APPSC Group 2 · Mains Paper II · Topic 4
4 APPSC Group 2 Environment & Ecology questions with answers
105 questions from APPSC G2 Mains Paper II Mock 1 with answers and APPSC G2 Mains Paper II 2025 question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
4.11Sustainable development & SDGsNotes
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World Environment Day, which marks the opening of the 1972 Stockholm Conference, is observed on
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Answer B. 5 June
World Environment Day is observed on 5 June, the opening day of the Stockholm Conference.
Source: UNGA Res. 2994 (XXVII)
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According to Herman Daly, for renewable resources, sustainable development requires that
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Answer B. The rate of extraction should not exceed the rate of regeneration
Herman Daly held that renewable resources should be extracted no faster than they regenerate.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development p.141
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'Silent Spring' (1962), the book that drew attention to the harm caused by pesticides such as DDT, was written by
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Answer B. Rachel Carson
Rachel Carson wrote 'Silent Spring' in 1962.
Source: Carson, Silent Spring, 1962
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The Brundtland Commission Report was published in
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Answer C. 1987
The Brundtland Report 'Our Common Future' was published in 1987.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.16; NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development p.167
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The SDGs replaced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs). How many MDGs were there?
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Answer B. Eight
There were eight Millennium Development Goals, with 2015 as the target year.
Source: UN Millennium Declaration 2000
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Countries present their Voluntary National Reviews (VNRs) of progress on the SDGs at the
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Answer B. High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development
VNRs are presented at the HLPF, which meets every July under ECOSOC.
Source: A/RES/70/1 paras 82-89
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What is the main advantage of organic farming over conventional farming ?
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Answer C. Reduced chemical input and improved soil health
Organic farming avoids synthetic fertilisers and pesticides and builds soil organic matter, so its key benefit is lower chemical input and better soil health.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q81, final key
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The concept of sustainable development was first popularized by which report ?
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Answer C. Brundtland Commission Report 1987
'Our Common Future' (1987) by the Brundtland Commission defined sustainable development as meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q104, final key
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What is a key goal of sustainable development ?
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Answer B. Ensuring social equity, economic growth and environmental protection
Sustainable development balances three goals together: social equity, economic growth and environmental protection.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q105, final key
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Which of the following is not one of the three pillars of sustainability ?
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Answer D. Political sustainability
The three pillars of sustainability are environmental, economic and social. Political sustainability is not one of them.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q106, final key
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How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) has the United Nations established ?
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Answer A. 17
The 2030 Agenda adopted in 2015 has 17 SDGs with 169 targets.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q107, final key
4.5Pollution & controlNotes
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The loudness of sound is expressed in:
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Answer C. Decibels
Loudness of sound is measured in decibels (dB).
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Physics Sem-1 p.132
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The gas that leaked in the Bhopal gas tragedy of December 1984 was:
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Answer D. Methyl isocyanate
Methyl isocyanate (MIC) leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant at Bhopal.
Source: Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985
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Water that is suitable for drinking is called:
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Answer C. Potable water
Water which is suitable for drinking is called potable water; it can be made safe by filtration, boiling or chlorination.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Biology Sem-2 ch.7 p.88
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Release of hot water from power plants into rivers, which harms aquatic life, is called:
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Answer B. Thermal pollution
Hot water released into water bodies causes thermal pollution.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Biology Sem-2 ch.7 p.86
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The Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) was defined mainly to:
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Answer D. Protect the Taj Mahal from air pollution
The Taj Trapezium Zone was defined, following Supreme Court orders, to protect the Taj Mahal from air pollution.
