, 2 → A, 3 → C
BoP records all transactions with the rest of the world, BoT is exports minus imports of goods, and autonomous transactions happen for their own economic motives regardless of the BoP position.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q16, final key
- Q16 Indian Economics
Population density is generally expressed as:
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Answer A. Number of people per square kilometer
Population density is the number of persons living per square kilometre of area.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q17, final key
- Q17 Indian Economics
Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below
List-I List-II A. Disguised unemployment i. Primary sector. B. In India, largest percentage of labour force is employed in ii. More people working in agriculture than required C. Informal sector iii. movement of labor from one place to another for work D. migration iv. no job security and unregulated work Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
Disguised unemployment is surplus labour on farms, the primary sector employs the largest share of India's workers, the informal sector lacks job security, and migration is movement for work.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q18, final key
- Q18 International Economics
Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below:
List-I List-II A. Retained earnings i. Investment in skill development and education B. Human capital creation ii. Profits reinvested by the company instead of distributing as dividend C. Equity financing iii. Investment in infrastructure and building D. Physical capital iv. Raising funds by selling shares Show answerHide answer
Answer D. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
Retained earnings are reinvested profits, human capital comes from education and skills, equity financing raises money by selling shares, and physical capital is infrastructure and buildings.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q19, final key
- Q19 Indian Economics
Which one of the following is the agricultural policy implemented for the benefit of farmers/ producers?
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Answer A. Minimum support price
The Minimum Support Price assures farmers a floor price for their crops; PDS mainly serves consumers.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q20, final key
- Q20 Economic Concepts
Out of the following course of actions, which one comes under the fiscal policy?
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Answer C. Income tax rates have been decreased
Fiscal policy uses government taxes and spending; changing income tax rates is fiscal, while CRR, open market operations and the discount rate are monetary tools.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q21, final key
- Q21 Indian Economics
Which one of the following is the problem associated with economic planning in India which leads to economic reforms in early 1990’s?
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Answer D. High inflation and fiscal deficit
The 1991 crisis came from high inflation, large fiscal deficits and a balance of payments crisis, which led to the LPG reforms.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q22, final key
- Q22 Indian Economics
Which one of the following is not the reason for increased regional imbalances?
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Answer D. Uniform education system across regions
Concentrated industry, low-productivity farming and uneven natural endowments widen regional gaps; a uniform education system would reduce, not widen, them.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q23, final key
- Q23 Indian Economics
Which of the following is one of the negative impact of External debt?
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Answer D. Dependency on foreign countries or institutions can lead to comprising political freedom
Heavy reliance on foreign lenders can bring conditions that limit a country's policy and political independence; the other options are benefits of external borrowing.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q24, final key
- Q24 International Economics
Consider the following statements:
Statement A: The increasing size of market enables the division of labor which in return lead to increase in the productivity.
Statement B: Productivity of labor increases if more output can be produced using the same units of labor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both Statements A and B are correct
As Adam Smith noted, a wider market allows greater division of labour and higher productivity; labour productivity is output per unit of labour, so more output from the same labour means higher productivity.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q25, final key
- Q25 Economic Concepts
With reference to inflation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Statement A: Contractionary monetary policy is used by the central bank in order to keep a check on inflation.
Statement B: Inflation can be measured by comparing the price of a single good with its price in the previous period.
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Answer A. Only Statement A is correct
Central banks tighten monetary policy to curb inflation; inflation is a rise in the general price level measured by a price index of many goods, not one good's price.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q26, final key
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Start free - Q26 Economic Concepts
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The demand of a tea is directly related to price of coffee.
Reason (R): The cross price elasticity of demand between two substitute goods is always positive.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Tea and coffee are substitutes, so a rise in coffee's price raises tea demand; that direct relation is exactly what a positive cross price elasticity between substitutes means.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q28, final key
- Q27 International Economics
If human capital is created, then what does it mean?
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Answer A. That with same human capital more quantity of product can be produced
Human capital formation (education, skills, health) raises the productivity of workers, so the same human resources can produce more output.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q29, final key
- Q28 International Economics
Which of the following is the objective of International Development Association, one of the associations of World Bank?
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Answer A. To assist poorer countries of the world in removal of poverty
IDA, the World Bank's soft-loan window set up in 1960, gives concessional loans and grants to the poorest countries to reduce poverty.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q30, final key
- Q29 International Economics
Which of the following is recorded on the credit side of the balance of payment?
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Answer B. Financial inflows
Any transaction that brings foreign exchange into the country, such as capital or financial inflows, is a credit entry; imports, outflows and transfers paid abroad are debits.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q31, final key
- Q30 International Economics
Which of the following is NOT an argument for moving to protectionism from free trade?
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Answer D. To control the inflation
Infant industry, protecting domestic labour and correcting a BoP deficit are standard arguments for protection; tariffs raise import prices, so protection tends to raise, not control, inflation.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q32, final key
- Q31 Economic Concepts
Which of the following statements is NOT true for Inflation rate?
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Answer D. Inflation = nominal interest rate/real interest rate
By the Fisher relation, inflation is approximately nominal minus real interest rate, not their ratio; the percentage change in the price level and the monetarist view are both valid.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q33, final key
- Q32 Economic Concepts
According to quantity theory of money (MV = PY), if money supply increases, keeping velocity constant, then it implies which of the following?
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Answer A. Nominal output or GDP will increase
With V fixed, a rise in M must raise PY, which is nominal GDP.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q34, final key
- Q33 Economic Concepts
The natural rate of unemployment is equal to:
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Answer B. Frictional unemployment + structural unemployment
The natural rate is the unemployment that remains when the economy is at full employment, i.e. frictional plus structural; cyclical unemployment is excluded.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q35, final key
- Q34 Indian Economics
A statement has been given below followed by two conclusions. Assuming given statement to be true, which of the following options will be correct for given conclusions.
