Free mock test · Group 2
APPSC G2 Mains Paper II Mock 1 with answers
- 150 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
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Topics in this test (4)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Indian Economy
Assertion (A): A rise in the marginal propensity to consume raises the value of the investment multiplier.
Reason (R): In the simple Keynesian model, the investment multiplier equals 1 / (1 - MPC).
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true, and R explains A. Since the multiplier is 1/(1 - MPC), a higher MPC makes the denominator smaller and the multiplier larger.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.4 (pp.71-72)
- Q2 Indian Economy
Which mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 covers small, medium and large industries to support 'Make in India'?
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Answer A. National Manufacturing Mission
The National Manufacturing Mission covers small, medium and large industries under 'Make in India'.
Source: PW Indian Economy (p.124); Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q3 Indian Economy
To enable active partnership with the private sector in nuclear energy, the Union Budget 2025-26 proposed amendments to the
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Answer B. Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act
Along with the Nuclear Energy Mission, the Budget proposed amendments to the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act to enable private sector participation.
Source: Union Budget 2025-26, Budget Speech (1 Feb 2025)
- Q4 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about India's balance of payments:
I. India usually has a deficit in merchandise trade.
II. India usually has a surplus in trade in services.
III. Private remittances sent home by Indians working abroad are recorded in the capital account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Remittances are current transfers and are recorded in the current account, not the capital account.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.6 pp.67-70
- Q5 Indian Economy
Which of the following transactions is recorded in the current account of India's balance of payments?
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Answer C. Money sent home by Indians working in the Gulf
Remittances by Indians working abroad are transfer payments and are recorded in the current account. FDI, external commercial borrowings and NRI deposits are capital account items.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.6 (Open Economy)
- Q6 Indian Economy
'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', which contains one of the earliest estimates of India's per capita income, was written by
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Answer C. Dadabhai Naoroji
The book is by Dadabhai Naoroji, one of the early estimators of India's national income.
Source: Modern India (ref) p.133; NCERT Class 11 IED ch.1 (p.21)
- Q7 Indian Economy
Consider the following:
I. Savings
II. Taxes
III. Exports
IV. Imports
Which of the above are leakages from the circular flow of income?
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Answer B. I, II and IV only
Savings, taxes and imports are leakages. Exports, like investment and government spending, are injections.
Source: PW Indian Economy (ref) ch.2 (p.17)
- Q8 Indian Economy
The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID), set up under an Act of Parliament in 2021, is a development finance institution mainly for
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Answer C. infrastructure
NaBFID was set up under the NaBFID Act, 2021 as a development finance institution for long-term infrastructure financing.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.3 p.31; NaBFID Act 2021
- Q9 Indian Economy
The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), one of the earliest modern steel companies in India, was incorporated in
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Answer B. 1907
TISCO was incorporated in 1907. A few other industries such as sugar, cement and paper came up only after the Second World War.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.1 (p.23)
- Q10 Indian Economy
How many Atal Tinkering Labs are to be set up in government schools over five years, as announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Answer D. 50,000
The Budget announced 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs in government schools over five years.
Source: Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q11 Indian Economy
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on
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Answer B. 1 January 2015
NITI Aayog was formed on 1 January 2015.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.6 (p.76)
- Q12 Indian Economy
The Human Development Index was created in 1990 by
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Answer D. Mahbub-ul-Haq
Mahbub-ul-Haq created the HDI in 1990. Amartya Sen worked with him on the early Human Development Reports.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Fundamentals of Human Geography ch.4 (p.24)
- Q13 Indian Economy
Which source accounts for the largest share of the irrigated area in India?
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Answer B. Tube wells
Tube wells and bore wells irrigate the largest share of India's irrigated area, roughly 46 per cent, followed by canals.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.8 p.111; NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy
- Q14 Indian Economy
On 19 July 1969 the Government of India nationalised
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Answer C. 14 commercial banks
Fourteen major commercial banks were nationalised in July 1969; six more followed in April 1980.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.5 (p.94); Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970
- Q15 Indian Economy
Seigniorage refers to
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Answer D. the difference between the face value of money and the cost of producing it
Seigniorage is the difference between the value of money and the cost of producing it; it is the profit of the issuing authority from issuing currency.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.3 p.24
- Q16 Indian Economy
Which of the following agreements deals with intellectual property under the WTO?
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Answer A. TRIPS
TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) deals with intellectual property.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter
- Q17 Indian Economy
Using PM Gati Shakti, a new National Geospatial Mission (2025-26) is expected to help modernise land records and urban planning. Its main aim is to
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Answer A. Develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data
The National Geospatial Mission will develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data; using PM Gati Shakti it will help modernise land records, urban planning and infrastructure design.
Source: Union Budget 2025-26, Budget Speech (1 Feb 2025)
- Q18 Indian Economy
The trade strategy followed by India during the first seven Five Year Plans, which aimed at replacing imports with domestic production, is known as:
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Answer C. Import substitution
India followed import substitution, an inward-looking strategy that protected domestic industry through tariffs and quotas.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.3
- Q19 Indian Economy
Consider the following:
Assertion (A): In India, most poor people cannot remain completely unemployed for a long time.
Reason (R): Their desperate economic condition forces them to accept whatever work is available, even unpleasant or unsafe work.
Choose the correct answer.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
NCERT notes that people in India cannot remain completely unemployed for very long because their economic condition forces them to accept jobs nobody else would do.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development ch.6 (p.108 printed)
- Q20 Indian Economy
In national income accounting, the wear and tear of capital goods during a year is also called
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Answer A. Consumption of fixed capital
Depreciation, the annual wear and tear of capital goods, is also called consumption of fixed capital. It is deducted from gross measures to get net measures.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.28)
- Q21 Indian Economy
On 15 April 1980, in the second round of bank nationalisation, the number of banks taken over by the Government of India was
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Answer C. six banks
Six private banks were nationalised on 15 April 1980. The first round, on 19 July 1969, covered 14 banks.