Source: M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Taj Trapezium case), 1996
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Photochemical smog is:
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Answer B. Oxidising in nature and contains ozone and PAN
Photochemical smog forms in sunlight from NOx and hydrocarbons; it is oxidising and contains ozone and PAN.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Unit 14
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Match the following pollution control devices / processes with the pollutant they mainly remove:
List I
a. Electrostatic precipitator
b. Scrubber
c. Catalytic converter
d. Activated sludge process
List II
I. Organic matter in sewage
II. Gases like sulphur dioxide
III. Particulate matter from thermal power plant exhaust
IV. CO, unburnt hydrocarbons and nitric oxide in vehicle exhaust
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Answer C. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
ESP removes particulates, scrubber removes gases like SO2, catalytic converter treats CO, hydrocarbons and NO, and the activated sludge process removes organic matter from sewage.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology (2006-22 eds) ch.16; NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 p.166
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Which one of the following is NOT an effect of long-term overuse of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides, according to NCERT?
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Answer A. Increase in the humus content of the soil
Overuse of synthetic fertilisers lowers humus and friendly soil micro-organisms, making soil prone to erosion; it also reduces natural predators, and some pests become resistant. Humus decreases, it does not increase.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Curiosity ch.12 p.226
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Match the following diseases with the pollutant that causes them:
List I
a. Itai-itai disease
b. Blue baby syndrome
c. Fluorosis
d. Black-foot disease
List II
I. Fluoride
II. Arsenic
III. Nitrate
IV. Cadmium
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Itai-itai - cadmium, blue baby syndrome - nitrate, fluorosis - fluoride and black-foot disease - arsenic.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Unit 14; standard reference
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Assertion (A): Secondary treatment of sewage significantly reduces the BOD of the effluent.
Reason (R): In the aeration tanks, aerobic microbes growing as flocs consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: BOD measures organic matter, and the flocs consume most of the organic matter, so BOD falls.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 p.166
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Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, the ambient noise limit for a residential area during day time is:
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Answer A. 55 dB(A)
The day-time limit in a residential area is 55 dB(A) Leq.
Source: Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000, Schedule
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NCERT's table of polluted river stretches names three stretches of the Ganga. Which one of these stretches is NOT among them?
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Answer A. Gangotri to Devprayag
NCERT's Table 9.2 lists the polluted stretches of the Ganga as downstream of Kanpur, downstream of Varanasi and Farakka Barrage. The upper reach from Gangotri to Devprayag is not listed.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy ch.9 p.106 (Table 9.2)
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Match the pollution type with its major source.
Pollution Type Major Source a. Air Pollution I. Sewage b. Water Pollution II. Industrial emissions c. Soil Pollution III. Use of chemical fertilizers d. Noise Pollution IV. Construction activities Codes : a b c d
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Answer B. II I III IV
Industrial emissions mainly pollute air, sewage pollutes water, chemical fertilisers degrade soil and construction work is a major noise source.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q78, final key
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What is the primary source of air pollution in Indian cities ?
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Answer D. Automobile emissions
Vehicle exhaust is treated as the leading source of urban air pollution in Indian cities, ahead of industry, waste burning and crop burning.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q82, final key
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Which of the following chemicals was released in the Bhopal disaster of 1984 ?
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Answer B. Methyl-Isocyanate (MIC)
Methyl isocyanate leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal on 2-3 December 1984.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q121, final key
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What can be considered a natural source of air pollution ?
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Answer C. Forest fires
Forest fires, volcanoes, dust storms and pollen are natural sources; factories, power plants and vehicles are man-made sources.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q127, final key
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Pollutant produced by vehicles that reduces the Oxygen carrying capacity of Blood
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Answer D. Carbon monoxide
Carbon monoxide binds haemoglobin about 200 times more strongly than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and cutting the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q146, final key
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Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Pollution) List – II (Pollutant) a. Marble Cancer I. Methane b. Biomagnification II. Nickel c. Green house effect III. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide d. Lung cancer IV. Chlorohydrocarbons Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Acid rain from SO2 and NO2 corrodes marble (marble cancer, e.g. Taj Mahal); chlorinated hydrocarbons like DDT biomagnify; methane is a greenhouse gas; nickel compounds are linked to lung cancer.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q148, final key
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Choose the incorrect statement.