Statement: The service sector in India has expanded rapidly, contributing significantly to national income, employment, and foreign investments.
Conclusions:
I. The service sector is a major driver of economic growth in India.
II. Manufacturing and agriculture have become irrelevant to economic growth.
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Answer A. Only Conclusion 1 follows
A large and growing contribution to income, jobs and investment makes services a major growth driver, but nothing in the statement says other sectors have become irrelevant.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q36, final key
- Q35 Economic Concepts
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In a perfectly competitive market, equilibrium is reached when market supply equals market demand at a specific price and quantity.
Reason (R): The equilibrium price is determined by the interaction of supply and demand forces.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Equilibrium occurs where market demand equals market supply, and that point is found precisely through the interaction of demand and supply, so R explains A.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q37, final key
- Q36 Economic Concepts
In a perfectly competitive market, firms are considered:
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Answer B. Price takers, as they accept the market-determined price
Each firm is too small to affect the market price, so it accepts the price set by industry demand and supply.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q38, final key
- Q37 Indian Economics
Which of the following is not the negative impact of parallel economy?
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Answer D. Some employment opportunities are created in the informal sector
Tax evasion, corruption and inflation from unaccounted money are harms of black money; creating some informal jobs is, if anything, a side benefit.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q39, final key
- Q38 Indian Economics
The Public Distribution System is the program implemented to take care of poor people in India. Which one of the following is the key objective of PDS?
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Answer B. To provide food to the poor
PDS distributes food grains and essentials at subsidised prices through ration shops to ensure food security for the poor.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q40, final key
- Q39 Indian Economics
With reference to inequality, consider the following statements:
• Initially, when a country starts growing, inequality can increase given the fact that more focus will be on industrial growth to achieve economic growth; therefore, less labor will be employed and more capital will be employed
• The Lorenz curve helps in evaluating the distribution of income in an economy and therefore tries to measure inequality prevailing in the market.
• The only type of inequality which is prevalent in India is regional inequality
How many of the above statements are correct?
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Answer B. Only two
Inequality tends to rise in early growth (Kuznets), and the Lorenz curve measures income distribution, so the first two are true; India has income, gender, social and regional inequality, so the third is false.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q41, final key
- Q40 Economic Concepts
Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below:
List-I List-II A. Nominal Rate of interest is i. Entrepreneur B. Inflation adjusted rate of interest ii. Profit is one of the component C. Profit is the factor of payment to iii. Promised rate of interest written on bond papers D. In income method of GDP calculation iv. Real rate of interest Show answerHide answer
Answer C. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
The nominal rate is the stated rate on a bond, the inflation-adjusted rate is the real rate, profit is the reward of the entrepreneur, and profit is one component of income-method GDP.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q42, final key
- Q41 Indian Economics
Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical quality of life index which is an indicator of economic development?
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Answer D. per capita real domestic product
Morris D. Morris's PQLI combines life expectancy (at age one), infant mortality and basic literacy; it deliberately leaves out income measures such as per capita GDP.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q43, final key
- Q42 International Economics
Under labour theory of value, the value of a good is determined by:
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Answer A. Amount of labour going into production of 1 unit of a good, ignoring the role of capital
In the classical labour theory of value (used in Ricardo's comparative advantage), a good's value depends only on the labour needed to make it.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q44, final key
- Q43 International Economics
While the immediate cause of the collapse of Bretton woods system is BOP deficits of the United States, the fundamental cause lies in the interrelated problems between which of the following features?
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Answer A. Liquidity, adjustment and confidence
The Bretton Woods system broke down because of the linked problems of liquidity, adjustment and confidence (the Triffin dilemma): reserve growth depended on US deficits, which eroded confidence in the dollar.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q45, final key
- Q44 International Economics
Under the flexible exchange rate system, in case of deficit, for balance of payment adjustment, which of the following is the appropriate policy?
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Answer A. Depreciation
Under floating rates a deficit lowers the currency's market value (depreciation), making exports cheaper and imports dearer; devaluation is the deliberate cut under a fixed rate system.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q46, final key
- Q45 Economic Concepts
If person A has taken a loan of $10,000 from bank XYZ and will be paying back in instalments in 25 years, then here which function of money is being performed?
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Answer D. Standard of deferred payments
Money used to settle a debt in future instalments serves as a standard of deferred payments.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q47, final key
- Q46 Economic Concepts
Which of the following is NOT part of consumption in national income accounting?
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Answer A. Consumption of fixed capital
Consumption of fixed capital is depreciation, which is deducted to move from gross to net product; household consumption covers durables, non-durables and services.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q48, final key
- Q47 Economic Concepts
If an engineer is earning $5,000 and has to pay income tax of 10%, after which decides to save $400, how much he must be spending on purchase of goods and services?
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Answer B. $4,100
Tax = 10% of 5,000 = 500, so disposable income = 4,500; consumption = 4,500 − 400 saving = $4,100.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q49, final key
- Q48 Financial Accounting
Match the requirement or condition with its related legal/accounting basis under the Companies Act, 2013.
Column A Column B A. Use of accrual and double-entry system 1. Mandatory compliance with notified Accounting Standards B. Filing of financial statements at AGM 2. Section 129 requirement for Board of Directors C. Compliance with format in Schedule III 3. Applicable to companies not governed by special acts D. Accounting standards application 4. Basis of maintaining company books of account Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Section 128 requires books on accrual and double-entry basis; Section 129 requires the Board to lay financial statements at the AGM; Schedule III formats apply to companies other than those governed by special acts; notified Accounting Standards must be complied with.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q50, final key
- Q49 Financial Accounting
Which of the following reflects the primary operational benefit of using subsidiary books in a large organisation?