Source: Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act 1980
- Q22 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the taxation of virtual digital assets (VDAs), such as crypto-currencies, introduced by the Finance Act, 2022:
I. Gains from their transfer are taxed at a flat rate of 30 per cent.
II. Tax at the rate of 1 per cent is deducted at source on their transfer.
III. Losses from their transfer can be set off against salary income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Under the Finance Act, 2022, VDA gains are taxed at 30 per cent with 1 per cent TDS, and losses cannot be set off against any other income.
Source: Finance Act 2022 (Income-tax Act 1961 s.115BBH, s.194S)
- Q23 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
I. When inflation is higher than the nominal interest rate, the real interest rate is negative.
II. Inflation reduces the real burden of debt.
III. Deflation reduces the real burden of debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
I and II are correct. Deflation raises the real burden of debt because money gains value.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.4 Monetary Policy and Inflation (Inflation premium; Impacts; Deflation)
- Q24 Indian Economy
In NCERT's simple Keynesian model, if the supply of final goods is infinitely elastic at a constant price in the short run, aggregate output is determined solely by aggregate demand. This is called the
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Answer D. Effective demand principle
This is the effective demand principle: with supply infinitely elastic at a constant price, output is determined only by the value of aggregate demand.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.4 and Glossary (p.111)
- Q25 Indian Economy
An irrigation project with a culturable command area of 8,000 hectares is classified as a
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Answer A. medium irrigation project
Minor projects have CCA up to 2,000 ha, medium 2,000-10,000 ha and major above 10,000 ha.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.8 Agriculture and Allied Sector, p.111
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Start free - Q26 Indian Economy
The Union Budget 2025-26 proposed 50-year interest-free loans to states for capital expenditure and reforms amounting to
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Answer B. Rs 1.5 lakh crore
Rs 1.5 lakh crore was proposed for 50-year interest-free loans to states for capex and reforms.
Source: Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q27 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26:
I. The Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit for 2024-25 is 4.8% of GDP.
II. The Budget Estimate of the fiscal deficit for 2025-26 is higher than the Revised Estimate for 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I only
Only I is correct. The 2025-26 BE (4.4%) is lower than the 2024-25 RE (4.8%).
Source: Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q28 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana:
I. It was launched in 2016 and replaced NAIS and Modified NAIS.
II. The farmer premium for annual commercial and horticultural crops is 1.5 per cent.
III. Since Kharif 2020, enrolment has been voluntary for all farmers including loanee farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. I is true; II is false (it is 5 per cent); III is true.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.8 Agriculture and Allied Sector, p.117
- Q29 Indian Economy
Which body investigates anti-dumping, countervailing and safeguard cases in India?
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Answer B. Directorate General of Trade Remedies
The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce investigates trade remedy cases.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter
- Q30 Indian Economy
As per the Union Budget 2025-26, the Central Government's debt-to-GDP ratio in 2025-26 (Budget Estimates) is estimated at
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Answer B. 56.1%
The Budget estimated the Central Government debt-to-GDP ratio at 56.1% in 2025-26 (BE), down from 57.1% in 2024-25 (RE).
Source: Union Budget 2025-26, Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement; PW Indian Economy (p.52 printed)
- Q31 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
I. NITI Aayog's first Action Agenda, released in 2017, covered the three years 2017-18 to 2019-20.
II. NITI Aayog allocates plan funds to the States.
III. The Twelfth Plan (2012-17) was the last Five Year Plan in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I and III only
NITI Aayog's India Three Year Action Agenda covered 2017-18 to 2019-20, and the Twelfth Plan (2012-17) was the last five-year plan. NITI Aayog is advisory and does not allocate funds.
Source: NITI Aayog, India Three Year Action Agenda 2017-18 to 2019-20; Polity ref p.145; Indian Economy ref p.106
- Q32 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: White label ATMs are set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities.
Statement II: White label ATMs carry the logo of the bank whose cash they dispense.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct. White label ATMs are owned and operated by non-bank entities authorised by the RBI and do not carry any bank's logo; that is why they are called 'white label'.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.3 p.26; RBI White Label ATM guidelines (2012)
- Q33 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about instruments of foreign capital:
I. Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds are rupee-denominated bonds issued abroad.
II. External commercial borrowings are loans raised by Indian entities from non-resident lenders.
III. ECBs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer D. I only
Statement I is incorrect: FCCBs are issued in a foreign currency and can be converted into equity; rupee-denominated bonds issued abroad are masala bonds. Statements II and III are correct.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter
- Q34 Indian Economy
The equation of exchange MV = PT, which links the quantity of money with the price level, is associated with
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Answer D. Irving Fisher
MV = PT is Irving Fisher's equation of exchange in the quantity theory of money.
Source: Quantity theory of money; PW Indian Economy ch.3 (Velocity of money)
- Q35 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the WTO Agreement on Agriculture:
I. Green box support is non-trade-distorting or minimally trade-distorting and is exempt from reduction commitments.
II. Blue box support relates to production-limiting programmes.
III. Amber box support is exempt from reduction commitments.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. III only
Statement III is incorrect: amber box support is trade-distorting and is subject to reduction commitments. Statements I and II are correct.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter
- Q36 Indian Economy
Which of the following are part of the non-tax revenue of the Central Government?
I. Interest received on loans given to States
II. Dividends and profits from public sector enterprises
III. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organisations
IV. Proceeds from disinvestment of shares in PSUs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer B. I, II and III only
Interest receipts, dividends and profits, and external cash grants-in-aid are non-tax revenue. Disinvestment proceeds reduce the government's assets, so they are a capital receipt.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.5 (p.78, p.82)
- Q37 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
I. The capital-output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output.
II. A higher incremental capital-output ratio (ICOR) shows more efficient use of capital.
III. With a given saving rate, a lower capital-output ratio allows a higher growth rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
I and III are correct. A higher ICOR means more capital is needed for each extra unit of output, so capital is used less efficiently.