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Answer B. Deforestation is decreasing the amount of CO2
Deforestation removes carbon sinks and releases stored carbon, so it increases atmospheric CO2. The other three statements are true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q149, final key
4.12Bioremediation & green technologiesNotes
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Indian mustard (Brassica juncea) is used in phytoremediation mainly to remove
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Answer B. Heavy metals such as lead from soil
Brassica juncea takes up heavy metals like lead into its shoots (phytoextraction).
Source: US EPA, Introduction to Phytoremediation (2000)
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Biogas (gobar gas) is produced from cattle dung mainly by
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Answer C. Methanogens
Biogas, mostly methane, is produced by methanogens such as Methanobacterium acting on dung anaerobically.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.167; NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development p.142
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Biodiesel plants in India use several raw materials. Which one below is NOT used to make biodiesel?
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Answer D. Sugarcane molasses
Molasses is fermented to make ethanol, not biodiesel.
Source: National Policy on Biofuels 2018
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Bioremediation that depends only on the naturally present microbes at a site, without adding nutrients or microbes, is called
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Answer A. Intrinsic bioremediation (natural attenuation)
Intrinsic bioremediation lets native microbes degrade the pollutant with only monitoring.
Source: US EPA Citizen's Guide to Bioremediation
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a bioremediation technique ?
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Answer C. Burning contaminated soil
Bioremediation uses living organisms (microbes, plants) to break down or absorb pollutants; burning soil is a thermal treatment, not a biological one.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q83, final key
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Which of the following is NOT an alternative to conventional pollution control methods ?
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Answer D. Incineration of waste
Green technology, bioremediation and carbon capture are newer alternatives; incineration is itself a conventional waste treatment method.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q86, final key
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Which of the following is an example of an environmentally friendly technology used in agriculture ?
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Answer B. Organic farming
Organic farming relies on natural inputs and biological pest control, making it the eco-friendly choice among these.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q89, final key
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Which technology can reduce the environmental impact of traditional farming, especially in water scarce regions ?
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Answer A. Drip irrigation
Drip irrigation delivers water directly to roots, saving water and reducing salinity and runoff, which suits water-scarce regions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q90, final key
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What is the primary application of bioremediation ?
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Answer B. Soil contamination
Bioremediation is mainly used to clean contaminated soil (and groundwater) with microbes or plants that degrade or absorb pollutants.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q91, final key
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Which of the following bioremediation techniques is used to treat oil spills ?
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Answer B. Bioaugmentation
Bioaugmentation adds selected oil-degrading microbes (e.g. 'oilzapper' bacteria) to a spill to speed up breakdown of hydrocarbons.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q92, final key
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How does In-situ bioremediation differ from ex-situ bioremediation ?
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Answer B. It treats contaminated material directly at the site
In-situ bioremediation treats soil or water where it lies; ex-situ methods dig up or pump out the material and treat it elsewhere.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q123, final key
4.1Ecology & ecosystemsNotes
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Statement A: Decomposition is slower when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
Statement B: Low temperature and anaerobiosis favour decomposition.
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Answer C. A is true, but B is false
Statement A is true; Statement B is false because low temperature and lack of oxygen inhibit decomposition, while warm and moist conditions favour it.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.220
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The logistic growth curve of a population with limited resources is:
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Answer C. Sigmoid (S-shaped)
Logistic (Verhulst-Pearl) growth gives a sigmoid curve that levels off at the carrying capacity.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.207
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Which of the following organisms breed only once in their lifetime?
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Answer D. Pacific salmon fish and bamboo
Pacific salmon fish and bamboo breed only once in their lifetime, while most birds and mammals breed many times.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.208
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Which one of the following correctly relates gross primary productivity (GPP), net primary productivity (NPP) and respiration losses (R)?
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Answer A. GPP – R = NPP
Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration losses: GPP – R = NPP.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.219
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'Interference competition' is a situation in which:
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Answer B. One species' feeding efficiency is reduced by another's presence, even when food is abundant
In interference competition the feeding efficiency of one species is reduced by the interfering and inhibitory presence of another species, even if resources (food and space) are abundant.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.11 pp.210-211
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In a broad ecological sense, a sparrow eating seeds is best described as a:
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Answer C. Predator
NCERT says a sparrow eating any seed is no less a predator; animals eating plants are, in a broad ecological sense, not very different from predators.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.11 p.209 (predation)
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Statement A : Natality refers to the birth of individuals in a population.