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Answer C. Enables division of work and faster, specialised transaction recording
Splitting the journal into subsidiary books (purchases, sales, cash, returns books) lets different clerks record different kinds of transactions at the same time, so work is divided and recording is faster and specialised.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q51, final key
- Q50 Financial Accounting
What is the primary book of original entry where all transactions are recorded first?
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Answer C. Journal
Transactions are first recorded chronologically in the journal (book of original or prime entry) and then posted to the ledger.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q52, final key
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Start free - Q51 Financial Accounting
What does the Business Entity Concept primarily emphasize?
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Answer C. Treating business and owner as separate entities
Under the business entity concept the business is treated as distinct from its owner, so only business transactions are recorded and capital is shown as owed to the owner.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q53, final key
- Q52 Financial Accounting
Which of the following is the correct accounting equation?
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Answer C. Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity
Every resource of the business is financed either by outsiders or by the owner, so Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q54, final key
- Q53 Financial Accounting
Which of the following best explains the dual record system of the bank and customer for the same transaction?
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Answer C. The Cash Book’s debit side corresponds to the Pass Book’s credit side
A deposit is a debit in the customer's cash book (bank column) but a credit in the pass book, because the bank owes that money to the customer; the two records are mirror images.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q55, final key
- Q54 Financial Accounting
Which accounting concept is considered to meet the three essential criteria of relevance, objectivity, and feasibility?
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Answer B. Cost Concept
Historical cost is preferred as the basis of recording because it is relevant, objective (verifiable from documents) and feasible to apply, which is how textbooks justify the cost concept.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q56, final key
- Q55 Financial Accounting
What do liabilities represent in accounting?
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Answer B. The obligations payable by the business to others
Liabilities are amounts the business owes to outsiders, such as creditors, loans and outstanding expenses.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q57, final key
- Q56 Financial Accounting
Match the term with its correct explanation.
Column A Column B A. Journal 1. Grouping similar transactions B. Ledger 2. First book of original entry C. Narration 3. Brief explanation of a transaction D. Classification 4. Used for preparing trial balance Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
The journal is the first book of original entry, ledger balances are used to prepare the trial balance, narration briefly explains each entry, and classification groups similar transactions.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q58, final key
- Q57 Financial Accounting
In the context of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the key requirement regarding the location of books of accounts?
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Answer C. At the company’s registered office
Section 128 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires books of account to be kept at the registered office (another place in India is allowed only by a Board decision notified to the Registrar).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q59, final key
- Q58 Financial Accounting
In the Cash Book, how are cash transactions recorded to reflect the nature of financial movement?
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Answer C. Cash receipts are recorded on the debit side, and cash payments on the credit side.
The cash book is kept like a cash account: receipts (cash coming in) go on the debit side and payments (cash going out) on the credit side.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q60, final key
- Q59 Financial Accounting
Which of the following statements regarding events and transactions is true?
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Answer B. All transactions are events, but not all events are transactions.
A transaction is an event that involves an exchange measurable in money; many events (for example, placing an order or hiring staff) are not transactions until money value changes hands.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q61, final key
- Q60 Financial Accounting
Which accounting concept refers to the practice of recording transactions using a standard unit of currency, such as the US dollar?
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Answer B. Monetary Measurement Concept
The money measurement concept says only transactions expressible in a common monetary unit are recorded, and they are recorded in that unit.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q62, final key
- Q61 Dispersion & Skewness
For the set of observations 7.4, 12.2, 8.6, 7.7, 9.3, 5.8, 11.6, 8.8, 9.0, the range is equal to:
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Answer B. 6.4
Range = largest − smallest = 12.2 − 5.8 = 6.4.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q63, final key
- Q62 Time Series & Index Numbers
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): Ratio to Moving Average Method is the best and widely used method for estimating the seasonal fluctuations in a time series
Reasoning (R): Ratio to Moving Average Method irons out both trend and cyclical components from the indices of seasonal variations.
In the light of above, choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and B are true and R is correct explanation of A.
The ratio-to-moving-average method is regarded as the most satisfactory and widely used method of seasonal indices because the centred moving average removes the trend and cyclical components, leaving the seasonal (and irregular) part. So both are true and R explains A.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q64, final key
- Q63 Time Series & Index Numbers
A major limitation in construction of index numbers is which of the following?
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Answer A. Index numbers are liable to be manipulated by selfish persons to obtain desired results.
Because choice of base year, items, weights and formula is left to the compiler, index numbers can be manipulated to show a desired result, a well-known limitation.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q65, final key
- Q64 Time Series & Index Numbers
If Laspeyer’s quantity and Paasche’s quantity index numbers are given as 120.69 and 120.62, then Fisher’s quantity index number is equal to:
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Answer B. 120.65
Fisher's index = sqrt(L × P) = sqrt(120.69 × 120.62) ≈ 120.65 (the geometric mean lies between the two).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q66, final key
- Q65 Time Series & Index Numbers
Which of the following is not the limitation of Index numbers?
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Answer C. These can not be used for wage policy of the government
Index numbers (especially cost of living indices) are in fact used to fix wages and dearness allowance, so the claim that they cannot be used for wage policy is false and is not a limitation. The other three are standard limitations.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q67, final key
- Q66 Dispersion & Skewness
Match the following:
Column I Column II 1. Normal Distribution is I. Mode 2. Mean of Normal Distribution is same as II. unimodal 3. Quartile deviation for normal distribution III. symmetric 4. Normal distribution IV. two third of standard deviation Choose the correct option.
