Free mock test · Group 2
APPSC G2 Mains Paper I Mock 1 with answers
- 150 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
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Topics in this test (2)
Questions and answers
- Q1 AP Social & Cultural History
Satyadoota (1835), regarded as the first Telugu periodical, was published by:
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Answer A. The Christian mission at Bellary
Satyadoota was published in 1835 by the Christian mission at Bellary.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q2 AP Social & Cultural History
How many leaders in all signed the Gentlemen's Agreement of 1956?
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Answer D. 8
Eight leaders, four from each region, signed the Gentlemen's Agreement.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.262; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34
- Q3 AP Social & Cultural History
Under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, the 'appointed day' on which Telangana came into existence was:
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Answer A. 2 June 2014
The appointed day under the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 was 2 June 2014.
Source: Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 s.2(a), s.3; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.274
- Q4 AP Social & Cultural History
The Jai Andhra movement came to an end in 1973 with:
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Answer B. The Six-Point Formula
The Six-Point Formula of 1973 ended the Jai Andhra movement.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.272
- Q5 AP Social & Cultural History
Krishnadevaraya's Telugu poem Amuktamalyada narrates the story of:
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Answer A. Andal (Goda Devi), the Tamil Vaishnava poetess
Amuktamalyada is based on the life of Andal (Goda Devi), the Tamil Vaishnava poetess.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies (2020) p.129
- Q6 AP Social & Cultural History
The Eight-Point Formula of 1969 on the Telangana issue was announced by:
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Answer A. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the Eight-Point Formula in 1969.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.365; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.266
- Q7 AP Social & Cultural History
In 2008 which district of Andhra Pradesh was renamed in memory of Potti Sriramulu?
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Answer D. Nellore
Nellore district was renamed Sri Potti Sriramulu Nellore in 2008.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349
- Q8 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the chairman of the States Reorganisation Commission appointed in 1953?
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Answer C. Fazl Ali
Fazl Ali was chairman of the States Reorganisation Commission.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.257; NCERT Politics in India since Independence ch.1 p.21
- Q9 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A): Kandukuri Veeresalingam is called 'Gadya Tikkana'.
Reason (R): Veeresalingam wrote extensively in Telugu prose, including novels and journals.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: the title 'Gadya Tikkana' was given for his prose writings.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.224
- Q10 AP Social & Cultural History
Who assisted Nannaya in rendering the Mahabharata into Telugu?
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Answer D. Narayana Bhatta
Narayana Bhatta helped Nannaya with the Telugu Mahabharata and was rewarded with the village Nandampudi.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q11 AP Social & Cultural History
The city of Hyderabad was founded in 1591 by:
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Answer D. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah (1580-1612) founded the city of Hyderabad (Bhagyanagar) in 1591 and built the Charminar, traditionally said to mark the end of a plague.
Source: APPSC topic-wise PYQ compilation (user copy); Telugu AP History Bit Bank (user copy)
- Q12 AP Social & Cultural History
Kandukuri Veeresalingam started a school at which place near Rajahmundry?
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Answer C. Dhavaleswaram
AP SCERT records that Veeresalingam started a school at Dhavaleswaram near Rajahmundry.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.224; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check)
- Q13 AP Social & Cultural History
The Gentlemen's Agreement of 1956 between the leaders of Andhra and Telangana was signed in which city?
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Answer A. Delhi
The Gentlemen's Agreement was signed in Delhi on 20 February 1956.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.261; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.34; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.354
- Q14 AP Social & Cultural History
Allasani Peddana, called 'Andhra Kavita Pitamaha', wrote:
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Answer B. Manucharitra
Allasani Peddana wrote Manucharitra (and Harikathasaram).