Statement B : Natality rate is expressed as the number of individuals produced per female per unit time.
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Answer A. Both statements A and B are true
Natality is the production of new individuals by birth, hatching or division. Its specific rate is commonly expressed as offspring produced per female per unit time.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q122, final key
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Population density is generally expressed as
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Answer B. The number of individuals per unit area
Population density is the number of individuals per unit area (or per unit volume for aquatic organisms).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q124, final key
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Choose the correct statement.
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Answer B. Archea are a type of producers who use energy from chemical compounds
Some archaea are chemoautotrophs: they make food using energy from chemical compounds (e.g. at deep-sea vents). Aquatic producers are mainly phytoplankton, and heterotrophs cannot make their own food.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q136, final key
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Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Biotic factor) List – II (Characteristic feature) a. Humans I. Recycling nutrients b. Saprotrophs II. Top order heterotrophs in food chain c. Reptiles III. Less urinating animal d. Camel IV. Stenothermal Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Humans are top-order heterotrophs, saprotrophs (decomposers) recycle nutrients, reptiles tolerate only a narrow temperature range (stenothermal) and camels conserve water by urinating little.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q137, final key
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Assertion (A) : Grazing food chain begins with dead leaves via herbivores to carnivores.
Reason (R) : In grazing food chain autotrophs capture energy and transfer to herbivores.
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Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
The grazing food chain starts with living green plants (autotrophs) that pass energy to herbivores; a chain that starts with dead leaves is the detritus food chain.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q139, final key
4.3Biodiversity & conservationNotes
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Preserving the gametes of threatened species in a viable and fertile condition for long periods at very low temperatures is called:
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Answer D. Cryopreservation
Cryopreservation keeps gametes viable for long periods at very low temperatures.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.237
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Which State passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management in 1988?
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Answer A. Odisha
Odisha passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management in 1988.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.2 p.29
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The Ramsar Convention on wetlands was signed in 1971 at Ramsar, which is in:
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Answer C. Iran
The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 at Ramsar, Iran.
Source: Ramsar Convention 1971
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Which one of the following is NOT a method of ex situ conservation?
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Answer C. Sacred groves
Sacred groves protect forests on site, so they are in situ, not ex situ.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.237
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Match List I (tiger reserve / national park) with List II (State):
List I
a. Bandhavgarh
b. Sariska
c. Manas
d. Periyar
List II
I. Rajasthan
II. Kerala
III. Madhya Pradesh
IV. Assam
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Bandhavgarh is in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska in Rajasthan, Manas in Assam and Periyar in Kerala.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.2 p.27
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When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. This is called:
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Answer D. Co-extinction
Loss of species that depend obligatorily on an extinct species is called co-extinction.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.235
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At the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002, 190 countries pledged to achieve a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss by:
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Answer B. 2010
At Johannesburg (2002), 190 countries pledged to achieve by 2010 a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional and local levels.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.237
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To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot (Myers et al., 2000), a region must have at least ____ endemic vascular plant species and must have lost at least ____ of its original habitat.
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Answer B. 1,500; 70 per cent
A hotspot must have at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and must have lost at least 70 per cent of its original habitat.
Source: Myers et al. 2000, Nature 403:853-858
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CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is also known as
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Answer C. Washington Convention
CITES was signed in Washington D.C. in 1973 and is therefore called the Washington Convention.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q120, final key
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CR in IUCN red list refers to
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Answer D. Critically endangered
In the IUCN Red List, CR stands for Critically Endangered; EW is Extinct in the Wild and EN is Endangered.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q141, final key
4.2Biogeochemical cyclesNotes
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The conversion of ammonia into nitrite and then into nitrate by soil bacteria is called:
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Answer D. Nitrification
Nitrification is the conversion of ammonia to nitrite (by Nitrosomonas) and of nitrite to nitrate (by Nitrobacter).