Source: PW Indian Economy (ref) ch.2 (p.17)
- Q38 Indian Economy
The Union Budget 2025-26 announced a new urea plant with an annual capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tonnes at
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Answer C. Namrup
A 12.7 lakh MT urea plant is to be set up at Namrup, Assam.
Source: Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q39 Indian Economy
Match List I (institution) with List II (headquarters):
List I
a. New Development Bank
b. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
c. Asian Development Bank
d. Bank for International Settlements
List II
I. Manila
II. Basel
III. Shanghai
IV. Beijing
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
The New Development Bank is headquartered in Shanghai, the AIIB in Beijing, the ADB in Manila and the BIS in Basel.
Source: Indian Economy (reference) ch.6 pp.85-87
- Q40 Indian Economy
Match List I (aggregate) with List II (how it is obtained):
List I
a. GNP at market prices
b. NNP at market prices
c. National Income
d. GVA at basic prices
List II
I. GDP at market prices minus net product taxes
II. GDP at market prices plus net factor income from abroad
III. NNP at market prices minus net indirect taxes
IV. GNP at market prices minus depreciation
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Answer B. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
GNP = GDP + NFIA; NNP = GNP - depreciation; NI = NNP at MP - net indirect taxes; GVA at basic prices = GDP at MP - net product taxes. NCERT gives these identities in its summary table.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.35, p.37)
- Q41 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the overall balance of payments:
I. When there is an overall deficit, the central bank may sell foreign exchange from its reserves.
II. A decrease in official reserves is called the overall balance of payments deficit.
III. Official reserve transactions are more relevant under floating exchange rates than under fixed exchange rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Official reserve transactions matter more under fixed exchange rates, where the central bank must defend the rate.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.6 (Open Economy)
- Q42 Indian Economy
Which of the following pairs of income slab and tax rate under the new tax regime (Budget 2025-26) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer A. Rs 8 lakh - Rs 12 lakh : 15%
The Rs 8-12 lakh slab is taxed at 10%; the other pairs are correct.
Source: Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q43 Indian Economy
Which of the following are included in Private Income?
I. Interest on national debt
II. Net factor income from abroad
III. Current transfers from the government
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Answer B. I, II and III
All three are included. Private Income = factor income from NDP accruing to the private sector + national debt interest + NFIA + current transfers from government + other net transfers from the rest of the world.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics ch.2 (p.37)
- Q44 Indian Economy
Consider the following:
Assertion (A): The Phillips curve suggests a trade-off between unemployment and inflation.
Reason (R): Stagflation is a situation of high inflation together with high unemployment.
Choose the correct answer.
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Answer B. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Both are true, but R does not explain A. Stagflation in fact shows the trade-off breaking down; it does not explain why the curve suggests a trade-off.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.4 Monetary Policy and Inflation (Phillips curve; Stagflation)
- Q45 Indian Economy
The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) devised by Morris David Morris combines
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Answer A. life expectancy at age one, infant mortality and basic literacy
PQLI uses life expectancy at age one, infant mortality and basic literacy. It deliberately leaves out income.
Source: M.D. Morris, Measuring the Condition of the World's Poor (1979)
- Q46 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about NEER and REER:
I. NEER is a weighted average of the bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency.
II. REER is NEER adjusted for relative price levels (inflation) between the home country and its trading partners.
III. The RBI publishes NEER and REER indices only for a 6-currency basket.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. The RBI publishes both 6-currency and 40-currency NEER and REER indices.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter; RBI Handbook of Statistics
- Q47 Indian Economy
India's quota share in the IMF is about:
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Answer B. 2.75 per cent
India's IMF quota share is about 2.75% (8th largest); its voting share is a little lower, about 2.63%.
Source: PW Indian Economy, BoP & Foreign Exchange chapter; IMF quota data
- Q48 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor:
I. The SDF rate is the floor of the LAF corridor.
II. The MSF rate is the ceiling of the LAF corridor.
III. After April 2022 the fixed-rate reverse repo continued to be the floor of the corridor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
I and II are correct. From April 2022 the SDF rate replaced the fixed-rate reverse repo as the floor.
Source: PW Indian Economy, ch.4 Monetary Policy and Inflation (LAF corridor)
- Q49 Indian Economy
Article 279A required the President to constitute the GST Council within what period from the commencement of the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016?
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Answer D. Sixty days
Article 279A(1) required the GST Council to be constituted within sixty days of the commencement of the 101st Amendment Act.
Source: Constitution Art. 279A(1)
- Q50 Indian Economy
In Union of India v. Mohit Minerals (2022), the Supreme Court held that the recommendations of the GST Council
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Answer A. have only persuasive value and are not binding on Parliament and State Legislatures
The Court held that GST Council recommendations are persuasive and not binding, as Parliament and State Legislatures have simultaneous power to legislate on GST.
Source: Union of India v. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. (SC, 2022)
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Start free - Q51 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the Nuclear Energy Mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26:
I. It has an outlay of Rs 20,000 crore for research and development of Small Modular Reactors.
II. At least five indigenously developed Small Modular Reactors are to be operational by 2033.
III. The Budget mentioned a target of at least 100 GW of nuclear power by 2047.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I, II and III
All three are correct: Rs 20,000 crore for SMR R&D, five SMRs by 2033 and at least 100 GW of nuclear power by 2047.
Source: Budget Speech 2025-26 (1 Feb 2025)
- Q52 Indian Economy
Consider the following statements about the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948:
I. Arms and ammunition, atomic energy and railway transport were made a monopoly of the Central Government.
II. In basic industries such as coal, iron and steel and shipbuilding, new undertakings were to be set up by the State, while existing private units could continue.
III. It grouped industries into three schedules, A, B and C.
IV. It was announced in April 1948.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer C. I, II and IV only
The 1948 Resolution (6 April 1948) made arms, atomic energy and railway transport a Central monopoly and reserved new units in basic industries for the State. The Schedule A, B, C grouping came only with the 1956 Resolution.