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.168
- Q15 AP Social & Cultural History
The Sri Bagh Pact (1937) was an agreement between the leaders of:
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Answer B. Coastal Andhra and Rayalaseema
The Sri Bagh Pact was signed between leaders of coastal Andhra and Rayalaseema.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.214; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.337
- Q16 AP Social & Cultural History
The Qutb Shahi dynasty of Golconda was founded by:
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Answer A. Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk
The Qutb Shahi dynasty of Golconda was founded by Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk, earlier a Bahmani governor; the Sultanate of Golconda emerged with the collapse of the Bahmani kingdom.
Source: APPSC topic-wise PYQ compilation (user copy); Telugu AP History Bit Bank (user copy); NCERT Class 12 Themes II p.95
- Q17 AP Social & Cultural History
The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb conquered the Golconda kingdom in:
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Answer C. 1687
Aurangzeb conquered Bijapur in 1685 and Golconda in 1687.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 (old 2020 ed.) p.124
- Q18 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh during the Telangana agitation of 1969?
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Answer A. Kasu Brahmananda Reddy
Kasu Brahmananda Reddy was Chief Minister during the 1969 agitation.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.269; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.270
- Q19 AP Social & Cultural History
After the decline of the Satavahanas, the Ikshvakus ruled from which capital on the banks of the river Krishna?
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Answer B. Vijayapuri
The Ikshvakus made Vijayapuri, in the Nagarjunakonda valley on the Krishna, their capital.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2, ch. on dynasties (Ikshvakus, Pallavas); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Ikshvakus / Post-Satavahanas / Post-Chalukyas)
- Q20 AP Social & Cultural History
Which Eastern Chalukya king is said to have fought 108 battles and built 108 Shiva temples?
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Answer B. Vijayaditya II
Tradition credits Vijayaditya II, called Narendra Mrigaraja, with 108 battles and 108 Shiva temples.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q21 AP Social & Cultural History
Who is called the 'Adikavi' (first poet) of Telugu?
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Answer C. Nannaya
Nannaya is honoured as the Adikavi of Telugu.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q22 AP Social & Cultural History
The Reddi ruler who celebrated Vasantotsavas every year and took the title 'Karpura Vasantaraya' was:
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Answer A. Kumaragiri Reddi
Kumaragiri Reddi celebrated Vasantotsavas every year and took the title Karpura Vasantaraya; he wrote Vasantarajiyam, a Sanskrit work on dance.
Source: APPSC topic-wise PYQ compilation (user copy); Telugu AP History Bit Bank (user copy)
- Q23 AP Social & Cultural History
Gautamiputra Satakarni is credited with defeating several foreign peoples. Which of the following is NOT among them?
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Answer D. Kushanas
The Kushanas are not among them. Gautamiputra Satakarni is credited with defeating the Sakas, Yavanas and Pahlavas.
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 (Satavahanas) p.52; standard
- Q24 AP Social & Cultural History
Who among the following was the Kannada Adikavi and court poet of the Vemulavada Chalukya ruler Arikesari II, a contemporary of the Eastern Chalukyas?
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Answer C. Pampa
Pampa, the Adikavi of Kannada and author of Vikramarjuna Vijaya, was the court poet of Arikesari II of Vemulavada.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q25 AP Social & Cultural History
Which paper is regarded as the first Telugu political newspaper of the Telangana region?
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Answer B. Neelagiri Patrika
Neelagiri Patrika, published from Nalgonda, is regarded as the first political Telugu paper of Telangana.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check)
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125 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q26 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements:
I. Damodaram Sanjivayya was Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh in 1960-62.
II. Kasu Brahmananda Reddy was Chief Minister during the 1969 Telangana agitation.
III. P.V. Narasimha Rao was Chief Minister of Andhra State when the Gentlemen's Agreement was signed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
I and II are correct; Bezawada Gopala Reddy was CM of Andhra State in February 1956.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.266; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.267; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.356; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.269
- Q27 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following Sanskrit works was written by Krishnadevaraya?