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Answer D. I- III; 2-I ; 3- IV; 4-II
The normal distribution is symmetric (1-III), its mean equals its mode (2-I), its quartile deviation is about two-thirds of the standard deviation (3-IV), and it is unimodal (4-II). The keyed option prints '1' as 'I' by a typo.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q68, final key
- Q67 Dispersion & Skewness
Match the following:
Column I Column II 1. Standard Deviation I. Variability in a data set 2. Coefficient of Variation II. obtained by subtracting lowest observation from highest observation 3. Dispersion III. an absolute measure of dispersion 4. Range IV. checks consistency in performance of cricket players Choose the correct option.
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Answer D. I- III; 2-IV; 3- I; 4-II
Standard deviation is an absolute measure of dispersion (1-III), the coefficient of variation compares consistency, e.g. of batsmen (2-IV), dispersion means variability in data (3-I), and range is highest minus lowest (4-II). The keyed option prints '1' as 'I' by a typo.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q69, final key
- Q68 Measures of Central Tendency
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): Mean is highly affected by extreme observations.
Reasoning (R): Mean does not utilize all the observations.
In the light of the above, choose the correct option.
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Answer C. A is true but R is not true.
The arithmetic mean is pulled by extreme values precisely because it uses every observation; so A is true and R (that it does not use all observations) is false.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q70, final key
- Q69 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
On the basis of the following statements,
1. Frequency distribution is a tabular arrangement of data in form of classes
2. Open class interval does not have upper or lower limit
3. For summarizing large mass of raw data, it is useful to distribute data into classes
Which of the following holds?
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Answer D. All three are true
A frequency distribution tabulates data by classes, an open-end class lacks either a lower or an upper limit, and grouping into classes is the standard way to summarise large raw data, so all three statements are true.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q71, final key
- Q70 Correlation
Consider the following information in two lists A and B:
LIST A LIST B (i) Correlation between Income and expenditure of a family (i) Positive correlation (ii) Correlation between age and weight among newly born babies (ii) Negative correlation (iii) Correlation between age and weight among very old persons (iii) High positive correlation Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A(i)-B(i), A(ii)-B(iii), A(iii)-B(ii)
Family expenditure rises with income (positive), babies gain weight steadily with age (high positive), and very old people tend to lose weight with age (negative).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q73, final key
- Q71 Dispersion & Skewness
If n =10, mean = 12 and standard deviation = 3, then coefficient of variation (in percentage) is equal to:
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Answer A. 25
CV = (SD / mean) × 100 = (3 / 12) × 100 = 25%.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q74, final key
- Q72 Measures of Central Tendency
The numbers of ATM transactions per day recorded at 10 locations in a city were 35, 49, 225, 50, 30, 65, 40, 55, 52 and 76. The median of the numbers of transactions is:
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Answer B. 51
Sorted: 30, 35, 40, 49, 50, 52, 55, 65, 76, 225. With 10 values the median is the mean of the 5th and 6th: (50 + 52)/2 = 51.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q75, final key
- Q73 Measures of Central Tendency
If 5, 8, 6 and 2 occur with frequencies 3, 2, 4 and 1, then arithmetic mean is equal to:
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Answer A. 5.7
Mean = Σfx / Σf = (15 + 16 + 24 + 2) / 10 = 57 / 10 = 5.7.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q76, final key
- Q74 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
The most appropriate diagram for representing the distribution of National plan outlay of a country in different sectors of economy is:
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Answer D. Pie Chart
A pie chart shows how a total (the plan outlay) is divided among parts (sectors), each sector's share drawn as an angle of the circle.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q77, final key
- Q75 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Which of the following is not a source of secondary data?
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Answer C. Autobiography
An autobiography is a first-hand account by the person concerned and is treated as a primary source, while biographies, newspapers and magazines report information compiled by others (secondary sources).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q78, final key
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Start free - Q76 Correlation
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Karl Pearson' correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y is - 1.
Reason (R): The two variables are perfectly positively correlated.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?
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Answer C. Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong.
Taking A as given (r = −1, a possible value), it cannot be explained by perfect positive correlation: r = −1 means perfect negative correlation. So A stands and R is wrong.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q80, final key
- Q77 Correlation
Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation cannot exceed ________.
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Answer A. 1
Pearson's r always lies between −1 and +1, so it can never exceed 1.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q81, final key
- Q78 Correlation
Correlation is used to find ______ of a linear relationship between two variables.
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Answer C. strength and direction
The sign of the correlation coefficient gives the direction (positive or negative) and its absolute size gives the strength of the linear relationship.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q82, final key
- Q79 Correlation
Correlation between the age and weight of old persons above 70 years of age is expected to be:
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Answer B. negative
In old age, weight tends to fall as age rises, so the two move in opposite directions: negative correlation.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q83, final key
- Q80 Dispersion & Skewness
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): For the observations 2, 3, 5, 9 and 11, mean deviation about mean is 3.2 and the mean deviation about median is 3.
Reasoning (R): Mean deviation is the least when measured about the median.
In the light of above, choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and B are true and R is correct explanation of A.
Mean = 6: deviations 4, 3, 1, 3, 5, MD = 16/5 = 3.2. Median = 5: deviations 3, 2, 0, 4, 6, MD = 15/5 = 3. A is true, and the median value is smaller because mean deviation is least about the median, so R explains A.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q84, final key
- Q81 Measures of Central Tendency
If a typist in an office can type invoices at a rate of 50 per hour, statements at a rate of 40 per hour and reminders at a rate of 80 per hour and she types equal number of each type of documents, then the average output of the typist (per hour) is approximately equal to?