Source: PW Indian Economy, Industrial Policies of India (p.124 printed); IPR 1948 and IPR 1956
- Q53 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, roads carry what share of goods and passenger traffic in Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer C. More than 80%
Roads carry more than 80% of goods and passenger traffic.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.7, p.138
- Q54 Andhra Pradesh Economy
As per the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, a minor irrigation source in Andhra Pradesh is one with an ayacut of up to
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Answer B. 5,000 acres
Minor irrigation sources are those with an ayacut of up to 5,000 acres.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, p.124
- Q55 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Budget Speech 2026-27, how many electric buses are being deployed in 11 major cities under the PM e-Bus Sewa Scheme?
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Answer B. 750
The Budget Speech 2026-27 mentions 750 electric buses in 11 major cities under the PM e-Bus Sewa Scheme; the AP SES 2024-25 also records 750 e-buses sanctioned.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27, PDF p.24; AP SES 2024-25, p.149
- Q56 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, Andhra Pradesh's rank among India's exporting states in FY 2023-24 was
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Answer B. Sixth
The AP SES 2024-25 says AP is the sixth largest exporting state in India (FY 2023-24).
Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.6, p.104
- Q57 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Budget Speech 2026-27, metro rail is planned for which two cities?
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Answer D. Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada
The Budget Speech 2026-27 says metro rail is planned for Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27, PDF p.12
- Q58 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which department has the largest allocation in the AP Budget 2026-27 (BE) as per the department-wise list in the Budget at a Glance?
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Answer D. School Education
School Education has the largest department allocation, Rs 32,308.32 crore, in BE 2026-27.
Source: AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.13; AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.10
- Q59 Andhra Pradesh Economy
In Andhra Pradesh, the name 'Dokka Seethamma' is given to which scheme?
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Answer C. Mid-day meal programme in schools
The mid-day meal scheme is named after Dokka Seethamma and is dovetailed with PM POSHAN.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.192; AP SES 2024-25 p.195; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.23
- Q60 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Under the Swarna Andhra @2047 vision, the AP Budget Speech 2026-27 mentions an aspirational annual growth rate of
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Answer B. 15%
The Budget Speech 2026-27 sets an aspirational growth rate of 15% per annum for Swarna Andhra @2047; the SES 2024-25 also says the vision needs 15% annual growth.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.20; AP SES 2024-25 p.93
- Q61 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, Rythu Seva Kendralu (RSKs) in Andhra Pradesh were set up alongside
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Answer B. Village secretariats
The State set up 10,778 Rythu Seva Kendralu alongside village secretariats.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, p.54
- Q62 Andhra Pradesh Economy
As per the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, the Polavaram Project is located how far upstream of the Sir Arthur Cotton Barrage at Dowlaiswaram?
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Answer A. 42 km
Polavaram is on the Godavari, 42 km upstream of the Sir Arthur Cotton Barrage at Dowlaiswaram.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, p.122
- Q63 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Consider the following statements about AP's receipts in the Budget 2026-27 (BE) as per the Budget at a Glance:
I. State tax revenue is estimated at about Rs 1,25,846 crore.
II. Share of central taxes is estimated at about Rs 64,362 crore.
III. Grants-in-aid are larger than the share of central taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
In BE 2026-27 State tax revenue is about Rs 1,25,846 crore, share of central taxes Rs 64,362 crore and grants-in-aid Rs 32,458 crore.
Source: AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.6; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.11
- Q64 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, the AP Industrial Development Policy (4.0) 2024-29 aims to raise manufacturing GVA from INR 3.4 lakh crore (FY24 AE) to
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Answer A. INR 7.3 lakh crore
The policy targets an increase in manufacturing GVA from INR 3.4 lakh crore to INR 7.3 lakh crore.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.12, p.330
- Q65 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, the growth of per capita income at current prices in 2024-25 for AP and All-India respectively is
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Answer B. 12.9% and 8.7%
AP per capita income grew 12.9% in 2024-25 at current prices, against 8.7% for All-India.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.24
- Q66 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Consider the following statements about horticulture crops in Andhra Pradesh in 2023-24 (Final Estimates), as per the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:
Statement A: Mango is the largest horticulture crop by area.
Statement B: Mango is also the fruit with the highest production.
Which of the following is correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Only A is correct
Mango is the largest horticulture crop by area (3.99 lakh ha), but banana has the highest fruit production (68.38 lakh MT).
Source: AP SES 2024-25, Annexure p.380
- Q67 Andhra Pradesh Economy
In the AP Budget 2026-27, the revenue deficit for 2026-27 (BE) as a percentage of GSDP is
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Answer A. 1.11%
The revenue deficit for BE 2026-27 is about Rs 22,002 crore, 1.11% of GSDP.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8
- Q68 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, what is the maximum investment subsidy for Mega and Ultra Mega projects under the AP Industrial Development Policy (4.0) 2024-29?
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Answer D. 15% of FCI
Mega and Ultra Mega projects get an investment subsidy of up to 15% of FCI, paid in 10 annual instalments. Large projects get up to 12%.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.6, p.96
- Q69 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Consider the following statements about Andhra Pradesh's startup and innovation rankings, as given in the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25:
I. AP was No.1 in the National States Startup Ranking 2022 (DPIIT).
II. AP was 3rd in the India Innovation Index 2022.
III. AP is the 7th largest State in startup infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. II only
Only statement II is incorrect: AP was 9th in the India Innovation Index 2022.
Source: AP SES 2024-25, ch.7, p.168
- Q70 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey 2024-25, which sub-sector of agriculture & allied recorded the lowest growth at constant prices in 2024-25 (FAE)?