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science p.284; NCERT Class 11 Biology p.25
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Statement A: Animals fix atmospheric nitrogen directly from the air they breathe.
Statement B: Plants assimilate nitrogen compounds such as nitrates from the soil.
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Answer D. A is false, but B is true
Statement A is false because animals obtain nitrogen by eating plants or other animals; Statement B is true because plants absorb nitrates from the soil.
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science p.284; AP SCERT Class 8 Biology (Sem-1) p.58
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Which one of the following is NOT a gaseous nutrient cycle?
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Answer D. Phosphorus cycle
The phosphorus cycle is sedimentary; carbon, nitrogen and oxygen cycles have the atmosphere as a main reservoir and are gaseous.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.226; Indian Geography reference book p.52; NCERT Class 9 Science p.284
4.9NAPCC, laws & institutionsNotes
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Match the Acts in List I with their years of enactment in List II.
List I
a. Wild Life (Protection) Act
b. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
c. Forest (Conservation) Act
d. Environment (Protection) Act
List II
I. 1980
II. 1972
III. 1986
IV. 1974
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Answer D. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
WPA - 1972, Water Act - 1974, Forest (Conservation) Act - 1980, EPA - 1986.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.26; AP SCERT Class 7 Social Sem-1 p.66
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The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in
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Answer C. 2010
The NGT was set up on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Source: National Green Tribunal Act 2010
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Noise was included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 by an amendment made in
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Answer B. 1987
The 1987 amendment to the Air Act added noise to the definition of 'air pollutant'.
Source: Air Act 1981 s.2(a) as amended in 1987
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Which one of the following Acts is NOT listed in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?
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Answer D. Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
The Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is not in Schedule I of the NGT Act, so the NGT cannot hear cases under it.
Source: National Green Tribunal Act 2010, Schedule I
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Under the EIA Notification, 2006, prior environmental clearance for 'Category B' projects is given by the
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Answer D. State Environment Impact Assessment Authority
Category B projects are cleared by the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA); Category A projects are cleared by MoEFCC at the Centre.
Source: EIA Notification 2006 paras 2, 4
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National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established to
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Answer C. Handle cases related to environmental protection and pollution control
The NGT, set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, is a specialised judicial body for speedy disposal of cases on environmental protection, forest conservation and pollution.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q77, final key
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What was the primary purpose of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?
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Answer A. Control air quality standards
The Air Act, 1981 provides for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution, with pollution control boards laying down and enforcing air quality standards.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q84, final key
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Which of the following government initiatives aims to control industrial emissions in India ?
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Answer B. National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
NCAP (2019) is the national plan to cut particulate pollution in non-attainment cities, including by controlling industrial emissions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q85, final key
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India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) aims to address
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Answer B. Mitigation and adaptation strategies for climate change
NAPCC (2008) sets out eight national missions covering both mitigation (solar, energy efficiency) and adaptation (water, agriculture, Himalayan ecosystem).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q99, final key
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How many core missions are included in India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) ?
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Answer B. 8
NAPCC (2008) has eight national missions, including Solar, Enhanced Energy Efficiency, Sustainable Habitat, Water, Himalayan Ecosystem, Green India, Sustainable Agriculture and Strategic Knowledge.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q102, final key
4.6Solid & hazardous waste managementNotes
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Which of the following is NOT a property used to identify a waste as hazardous?
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Answer A. Biodegradability
A waste is hazardous because of toxic, flammable, corrosive, reactive or explosive properties; being biodegradable does not make it hazardous.
Source: Hazardous and Other Wastes Rules 2016
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Separate rules for construction and demolition (C&D) waste were notified for the first time in India in
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Answer D. 2016
The Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016 were India's first separate rules for C&D waste.
Source: Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules 2016
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Assertion (A): Open burning of PVC waste is harmful to health.
Reason (R): Burning of chlorinated plastics releases dioxins and furans.