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Answer B. 52
For equal numbers of documents typed at different rates, use the harmonic mean: 3 / (1/50 + 1/40 + 1/80) = 3 / 0.0575 ≈ 52.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q85, final key
- Q82 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below:
List-I List-II A-Bar Diagram (i) A graphical representation of grouped frequency distribution with continuous classes. B- Histogram (ii) Diagram consists of a number of rectangles used for one dimensional comparison C-Line Graph (iii) A graphical representation technique that displays data in a circular-shaped graph D-Pi-chart (iv) A graph that utilizes points and lines to represent change over time Show answerHide answer
Answer C. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
Bar diagrams are one-dimensional rectangles (A-ii), a histogram shows a grouped continuous frequency distribution (B-i), a line graph joins points to show change over time (C-iv), and a pie chart is circular (D-iii).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q86, final key
- Q83 Time Series & Index Numbers
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): Time reversal test was proposed by Irving Fisher.
Reasoning (R): Fisher’s index number satisfies Factor reversal test.
In the light of above, choose the correct option.
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Answer D. Both A and B are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
Irving Fisher proposed the time reversal and factor reversal tests, and his ideal index satisfies both. But Fisher's index satisfying the factor reversal test does not explain who proposed the time reversal test.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q87, final key
- Q84 Time Series & Index Numbers
For a particular year, weekly take home pay is 138.10 and consumer price index is 149.8. Then the real weekly wage is approximately equal to:
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Answer A. 92.19
Real wage = (money wage / CPI) × 100 = (138.10 / 149.8) × 100 ≈ 92.19.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q88, final key
- Q85 Time Series & Index Numbers
Which of the following does NOT hold for time series?
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Answer D. For data segregated by time, the value of the variable does not change from time to time.
A time series is studied precisely because the variable changes over time; saying its value does not change from time to time is false.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q89, final key
- Q86 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): Class mark is obtained by dividing the sum of lower and upper class limits, by two
Reasoning (R):. Class boundaries are used for making the class intervals continuous
In light of the above statements, choose the correct option.
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Answer B. Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
The class mark (mid-value) is (lower limit + upper limit)/2, and class boundaries are used to make inclusive classes continuous. Both are true, but the second does not explain the first.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q90, final key
- Q87 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
On the basis of the following statements:
1. Frequent field checks are taken up on the work of enumerators responsible for filling schedules
2. While using schedules, enumerators explain the aims and objects of the investigation and also remove the difficulties faced by any respondent
3. Questionnaires are filled by investigators for helping the respondents
Which of the options is correct?
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Answer B. 1 and 2 are true
Enumerators filling schedules are field-checked and they explain the purpose and help respondents, so 1 and 2 are true. A questionnaire is filled by the respondents themselves, not by investigators, so 3 is false.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q91, final key
- Q88 Time Series & Index Numbers
Which of the following is NOT the utility of time series analysis?
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Answer B. Time series analysis is not restricted to time-dependent data.
Time series analysis by definition deals with data arranged over time, so the claim that it is not restricted to time-dependent data is false and is not a utility. Planning, forecasting and understanding past behaviour are its standard uses.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q92, final key
- Q89 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Which of the following is NOT the advantage of using Schedule over questionnaire?
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Answer C. It is very cost effective
The schedule method needs paid, trained enumerators to visit respondents, so it is costlier than a mailed questionnaire; cost-effectiveness is an advantage of the questionnaire, not the schedule.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q93, final key
- Q90 Time Series & Index Numbers
Which of the following methods is NOT used in measuring the seasonal variations?
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Answer A. Method of Least Squares
Seasonal indices are measured by simple averages, ratio-to-trend, ratio-to-moving-average and link relatives; the method of least squares is a method of measuring trend.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q94, final key
- Q91 Time Series & Index Numbers
Using the method of Least Square in fitting the trend line of the best fit, the sum of the squares of the deviations of actual values from the computed values is always:
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Answer C. least
The least squares line is chosen so that Σ(Y − Yc)^2 is the minimum possible; it is the sum of the plain deviations Σ(Y − Yc) that equals zero.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q95, final key
- Q92 Measures of Central Tendency
For the following set of observations
2,4,5,6,7,8,9, 9,9, 10,11
Match the following answers:
Column 1 Column 2 1. Mean I. 5.76 2. Mode II. 8 3. Median III. 9 4. Harmonic Mean IV. 7.27 Choose the correct option.
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Answer B. 1-IV; 2-III; 3- II; 4-I
n = 11, sum = 80, so mean = 7.27; 9 occurs most often, so mode = 9; the 6th value is 8, so median = 8; HM = 11 / Σ(1/x) = 11 / 1.909 ≈ 5.76.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q97, final key
- Q93 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Match the following:
Column I Column II 1. Multiple bar diagrams I. drawn by joining the mid-points of all tops of a histogram 2. Pie Diagram II. drawn to represent the time series data related to the temperature, rainfall, population growth, 3. Line Diagram III. drawn to depict the total value of the given attribute using a circle. 4. Frequency polygon IV. constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison Choose the correct option.
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Answer B. 1-IV; 2-III; 3- II; 4-I
Multiple bars compare two or more variables (1-IV), a pie diagram shows a total using a circle (2-III), a line diagram shows time series such as rainfall or population (3-II), and a frequency polygon joins the mid-points of histogram tops (4-I).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q98, final key
- Q94 Measures of Central Tendency
On the basis of the following statements,
1. Second quartile is same as mean;
2. Second quartile is same as median;
3. Median is same as first quartile,
Which of the following holds?