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Answer A. Forestry & logging
Forestry & logging grew just 0.04% in 2024-25 (FAE, constant prices), the lowest among agriculture & allied sub-sectors.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.14
- Q71 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Consider the following statements about the extra housing assistance announced in the AP Budget Speech 2026-27:
I. SC and BC beneficiaries get an extra Rs 50,000.
II. ST beneficiaries get an extra Rs 75,000.
III. PVTG beneficiaries get an extra Rs 1,50,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
Extra housing aid is Rs 50,000 for SC and BC, Rs 75,000 for ST and Rs 1,00,000 for PVTG beneficiaries.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.23
- Q72 Andhra Pradesh Economy
As per the AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27, capital expenditure (including loans and advances) as a share of total expenditure in 2026-27 (BE) is
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Answer A. 16%
Capex (including loans and advances) is 16% of total expenditure in BE 2026-27, up from 13% in RE 2025-26.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.12
- Q73 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Match the following names with the irrigation projects of Andhra Pradesh that carry them:
List I
a. Poola Subbaiah
b. B.R.R.
c. AVR
d. Kandula Obul Reddy
List II
I. Handri-Neeva
II. Veligonda Project
III. Gundlakamma Reservoir
IV. Vamsadhara Phase-II
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
The official names are Poola Subbaiah Veligonda, B.R.R. Vamsadhara Phase-II, AVR Handri-Neeva and Kandula Obul Reddy Gundlakamma Reservoir.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.7; AP SES 2024-25, Annexure p.406
- Q74 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Consider the following statements about AP's finances for 2024-25 (Accounts, finalised by the Accountant General) as per the AP Budget 2026-27 documents:
I. The revenue deficit was 3.79% of GSDP.
II. The fiscal deficit was 5.11% of GSDP.
III. The primary deficit was 3.04% of GSDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. I, II and III
For 2024-25 (Accounts) the revenue deficit was 3.79%, fiscal deficit 5.11% and primary deficit 3.04% of GSDP, so all three are correct.
Source: AP Budget Speech 2026-27 PDF p.26; AP Budget at a Glance 2026-27 PDF p.8
- Q75 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Consider the following statements:
I. Under Aarogya Raksha for APL families, the premium is Rs 1,200 per member per year.
II. Aarogya Raksha gives health cover of Rs 5 lakh per family.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
As per AP SES 2024-25, Aarogya Raksha (APL) charges Rs 1,200 per member per year for Rs 2 lakh cover; AB PM-JAY gives Rs 5 lakh per family.
Source: AP SES 2024-25 p.222
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75 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Science & Technology
Match List I (missile) with List II (type):
List I
a. Akash
b. Nag
c. Astra
d. Nirbhay
List II
I. Anti-tank guided missile
II. Subsonic cruise missile
III. Surface-to-air missile
IV. Beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Akash is a surface-to-air missile, Nag an anti-tank guided missile, Astra a beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile and Nirbhay a subsonic cruise missile.
Source: DRDO missile pages
- Q77 Science & Technology
Who became the first Indian to visit the International Space Station, under the Axiom-4 mission in 2025?
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Answer D. Shubhanshu Shukla
Shubhanshu Shukla flew on Axiom-4 (June-July 2025) and became the first Indian to visit the ISS.
Source: PIB releases on Axiom-4, 2025
- Q78 Science & Technology
India has announced the target of reaching net-zero emissions by:
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Answer C. 2070
India announced at COP26 (Glasgow, 2021) that it will reach net zero by 2070.
Source: Indian Economy reference book p.138; India's Updated First Nationally Determined Contribution under the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC, August 2022)
- Q79 Science & Technology
Assertion (A): The first deterrence patrol of INS Arihant in 2018 completed India's nuclear triad.
Reason (R): INS Arihant gave India the ability to launch nuclear weapons from the sea, adding to its existing land-based and air-based delivery means.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
INS Arihant's first deterrence patrol (November 2018) completed India's nuclear triad. A triad means delivery from land, air and sea, and Arihant supplied the sea-based leg, so R explains A.
Source: PIB 5 Nov 2018
- Q80 Science & Technology
What kind of platform is HAL's 'Dhruv'?
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Answer C. An advanced light helicopter
Dhruv is HAL's Advanced Light Helicopter, used by the armed forces and the Coast Guard.
Source: HAL ALH Dhruv page
- Q81 Science & Technology
Which one of the following is NOT a type of malware?
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Answer A. Firewall
A firewall is a security tool that filters network traffic; worms, trojans and ransomware are malware.
Source: CERT-In security glossary / advisories (MeitY)
- Q82 Science & Technology
The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) of 500 MWe is located at
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Answer D. Kalpakkam
The 500 MWe PFBR, built by BHAVINI, is at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
Source: PIB 4 Mar 2024
- Q83 Science & Technology
CRISPR-Cas9, for which the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded, is a technology used for:
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Answer A. Genome editing
CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome-editing tool; Doudna and Charpentier received the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for it.
Source: Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2020 citation (Nobel Foundation)
- Q84 Science & Technology
Which of the following is NOT a global navigation satellite system?
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Answer D. NavIC
NavIC is India's regional navigation system, not a global one.
Source: Indian Economy ref p.140; ISRO NavIC page
- Q85 Science & Technology
Which one of the following has been modified into a cloning vector for delivering genes of interest into plants?
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Answer D. Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
The tumour-inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been made non-pathogenic and is used to deliver genes into plants.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.182; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.181
- Q86 Science & Technology
Golden rice is a genetically modified rice enriched with:
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Answer B. Vitamin A
Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, an example of GM improving the nutritional value of food.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.191
- Q87 Science & Technology
The National Quantum Mission (2023-24 to 2030-31) is being implemented by the:
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Answer C. Department of Science and Technology
The National Quantum Mission is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
Source: PIB release 19 Apr 2023
- Q88 Science & Technology
Which one of the following coal mining centres is INCORRECTLY matched with its State?
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Answer C. Talcher - Chhattisgarh
Talcher is in Odisha, not Chhattisgarh; Korba is the major coal centre of Chhattisgarh.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy p.69; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.64; NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.62
- Q89 Science & Technology
The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism to:
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Answer B. Improve energy efficiency in energy-intensive industries through tradable energy-saving certificates
PAT, under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, sets energy-saving targets for energy-intensive industries; units that save more get tradable certificates.