Choose the correct option.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: dioxins and furans released by burning PVC are highly toxic.
Source: Stockholm Convention Annex C
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The minimum thickness of plastic carry bags in India from 31 December 2022 is
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Answer A. 120 microns
The PWM (Amendment) Rules 2021 raised carry-bag thickness to 75 microns from 30 Sept 2021 and to 120 microns from 31 Dec 2022.
Source: Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2021
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The contaminated liquid formed when rainwater percolates through waste in a landfill is called
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Answer B. Leachate
Leachate is the polluted liquid formed when water passes through waste and dissolves contaminants.
Source: SWM Rules 2016 Schedule I
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Under the SWM Rules, 2016, non-recyclable waste having a calorific value of how much or more should not be sent to landfills?
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Answer A. 1500 kcal/kg
The SWM Rules 2016 bar landfilling of non-recyclable waste of 1500 kcal/kg or more; it is to be used for energy recovery or RDF.
Source: Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (MoEFCC)
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Which of the following gives the correct sequence of stages in the anaerobic digestion (bio-methanation) of organic waste?
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Answer C. Hydrolysis - Acidogenesis - Acetogenesis - Methanogenesis
Polymers are first hydrolysed, then converted to acids, then to acetate, and finally to methane.
Source: CPHEEO Manual on MSWM 2016, bio-methanation
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Which body acts as the 'prescribed authority' for bio-medical waste in a State, granting authorisation to hospitals and clinics?
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Answer C. State Pollution Control Board
The prescribed authority is the SPCB in a State and the Pollution Control Committee in a Union Territory.
Source: BMW Rules 2016, r.3 and r.10
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Which of the following methods is used for solid waste disposal in urban areas of India ?
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Answer D. All the above
Indian cities use composting for wet waste, incineration or waste-to-energy plants for combustible waste and landfilling for the rest, so all three methods are in use.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q79, final key
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Which of the following is the primary goal of India's "Municipal Solid Waste Management and Handling Rules, 2000" ?
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Answer A. Promoting waste segregation
The MSW (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 made municipalities responsible for collection, segregation, processing and safe disposal of waste, with segregation at source as a core aim.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q80, final key
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Match the following :
Waste Type Appropriate Disposal Method a. Organic Waste I. Incineration b. E-waste II. Composting c. Hazardous Waste III. Landfilling d. Broken glass pieces IV. Recycling Codes : a b c d
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Answer A. II IV I III
Organic waste is composted, e-waste is recycled for metals, hazardous waste is incinerated and broken glass, which is inert, goes to landfill.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q93, final key
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Match the following :
Waste Disposal Method Pros/Cons a. Landfilling I. Low-cost, but has long-term environmental impact b. Incineration II. Reduces volume of waste, but emits pollutants c. Composting III. Produces useful by-products like biogas, but requires land d. Recycling IV. Conserves resources, but needs infrastructure Codes : a b c d
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Answer C. I II III IV
Landfills are cheap but leave lasting leachate and methane; incineration shrinks waste but emits pollutants; composting/biomethanation gives manure or biogas but needs land; recycling saves resources but needs collection and processing infrastructure.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q94, final key
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Which Indian city is recognized for adopting zero waste concept in solid waste management ?
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Answer D. Indore
Indore, India's cleanest city in Swachh Survekshan for several years running, is known for 100% source segregation and a near zero-waste model.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q95, final key
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Which of the following is true about the "Circular Economy" ?
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Answer B. It promotes the reuse, recycling and repair of materials to reduce waste
A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair and recycling, replacing the linear take-make-dispose model.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q109, final key
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What is a global issue associated with the trans-boundary movement of waste ?