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Answer C. Only 2 is true
The second quartile Q2 divides the data into two halves, so it is the median. It equals the mean only for symmetric data, and the median is not the first quartile.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q99, final key
- Q95 Dispersion & Skewness
For Normal distribution, the value of coefficient of skewness is:
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Answer B. Zero
The normal distribution is perfectly symmetric (mean = median = mode), so its coefficient of skewness is zero.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q100, final key
- Q96 Dispersion & Skewness
A negative value of coefficient of skewness implies that:
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Answer A. Mode is more than mean
Pearson's coefficient of skewness is (Mean - Mode)/SD, so a negative value means the mean is below the mode; in a negatively skewed distribution Mean < Median < Mode.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q101, final key
- Q97 Dispersion & Skewness
Suppose that for a frequency distribution, Mean = 164.73, First Quartile = 160.95, Second Quartile = 164.76 and Third Quartile= 168.45, then on the basis of Bowley's coefficient of skewness, the distribution is:
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Answer A. Negatively Skewed
Bowley's Sk = (Q3 + Q1 - 2Q2)/(Q3 - Q1) = (168.45 + 160.95 - 329.52)/7.50 = -0.12/7.50 = -0.016, a small negative value, so the distribution is negatively skewed.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q102, final key
- Q98 Measures of Central Tendency
Which of the following is not true about central tendency?
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Answer B. Indicates variability in a data set
A measure of central tendency is a single typical value around which data cluster; variability (spread) is measured by dispersion, not central tendency.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q103, final key
- Q99 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Which of the following is not true about census?
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Answer C. The first census was conducted non-synchronously in 1862
India's first (non-synchronous) census was taken in 1872, not 1862; the first synchronous census was in 1881.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q104, final key
- Q100 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
The heights of rectangles in a histogram with class intervals of equal sizes are proportional to:
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Answer A. Class frequencies
In a histogram the area of each rectangle is proportional to the class frequency; when all widths are equal, the heights are therefore proportional to the class frequencies.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q105, final key
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Start free - Q101 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Three identical dice are tossed. Probability that the same number will appear on each of them is:
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Answer B. 1/36
There are 6^3 = 216 outcomes and 6 of them show the same number on all three dice, so P = 6/216 = 1/36.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q106, final key
- Q102 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Out of the sampling techniques mentioned below, which is probability sampling method?
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Answer B. Cluster sampling
In cluster sampling, clusters are chosen at random so every unit has a known chance of selection; judgement and convenience sampling are non-probability methods.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q107, final key
- Q103 Correlation
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Statement I: If two variables X and Y are independent then rXY = 0.
Statement II: If rXY = 0, then two variables X and Y are independent.
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Answer A. Only Statement I is correct
Independence implies zero covariance and hence r = 0, but r = 0 only rules out a linear relationship; the variables may still be related non-linearly (e.g. Y = X^2), so the converse fails.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q108, final key
- Q104 Correlation
The rank correlation coefficient between two characteristics of 4 students was worked out to be 0.5. Later on it was noticed that the difference in ranks in the two characteristics obtained by one of the students was wrongly taken as 1 instead of 2. The corrected rank correlation is:
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Answer A. 1/5
0.5 = 1 - 6*Sum d^2/(4*15) gives Sum d^2 = 5. Correcting d from 1 to 2 adds 4 - 1 = 3, so Sum d^2 = 8 and rho = 1 - 48/60 = 0.2 = 1/5.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q109, final key
- Q105 Correlation
If correlation coefficient between X and Y based on 16 pairs of observations is 0.80, then probable error is:
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Answer B. 0.06
P.E. = 0.6745 (1 - r^2)/sqrt(n) = 0.6745 x 0.36/4 = 0.0607, about 0.06.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q110, final key
- Q106 Correlation
If COV(X,Y) = -16.5, Var(X) = 2.89 and var(Y) = 100, then rXY is:
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Answer C. -0.97
r = Cov/(SDx x SDy) = -16.5/(1.7 x 10) = -0.97.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q111, final key
- Q107 Dispersion & Skewness
If the mean deviation of X from its mean is 5, then the mean deviation of Y = 2X+3 from its mean is:
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Answer A. 10
Mean deviation is unaffected by change of origin but scales by |b|; MD(Y) = |2| x 5 = 10.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q113, final key
- Q108 Measures of Central Tendency
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): For a grouped frequency distribution table with one or both of the terminal classes as open, median can be computed.
Reasoning (R): Mode can be computed in case of open ended terminal classes.
In the light of the above, choose the correct option.
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Answer B. Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
Median and mode depend only on the middle or modal class, so both can be found with open-ended terminal classes; but the fact about the mode does not explain why the median can be found.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q114, final key
- Q109 Measures of Central Tendency
Statement 1: The mean of first 10 natural numbers is 10.
Statement 2: If 3 is subtracted from original observations, then mean does not change.
Statement 3: If original observations are multiplied by a constant, then median also gets multiplied by same constant.
On the basis of the above statements, which of the following statement/s is/are true?
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Answer C. Only 3 is true
The mean of 1 to 10 is 5.5, and subtracting 3 from every value lowers the mean by 3; multiplying all values by a constant multiplies the median by the same constant.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q115, final key
- Q110 Measures of Central Tendency
For the following frequency distribution table, the third quartile is equal to:
Class-Intervals 60-65 65-70 70-75 75-80 80-85 Frequency 3 8 13 12 4 Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 77.5
N = 40, so Q3 is the 30th value; cumulative frequencies are 3, 11, 24, 36, so Q3 lies in 75-80. Q3 = 75 + (30 - 24)/12 x 5 = 77.5.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q116, final key
- Q111 Correlation
On the basis of the following statements,
1. If the ranks in the first series are completely reversed in the second series, then Spearman's Rank Correlation coefficient s equal to -1.
2. Spearman's Rank Correlation coefficient is computed only for quantitative variables.
3. When only two individuals are ranked by two judges, then Spearman's Rank Correlation coefficient takes only -1 and 1 values.
Which of the following is true?