Source: BEE PAT scheme
- Q90 Science & Technology
As per CERT-In directions of April 2022, specified cyber incidents must be reported to CERT-In within:
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Answer A. 6 hours
CERT-In directions (28 April 2022) require reporting of specified cyber incidents within 6 hours of noticing them.
Source: CERT-In Directions under section 70B(6) of the IT Act, No. 20(3)/2022-CERT-In, 28 April 2022 para (ii)
- Q91 Science & Technology
Rosie, the first transgenic cow (1997), produced milk enriched with which human protein?
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Answer A. Alpha-lactalbumin
Rosie's milk contained human alpha-lactalbumin (2.4 g per litre), making it nutritionally better balanced for human babies.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.10 (pdf p.196)
- Q92 Science & Technology
Match List I (mission) with List II (launch vehicle):
List I
a. Chandrayaan-1
b. Chandrayaan-3
c. Aditya-L1
d. Mangalyaan
List II
I. LVM3-M4
II. PSLV-C25
III. PSLV-C11
IV. PSLV-C57
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Chandrayaan-1 flew on PSLV-C11, Chandrayaan-3 on LVM3-M4, Aditya-L1 on PSLV-C57 and Mangalyaan on PSLV-C25.
Source: ISRO mission pages
- Q93 Science & Technology
AIRAWAT, India's AI supercomputer that entered the global Top500 list in 2023, is installed at:
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Answer C. C-DAC, Pune
AIRAWAT is installed at C-DAC, Pune; it was ranked 75th in the Top500 list of May 2023.
Source: PW Indian Economy p.131
- Q94 Science & Technology
Consider the following statements about Bt toxin:
I. In the bacterium, the Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin.
II. The protoxin becomes active due to the acidic pH of the insect gut.
III. The active toxin creates pores in the midgut epithelial cells of the insect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; the protoxin is activated by the alkaline (not acidic) pH of the insect gut.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.191; NCERT Class 12 Biology p.169
- Q95 Environment & Ecology
World Environment Day, which marks the opening of the 1972 Stockholm Conference, is observed on
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Answer B. 5 June
World Environment Day is observed on 5 June, the opening day of the Stockholm Conference.
Source: UNGA Res. 2994 (XXVII)
- Q96 Environment & Ecology
The loudness of sound is expressed in:
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Answer C. Decibels
Loudness of sound is measured in decibels (dB).
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Physics Sem-1 p.132
- Q97 Environment & Ecology
Indian mustard (Brassica juncea) is used in phytoremediation mainly to remove
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Answer B. Heavy metals such as lead from soil
Brassica juncea takes up heavy metals like lead into its shoots (phytoextraction).
Source: US EPA, Introduction to Phytoremediation (2000)
- Q98 Environment & Ecology
Statement A: Decomposition is slower when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
Statement B: Low temperature and anaerobiosis favour decomposition.
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Answer C. A is true, but B is false
Statement A is true; Statement B is false because low temperature and lack of oxygen inhibit decomposition, while warm and moist conditions favour it.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.220
- Q99 Environment & Ecology
Preserving the gametes of threatened species in a viable and fertile condition for long periods at very low temperatures is called:
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Answer D. Cryopreservation
Cryopreservation keeps gametes viable for long periods at very low temperatures.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.237
- Q100 Environment & Ecology
The gas that leaked in the Bhopal gas tragedy of December 1984 was:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Methyl isocyanate
Methyl isocyanate (MIC) leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant at Bhopal.
Source: Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act 1985
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50 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Environment & Ecology
Biogas (gobar gas) is produced from cattle dung mainly by
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Answer C. Methanogens
Biogas, mostly methane, is produced by methanogens such as Methanobacterium acting on dung anaerobically.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.167; NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development p.142
- Q102 Environment & Ecology
Which State passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management in 1988?
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Answer A. Odisha
Odisha passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management in 1988.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.2 p.29
- Q103 Environment & Ecology
The Ramsar Convention on wetlands was signed in 1971 at Ramsar, which is in:
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Answer C. Iran
The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 at Ramsar, Iran.
Source: Ramsar Convention 1971
- Q104 Environment & Ecology
Water that is suitable for drinking is called:
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Answer C. Potable water
Water which is suitable for drinking is called potable water; it can be made safe by filtration, boiling or chlorination.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Biology Sem-2 ch.7 p.88
- Q105 Environment & Ecology
According to Herman Daly, for renewable resources, sustainable development requires that
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Answer B. The rate of extraction should not exceed the rate of regeneration
Herman Daly held that renewable resources should be extracted no faster than they regenerate.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development p.141
- Q106 Environment & Ecology
The conversion of ammonia into nitrite and then into nitrate by soil bacteria is called:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Nitrification
Nitrification is the conversion of ammonia to nitrite (by Nitrosomonas) and of nitrite to nitrate (by Nitrobacter).
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science p.284; NCERT Class 11 Biology p.25
- Q107 Environment & Ecology
Biodiesel plants in India use several raw materials. Which one below is NOT used to make biodiesel?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Sugarcane molasses
Molasses is fermented to make ethanol, not biodiesel.
Source: National Policy on Biofuels 2018
- Q108 Environment & Ecology
Match the Acts in List I with their years of enactment in List II.
List I
a. Wild Life (Protection) Act
b. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
c. Forest (Conservation) Act
d. Environment (Protection) Act
List II
I. 1980
II. 1972
III. 1986
IV. 1974
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
WPA - 1972, Water Act - 1974, Forest (Conservation) Act - 1980, EPA - 1986.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.26; AP SCERT Class 7 Social Sem-1 p.66
- Q109 Environment & Ecology
Statement A: Animals fix atmospheric nitrogen directly from the air they breathe.
Statement B: Plants assimilate nitrogen compounds such as nitrates from the soil.