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Answer B. Jambavati Kalyanam
Krishnadevaraya wrote the Sanskrit Jambavati Kalyanam besides the Telugu Amuktamalyada.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social (Vijayanagara and Kakatiya chapters)
- Q28 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about Krishnadevaraya:
I. Tall temple gateways called Raya gopurams were built in his honour.
II. He personally visited temples such as Tirupati, Srisailam and Ahobilam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Krishnadevaraya personally visited temples such as Tirupati, Srisailam and Ahobilam, and tall gateways called Raya gopurams were built in his honour. Both statements are true.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 (old 2020 ed.) p.120
- Q29 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements:
I. The Bhimeswara temple at Draksharama was built by Chalukya Bhima I.
II. The Kumararama temple at Samarlakota was also built by Chalukya Bhima I.
III. Amararama, one of the Pancharamas, is at Amaravati on the Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct: Chalukya Bhima I built Draksharama and Samarlakota, and Amararama is at Amaravati.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q30 AP Social & Cultural History
According to NCERT's timeline, the earliest inscriptional evidence of land grants (c. 100-200 CE) comes from the records of which rulers?
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Answer D. Satavahana and Shaka rulers
NCERT dates the earliest inscriptional evidence of land grants to c. 100-200 CE, by Satavahana and Shaka rulers.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.2 timeline p.64
- Q31 AP Social & Cultural History
Which one of the following pairs of person and organisation is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer C. Kala Venkata Rao - Ramadandu
Ramadandu was the volunteer corps of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya; Kala Venkata Rao is known for drafting the Kurnool Circular (1942).
Source: Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra; Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.65
- Q32 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements:
I. Bulusu Sambamurthy was Speaker of the Madras Legislative Assembly in 1937.
II. Konda Venkatappayya moved the 1938 resolution for an Andhra province in the Madras Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: Sambamurthy was Speaker from 1937 and Konda Venkatappayya moved the 1938 resolution.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.214; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.211
- Q33 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about Rajendra Chalukya:
I. He was the son of Rajaraja Narendra and Ammangadevi.
II. He became the Chola emperor as Kulottunga I.
III. He sent an embassy of 72 merchants to China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are correct: Rajendra Chalukya, son of Rajaraja Narendra and Ammangadevi, ruled as Kulottunga I and sent 72 merchants to China in 1077.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q34 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about Gautamiputra Satakarni, as described in NCERT:
Statement A: He claimed to have prevented intermarriage among members of the four varnas.
Statement B: He described himself as a destroyer of the pride of the Brahmanas.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer A. A only
Only Statement A is correct. NCERT notes that Gautamiputra Satakarni claimed to prevent intermarriage among the four varnas and called himself a unique Brahmana (eka bamhana) and a destroyer of the pride of the Kshatriyas, not of the Brahmanas.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.3 p.77
- Q35 AP Social & Cultural History
Match the events in List I with their years in List II:
List I
a. Bipin Chandra Pal's tour of Andhra
b. Kakinada session of the INC
c. Prakasam's protest against the Simon Commission
d. Kurnool Circular
List II
I. 1923
II. 1942
III. 1907
IV. 1928
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Pal's tour 1907, Kakinada session 1923, Simon protest 1928 and Kurnool Circular 1942.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains 2025 Paper I official key Q51; Samiksha APPSC AP History PYQs (2026), Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra; Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.65
- Q36 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following works was NOT written by Bammera Potana?
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Answer D. Harivamsam
Harivamsam is by Errapragada. Potana's works include the Andhra Maha Bhagavatam, Bhogini Dandakam and Veerabhadra Vijayam.
Source: APPSC topic-wise PYQ compilation (user copy); Telugu AP History Bit Bank (user copy)
- Q37 AP Social & Cultural History
NCERT describes the sculptures of Amaravati as marked by:
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Answer D. Slender figures in tribhanga, with intense emotion and movement
Amaravati sculptures have slender figures, often in tribhanga, full of movement and intense emotion, in more complex compositions than at Sanchi.