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Answer B. 1 and 3 are true
Completely reversed ranks give rho = -1; with n = 2, Sum d^2 is 0 or 2 so rho = 1 - Sum d^2 is 1 or -1. Rank correlation is designed for qualitative (rankable) attributes, so statement 2 is false.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q117, final key
- Q112 Time Series & Index Numbers
Match the two columns.
Column A Column B 1. Quantity Index I Value Index 2. Index of Industrial Production II (Σp1q1 / Σp1q0) * 100 3. measures the relative changes in total monetary worth of an item III Measures the changes in the quantity of goods manufactured in a factory 4. Paasche's quantity index IV Compilation and publication by Central Statistical Organisation, MOSPI Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1- III; 2-IV, 3-I; 4-II
A quantity index measures changes in the quantity produced; the IIP is compiled by the CSO (now NSO), MOSPI; the relative change in total money worth is a value index; Paasche's quantity index weights by current prices: Σp1q1/Σp1q0 x 100.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q118, final key
- Q113 Time Series & Index Numbers
Trend, a component of time series, can be studied by using:
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Answer A. Method of moving averages
Secular trend is measured by freehand, semi-averages, moving averages or least squares; ratio to moving average, link relatives and ratio to trend are methods for seasonal indices.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q119, final key
- Q114 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
Which of the following is NOT true about a frequency polygon?
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Answer C. It can't be constructed for unequal class intervals.
A frequency polygon can be drawn for unequal class intervals too, after adjusting frequencies (frequency densities); the other statements describe how it is drawn and closed.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q120, final key
- Q115 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
For any two events A and B, P(A∪B) is equal to
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Answer B. P(A)+P(B)-P(AB)
By the addition theorem, P(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A∩B); the overlap is subtracted once because it is counted twice.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q121, final key
- Q116 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
For collection of primary data through questionnaires, which of the following is NOT true?
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Answer D. Open-ended questions should be included as it is easy to analyze them.
Open-ended questions give varied free-text answers that are hard to tabulate and analyse, so they should be kept to a minimum; the other points are standard rules of questionnaire design.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q122, final key
- Q117 Time Series & Index Numbers
Consider the following information in two lists A and B:
List A List B (i) Secular Trend (i) Long time fluctuations (ii) Seasonal Variations (ii) Rising trend of population (iii) Cyclical variations (iii) Isolated special occurrences (iv) Irregular variations (iv) Variations within a period of one year Match the List – A with List – B and select the correct option.
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Answer A. A(i)-B(ii), A(ii)-B(iv), A(iii)-B(i), A(iv)-B(iii)
Secular trend is the long-run tendency (rising population); seasonal variation repeats within a year; cyclical variation is long-period oscillation (business cycles); irregular variation comes from isolated special events.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q123, final key
- Q118 Correlation
Consider the following information in two lists A and B:
List A List B (i) Scatter Diagram (i) Can not be used for finding correlation in a grouped frequency distribution. (ii) Matrix Plot (ii) Provides measure of correlation between two variables without ranking (iii) Karl Pearson Coefficient of correlation (iii) Provides rough measure of correlation between two variables (iv) Spearman's Rank Correlation (iv) Provides rough measure of correlation among several variables Match the List – A with List – B and select the correct option.
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Answer C. A(i)-B(iii), A(ii)-B(iv), A(iii)-B(ii), A(iv)-B(i)
A scatter diagram gives a rough visual idea of correlation between two variables; a matrix plot does the same for several variables at once; Karl Pearson's r measures correlation from actual values (no ranking); Spearman's rank method cannot be applied to a grouped frequency distribution.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q124, final key
- Q119 Time Series & Index Numbers
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Seasonal variations can occur within a period of one year.
Statement II: Increased demand of woolen cloths during winter is a seasonal variation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. Both the statements I and II are correct
Seasonal variations are regular movements that recur within a year, and higher winter demand for woollens is a textbook example of one.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q125, final key
- Q120 Time Series & Index Numbers
The trend of the annual sales of a company is described by the following trend line.
Yc = 30 + 3.6X, this equation when converted to monthly basis becomes:
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Answer A. Yc = 2.5 + 0.025X
Converting annual totals to monthly values with X still in years: a/12 = 30/12 = 2.5 and b/144 = 3.6/144 = 0.025, giving Yc = 2.5 + 0.025X (X in months).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q126, final key
- Q121 Time Series & Index Numbers
Below are given figures of production '000's quintals of a sugar factory:
Year 1941 1942 1943 1944 1945 1946 1947 Production 80 90 92 83 94 99 92 The slope of the trend line for the above data is:
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Answer C. 2
Take X = year - 1944 (-3 to 3): Sum X^2 = 28 and Sum XY = -240 - 180 - 92 + 0 + 94 + 198 + 276 = 56, so b = 56/28 = 2.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q127, final key
- Q122 Dispersion & Skewness
For normal distribution, consider the following statements
1. Mean = Mode =Median;
2. Odd order central moments are identically equal to zero;
3. Coefficient of skewness is zero.
Which of the following holds?
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Answer D. All three are true
The normal curve is symmetric about its mean, so mean, median and mode coincide, all odd central moments vanish and the skewness coefficient is zero.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q128, final key
- Q123 Dispersion & Skewness
For the set of observations 1216, 1167, 1232, 1202, 1278, 1141 and 1221, the mean deviation about mean is:
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Answer D. 32.69
Mean = 8457/7 = 1208.14; absolute deviations 7.86, 41.14, 23.86, 6.14, 69.86, 67.14, 12.86 sum to 228.86, so MD = 228.86/7 = 32.69.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q130, final key
- Q124 Measures of Central Tendency
For 6 bags of rice, the mean weight per bag is 119 kg. The weights of 5 bags are 115 kg, 109 kg, 129 kg, 117 kg and 114 kg. The weight (in kg) of the sixth bag is equal to:
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Answer D. 130
Total = 6 x 119 = 714; the five bags weigh 584 kg, so the sixth weighs 714 - 584 = 130 kg.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q131, final key
- Q125 Statistics: Data, Sampling & Presentation
For collection of data through Schedules, which of the following does not hold?