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Answer D. A is false, but B is true
Statement A is false because animals obtain nitrogen by eating plants or other animals; Statement B is true because plants absorb nitrates from the soil.
Source: NCERT Class 9 Science p.284; AP SCERT Class 8 Biology (Sem-1) p.58
- Q110 Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is NOT a gaseous nutrient cycle?
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Answer D. Phosphorus cycle
The phosphorus cycle is sedimentary; carbon, nitrogen and oxygen cycles have the atmosphere as a main reservoir and are gaseous.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.226; Indian Geography reference book p.52; NCERT Class 9 Science p.284
- Q111 Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is NOT a method of ex situ conservation?
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Answer C. Sacred groves
Sacred groves protect forests on site, so they are in situ, not ex situ.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.237
- Q112 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is NOT a property used to identify a waste as hazardous?
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Answer A. Biodegradability
A waste is hazardous because of toxic, flammable, corrosive, reactive or explosive properties; being biodegradable does not make it hazardous.
Source: Hazardous and Other Wastes Rules 2016
- Q113 Environment & Ecology
The logistic growth curve of a population with limited resources is:
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Answer C. Sigmoid (S-shaped)
Logistic (Verhulst-Pearl) growth gives a sigmoid curve that levels off at the carrying capacity.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.207
- Q114 Environment & Ecology
Separate rules for construction and demolition (C&D) waste were notified for the first time in India in
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Answer D. 2016
The Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016 were India's first separate rules for C&D waste.
Source: Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules 2016
- Q115 Environment & Ecology
Assertion (A): Open burning of PVC waste is harmful to health.
Reason (R): Burning of chlorinated plastics releases dioxins and furans.
Choose the correct option.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: dioxins and furans released by burning PVC are highly toxic.
Source: Stockholm Convention Annex C
- Q116 Environment & Ecology
Match List I (tiger reserve / national park) with List II (State):
List I
a. Bandhavgarh
b. Sariska
c. Manas
d. Periyar
List II
I. Rajasthan
II. Kerala
III. Madhya Pradesh
IV. Assam
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Bandhavgarh is in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska in Rajasthan, Manas in Assam and Periyar in Kerala.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.2 p.27
- Q117 Environment & Ecology
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in
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Answer C. 2010
The NGT was set up on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Source: National Green Tribunal Act 2010
- Q118 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following organisms breed only once in their lifetime?
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Answer D. Pacific salmon fish and bamboo
Pacific salmon fish and bamboo breed only once in their lifetime, while most birds and mammals breed many times.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.208
- Q119 Environment & Ecology
The minimum thickness of plastic carry bags in India from 31 December 2022 is
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Answer A. 120 microns
The PWM (Amendment) Rules 2021 raised carry-bag thickness to 75 microns from 30 Sept 2021 and to 120 microns from 31 Dec 2022.
Source: Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2021
- Q120 Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following correctly relates gross primary productivity (GPP), net primary productivity (NPP) and respiration losses (R)?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. GPP – R = NPP
Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration losses: GPP – R = NPP.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology p.219
- Q121 Environment & Ecology
Release of hot water from power plants into rivers, which harms aquatic life, is called:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Thermal pollution
Hot water released into water bodies causes thermal pollution.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Biology Sem-2 ch.7 p.86
- Q122 Environment & Ecology
The Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) was defined mainly to:
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Protect the Taj Mahal from air pollution
The Taj Trapezium Zone was defined, following Supreme Court orders, to protect the Taj Mahal from air pollution.
Source: M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Taj Trapezium case), 1996
- Q123 Environment & Ecology
'Silent Spring' (1962), the book that drew attention to the harm caused by pesticides such as DDT, was written by
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Answer B. Rachel Carson
Rachel Carson wrote 'Silent Spring' in 1962.
Source: Carson, Silent Spring, 1962
- Q124 Environment & Ecology
The Brundtland Commission Report was published in
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1987
The Brundtland Report 'Our Common Future' was published in 1987.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II p.16; NCERT Class 11 Indian Economic Development p.167
- Q125 Environment & Ecology
When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. This is called:
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Answer D. Co-extinction
Loss of species that depend obligatorily on an extinct species is called co-extinction.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.235
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25 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q126 Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements about the Kyoto Protocol:
I. It was adopted in 1997 at Kyoto, Japan.
II. It set binding emission-reduction targets for India.
III. It entered into force in 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct; India, a developing (non-Annex I) country that acceded in 2002, had no binding targets.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Physical Geography p.96; NCERT Class 12 CWP p.87-88
- Q127 Environment & Ecology
The contaminated liquid formed when rainwater percolates through waste in a landfill is called
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Answer B. Leachate
Leachate is the polluted liquid formed when water passes through waste and dissolves contaminants.
Source: SWM Rules 2016 Schedule I
- Q128 Environment & Ecology
The SDGs replaced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs). How many MDGs were there?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Eight
There were eight Millennium Development Goals, with 2015 as the target year.
Source: UN Millennium Declaration 2000
- Q129 Environment & Ecology
At the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002, 190 countries pledged to achieve a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss by:
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Answer B. 2010
At Johannesburg (2002), 190 countries pledged to achieve by 2010 a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional and local levels.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.13 p.237
- Q130 Environment & Ecology
Photochemical smog is:
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Answer B. Oxidising in nature and contains ozone and PAN
Photochemical smog forms in sunlight from NOx and hydrocarbons; it is oxidising and contains ozone and PAN.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Unit 14
- Q131 Environment & Ecology
Noise was included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 by an amendment made in
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Answer B. 1987
The 1987 amendment to the Air Act added noise to the definition of 'air pollutant'.