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Answer C. Physical transfer of hazardous waste for reprocessing or storage
Trans-boundary movement of waste means shipping hazardous waste across borders, often to poorer countries, for reprocessing or disposal; the Basel Convention regulates it.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q126, final key
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State that produces highest solid waste in India
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Answer A. Maharashtra
CPCB annual reports on solid waste rules list Maharashtra as the largest generator of municipal solid waste (over 22,000 tonnes per day).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q142, final key
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Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Type of Solid Waste Management) List – II (Function) a. Incineration I. Conversion of recyclable waste to carbon based fuels b. Pyrolysis II. Process of burning waste c. Plasma gasification III. Exposing waste to extremely high temperature d. Composting IV. Process of decaying organic waste biologically Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
Incineration burns waste; pyrolysis heats waste without oxygen to make carbon-based fuels (oil, char, gas); plasma gasification uses extremely high plasma-torch temperatures; composting decomposes organic waste biologically.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q143, final key
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Which of these is not a biodegradable waste ?
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Answer D. Tin
Tin is a metal and is not broken down by microbes. Vegetable peels, fruits and wool are natural organic materials that decompose.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q144, final key
4.7Climate change & treatiesNotes
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Consider the following statements about the Kyoto Protocol:
I. It was adopted in 1997 at Kyoto, Japan.
II. It set binding emission-reduction targets for India.
III. It entered into force in 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; India, a developing (non-Annex I) country that acceded in 2002, had no binding targets.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Physical Geography p.96; NCERT Class 12 CWP p.87-88
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The first Conference of the Parties (COP1) to the UNFCCC was held in 1995 at
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Answer D. Berlin
COP1 was held in Berlin in 1995 and produced the Berlin Mandate.
Source: UNFCCC
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India submitted its Long-Term Low-Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) to the UNFCCC during
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Answer C. COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh (2022)
India submitted its LT-LEDS in November 2022 at COP27.
Source: India's LT-LEDS, MoEFCC 2022
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The 'enhanced transparency framework' for reporting climate action and support is set up under which Article of the Paris Agreement?
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Answer C. Article 13
Article 13 establishes the enhanced transparency framework for action and support.
Source: Paris Agreement Art. 13
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Which of the following is a potential tipping point of global climate change ?
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Answer A. Loss of Arctic ice
Loss of Arctic sea ice is a classic tipping element: less ice lowers albedo, absorbs more heat and accelerates warming in a self-reinforcing way.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q96, final key
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The "ozone hole" is primarily caused by the release of
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Answer B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
CFCs release chlorine in the stratosphere, which destroys ozone catalytically, especially over Antarctica in spring.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q97, final key
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Which International Agreement does not focus on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to combat climate change ?
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Answer D. Basel Convention
The Basel Convention (1989) controls transboundary movement of hazardous wastes; Kyoto and Paris target GHGs, and the Montreal Protocol (via the Kigali Amendment on HFCs) also cuts warming gases.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q98, final key
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What is the key characteristic of black carbon that accelerates global warming ?
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Answer B. It is a short-lived pollutant produced by incomplete combustion
Black carbon is soot from incomplete burning of fuels and biomass; it stays in the air only days to weeks but absorbs sunlight strongly and darkens snow and ice.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q100, final key
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Which of the following countries is/are legally bound by the emissions reduction targets set by the Paris Agreement ?
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Answer D. None of these
Under the Paris Agreement each country sets its own Nationally Determined Contribution; the targets are not legally binding on any party, only the duty to prepare and report them is.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q101, final key
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Which global summit led to the adoption of the "Agenda 21" and the "Rio Declaration" ?
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Answer B. Earth Summit 1992
The UN Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit), Rio de Janeiro 1992, adopted Agenda 21 and the Rio Declaration.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q110, final key
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Reason for the melting of Gangothri glaciers of Himalayas
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Answer A. Global warming
Gangotri glacier is retreating mainly because of rising temperatures from global warming. Greenhouse gases cause global warming, and dust (black carbon) adds to melting, but the key takes the direct cause.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q145, final key
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Assertion (A) : CFCs are greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change and increase UV radiation on earth.
Reason (R) : Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are man made gases used in refrigerators, air conditioners and aerosol sprays.
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Answer B. (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
CFCs are potent greenhouse gases and also destroy stratospheric ozone, letting more UV reach the earth. R is true but only says where CFCs come from, not why they have these effects.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q147, final key
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