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Answer D. Reliability of collected data does not depend upon capability of enumerator
In the schedule method enumerators ask the questions and record the answers themselves, so the quality of the data depends heavily on their skill and honesty.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q132, final key
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Start free - Q126 Correlation
If X ~ N(0,1) and Y = X^2 then rXY is:
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Answer D. 0
Cov(X, X^2) = E(X^3) - E(X)E(X^2) = 0 - 0 = 0 because odd moments of N(0,1) vanish, so r = 0 even though Y is a function of X.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q133, final key
- Q127 Correlation
Given that X, Y and Z = (X + 2Y) are variables such that Var(X) = 4, Var(Y) = 3 and Var(Z) = 4, then rXY is:
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Answer C. -sqrt(3)/2
Var(Z) = Var(X) + 4Var(Y) + 4Cov(X,Y) gives 4 = 4 + 12 + 4Cov, so Cov = -3 and r = -3/(2 x sqrt(3)) = -sqrt(3)/2.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q135, final key
- Q128 Basics of Computers
What will be the output of a two-input OR gate when both inputs are LOW (0)?
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Answer A. 0
An OR gate outputs 1 if at least one input is 1; with both inputs 0 the output is 0.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q136, final key
- Q129 Basics of Computers
A NOT gate is used in a digital circuit, where it takes the output of an OR gate as its input. If the inputs to the OR gate are A = 0 and B = 1, then what will the final output after passing through the NOT gate be?
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Answer A. 0
0 OR 1 = 1, and NOT 1 = 0 (this OR-NOT combination is a NOR gate).
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q137, final key
- Q130 Basics of Computers
Which of the following statements best describes the function of a NAND gate?
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Answer C. A NAND gate outputs 0 only when both inputs are 1; otherwise, it outputs 1.
NAND is AND followed by NOT: the output is 0 only when all inputs are 1 and 1 otherwise.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q138, final key
- Q131 Basics of Computers
Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statement: In 2's complement representation, negative numbers are obtained by inverting all bits of the positive number and adding 1.
Conclusions:
I. A number with MSB = 1 in 2's complement is always negative.
II. 2's complement allows direct arithmetic operations without requiring separate subtraction circuits.
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Answer C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
In 2's complement the MSB acts as the sign bit, so MSB = 1 means a negative number, and subtraction is done by adding the 2's complement, so the same adder handles both operations.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q139, final key
- Q132 Basics of Computers
Which of the following best describes the functionality of a NOR gate in digital logic circuits?
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Answer C. It is the inverse of an OR gate, producing a HIGH output only when both inputs are LOW.
NOR = NOT(OR): the output is HIGH only when every input is LOW and LOW otherwise.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q140, final key
- Q133 Basics of Computers
Which of the following is the quickest way to automatically adjust the width of a column, in MS Excel 2019?
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Answer C. Double-clicking the right border of the column header.
Double-clicking the right border of a column heading runs AutoFit, sizing the column to its widest entry in one step.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q141, final key
- Q134 Basics of Computers
Which MS Excel 2019 function returns the highest numeric value from a given range of cells?
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Answer B. MAX
MAX(range) returns the largest number in the range.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q142, final key
- Q135 Basics of Computers
Which of the following is the most efficient method to edit data in a specific cell without replacing the existing content, in MS Excel 2019?
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Answer B. Click the cell and press F2 before editing.
F2 puts the active cell into Edit mode with the cursor at the end of the existing content, so you can change it without overwriting.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q144, final key
- Q136 Basics of Computers
What will happen if a user selects multiple non-adjacent rows and attempts to delete them simultaneously, in MS Excel 2019?
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Answer B. Excel will delete all the selected rows at once.
Whole rows selected with Ctrl can be deleted together; Excel removes every selected row in one action.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q145, final key
- Q137 Basics of Computers
Which of the following best describes the role of cache memory in a computer system?
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Answer A. It stores frequently accessed data to reduce access time for the processor.
Cache is a small, very fast memory between the CPU and RAM that holds frequently used data and instructions to cut access time.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q146, final key
- Q138 Basics of Computers
Which of the following options is correct with reference to the given statements and conclusions?
Statement 1: Direct Memory Access (DMA) enhances system performance by allowing data transfers without continuous CPU intervention.
Statement 2: DMA can transfer data between memory and I/O devices without needing CPU control at any stage.
Conclusions:
I. DMA improves efficiency by freeing up CPU resources for other tasks.
II. The CPU is never involved in any data transfer when DMA is used.
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Answer A. Only conclusion I follows.
DMA frees the CPU from moving each byte, so conclusion I follows; but the CPU still sets up the transfer and is interrupted on completion, so 'never involved' is too absolute.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q147, final key
- Q139 Basics of Computers
What happens when a user enters a number with leading zeros (e.g., 00789) into a cell, in MS Excel 2019, by default?
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Answer B. Excel automatically removes the leading zeros and stores the number as 789.
With the default General format, Excel treats 00789 as the number 789 and drops the leading zeros; to keep them you need Text format or an apostrophe.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q149, final key
- Q140 Basics of Computers
Which of the following statements about computer memory hierarchy is INCORRECT?
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Answer C. ROM can be written and modified multiple times during normal computer operation.
ROM is read-only memory: its contents are fixed and are not rewritten during normal operation, so this statement is incorrect.
Source: APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2025, Paper II (Notification 12/2024), Q150, final key
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