Source: Air Act 1981 s.2(a) as amended in 1987
- Q132 Environment & Ecology
Match the following pollution control devices / processes with the pollutant they mainly remove:
List I
a. Electrostatic precipitator
b. Scrubber
c. Catalytic converter
d. Activated sludge process
List II
I. Organic matter in sewage
II. Gases like sulphur dioxide
III. Particulate matter from thermal power plant exhaust
IV. CO, unburnt hydrocarbons and nitric oxide in vehicle exhaust
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
ESP removes particulates, scrubber removes gases like SO2, catalytic converter treats CO, hydrocarbons and NO, and the activated sludge process removes organic matter from sewage.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology (2006-22 eds) ch.16; NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 p.166
- Q133 Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following Acts is NOT listed in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
The Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is not in Schedule I of the NGT Act, so the NGT cannot hear cases under it.
Source: National Green Tribunal Act 2010, Schedule I
- Q134 Environment & Ecology
Under the SWM Rules, 2016, non-recyclable waste having a calorific value of how much or more should not be sent to landfills?
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Answer A. 1500 kcal/kg
The SWM Rules 2016 bar landfilling of non-recyclable waste of 1500 kcal/kg or more; it is to be used for energy recovery or RDF.
Source: Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (MoEFCC)
- Q135 Environment & Ecology
The first Conference of the Parties (COP1) to the UNFCCC was held in 1995 at
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Berlin
COP1 was held in Berlin in 1995 and produced the Berlin Mandate.
Source: UNFCCC
- Q136 Environment & Ecology
India submitted its Long-Term Low-Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) to the UNFCCC during
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh (2022)
India submitted its LT-LEDS in November 2022 at COP27.
Source: India's LT-LEDS, MoEFCC 2022
- Q137 Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is NOT an effect of long-term overuse of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides, according to NCERT?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Increase in the humus content of the soil
Overuse of synthetic fertilisers lowers humus and friendly soil micro-organisms, making soil prone to erosion; it also reduces natural predators, and some pests become resistant. Humus decreases, it does not increase.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Curiosity ch.12 p.226
- Q138 Environment & Ecology
Bioremediation that depends only on the naturally present microbes at a site, without adding nutrients or microbes, is called
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Answer A. Intrinsic bioremediation (natural attenuation)
Intrinsic bioremediation lets native microbes degrade the pollutant with only monitoring.
Source: US EPA Citizen's Guide to Bioremediation
- Q139 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following gives the correct sequence of stages in the anaerobic digestion (bio-methanation) of organic waste?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Hydrolysis - Acidogenesis - Acetogenesis - Methanogenesis
Polymers are first hydrolysed, then converted to acids, then to acetate, and finally to methane.
Source: CPHEEO Manual on MSWM 2016, bio-methanation
- Q140 Environment & Ecology
Match the following diseases with the pollutant that causes them:
List I
a. Itai-itai disease
b. Blue baby syndrome
c. Fluorosis
d. Black-foot disease
List II
I. Fluoride
II. Arsenic
III. Nitrate
IV. Cadmium
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Itai-itai - cadmium, blue baby syndrome - nitrate, fluorosis - fluoride and black-foot disease - arsenic.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Unit 14; standard reference
- Q141 Environment & Ecology
Which body acts as the 'prescribed authority' for bio-medical waste in a State, granting authorisation to hospitals and clinics?
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Answer C. State Pollution Control Board
The prescribed authority is the SPCB in a State and the Pollution Control Committee in a Union Territory.
Source: BMW Rules 2016, r.3 and r.10
- Q142 Environment & Ecology
Under the EIA Notification, 2006, prior environmental clearance for 'Category B' projects is given by the
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Answer D. State Environment Impact Assessment Authority
Category B projects are cleared by the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA); Category A projects are cleared by MoEFCC at the Centre.
Source: EIA Notification 2006 paras 2, 4
- Q143 Environment & Ecology
Countries present their Voluntary National Reviews (VNRs) of progress on the SDGs at the
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Answer B. High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development
VNRs are presented at the HLPF, which meets every July under ECOSOC.
Source: A/RES/70/1 paras 82-89
- Q144 Environment & Ecology
'Interference competition' is a situation in which:
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Answer B. One species' feeding efficiency is reduced by another's presence, even when food is abundant
In interference competition the feeding efficiency of one species is reduced by the interfering and inhibitory presence of another species, even if resources (food and space) are abundant.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.11 pp.210-211
- Q145 Environment & Ecology
In a broad ecological sense, a sparrow eating seeds is best described as a:
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Answer C. Predator
NCERT says a sparrow eating any seed is no less a predator; animals eating plants are, in a broad ecological sense, not very different from predators.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.11 p.209 (predation)
- Q146 Environment & Ecology
Assertion (A): Secondary treatment of sewage significantly reduces the BOD of the effluent.
Reason (R): In the aeration tanks, aerobic microbes growing as flocs consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: BOD measures organic matter, and the flocs consume most of the organic matter, so BOD falls.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Biology ch.8 p.166
- Q147 Environment & Ecology
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot (Myers et al., 2000), a region must have at least ____ endemic vascular plant species and must have lost at least ____ of its original habitat.
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Answer B. 1,500; 70 per cent
A hotspot must have at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and must have lost at least 70 per cent of its original habitat.
Source: Myers et al. 2000, Nature 403:853-858
- Q148 Environment & Ecology
Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, the ambient noise limit for a residential area during day time is:
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Answer A. 55 dB(A)
The day-time limit in a residential area is 55 dB(A) Leq.
Source: Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000, Schedule
- Q149 Environment & Ecology
The 'enhanced transparency framework' for reporting climate action and support is set up under which Article of the Paris Agreement?
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Answer C. Article 13
Article 13 establishes the enhanced transparency framework for action and support.
Source: Paris Agreement Art. 13
- Q150 Environment & Ecology
NCERT's table of polluted river stretches names three stretches of the Ganga. Which one of these stretches is NOT among them?
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Answer A. Gangotri to Devprayag
NCERT's Table 9.2 lists the polluted stretches of the Ganga as downstream of Kanpur, downstream of Varanasi and Farakka Barrage. The upper reach from Gangotri to Devprayag is not listed.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy ch.9 p.106 (Table 9.2)
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