Source: NCERT Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art Part I ch.4 p.44
- Q38 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the first Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer C. K.V. Ranga Reddy
K.V. Ranga Reddy was the first person to hold the post of Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh; the post was not filled at once when the state was formed in 1956.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.264; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.267; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.356
- Q39 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following was NOT a title of the Pallava king Mahendravarman I?
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Answer D. Vatapikonda
Vatapikonda was the title of Narasimhavarman I; Vichitrachitta, Chitrakarapuli and Mattavilasa were titles of Mahendravarman I.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Ikshvakus / Post-Satavahanas / Post-Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Ikshvakulu / Vishnukundinulu
- Q40 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about Kandukuri Veeresalingam:
I. He was born at Rajahmundry in 1848.
II. He founded the Prarthana Samaj at Rajahmundry in 1878.
III. The British government gave him the title 'Rao Bahadur' in 1905.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; the title 'Rao Bahadur' was conferred in 1893, not 1905.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.224; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check)
- Q41 AP Social & Cultural History
Pavuluri Mallana rendered which Sanskrit mathematical work into Telugu?
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Answer D. Ganitasarasangraha
Pavuluri Mallana rendered Mahaviracharya's Ganitasarasangraha into Telugu as Sara Sangraha Ganitamu.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Eastern Chalukyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Toorpu Chalukyulu
- Q42 AP Social & Cultural History
Andhrula Sanghika Charitra, which won the first Sahitya Akademi award given for Telugu, was written by:
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Answer D. Suravaram Pratapa Reddy
Suravaram Pratapa Reddy wrote Andhrula Sanghika Charitra, which received the first Sahitya Akademi award for Telugu (1955).
Source: Sahitya Akademi; Samiksha PYQ book (Q612)
- Q43 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. Dutch factory set up at Masulipatnam
II. French factory set up at Masulipatnam
III. English ship Globe reaches Masulipatnam
IV. English factory set up at Armagaon
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Answer A. I, III, IV, II
The Dutch factory (1605), the Globe (1611), Armagaon (1626) and the French factory (1669) give I, III, IV, II.
Source: Modern India reference, ch.1 Advent of Europeans (cross-check); APPSC PYQ compilation (modern Andhra) and Telugu AP History bit bank, cross-checked
- Q44 AP Social & Cultural History
Gurajada Appa Rao's poem 'Puttadi Bomma Purnamma' is a protest against:
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Answer A. Marrying young girls to old men for money
The poem tells the tragedy of Purnamma, a young girl married off to an old man for money.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check)
- Q45 AP Social & Cultural History
Swami Sitaram, who fasted for a separate Andhra State in 1951, ended his fast at the request of:
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Answer D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
Swami Sitaram ended his 1951 fast for Andhra State at the request of Acharya Vinoba Bhave.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.218; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.38
- Q46 AP Social & Cultural History
Which Yadava king of Devagiri invaded the Kakatiya kingdom and was defeated by Rudrama Devi?
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Answer A. Mahadeva
Rudrama Devi defeated the Yadava king Mahadeva and forced him to sue for peace.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Kakatiyas)
- Q47 AP Social & Cultural History
Match the following types of megalithic monuments with their descriptions:
List I
a. Dolmen
b. Cist
c. Menhir
d. Sarcophagus
List II
I. A single upright stone set up as a memorial
II. A large capstone resting on upright stones
III. A terracotta coffin, often with legs
IV. A box-like chamber of stone slabs, usually below the ground
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Answer D. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
Dolmen = capstone on upright stones; cist = stone-slab chamber below ground; menhir = single upright memorial stone; sarcophagus = terracotta coffin, often legged. Code: a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III.
Source: Standard megalith typology; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu, cross-check)
- Q48 AP Social & Cultural History
Match the following persons with the causes they are best known for:
List I
a. Gidugu Ramamurthy
b. Goparaju Ramachandra Rao (Gora)
c. Bhagya Reddy Varma
d. Ayyanki Venkata Ramanaiah
List II
I. Library movement
II. Awakening of dalits as 'Adi Andhras'
III. Atheist movement
IV. Use of spoken Telugu in writing
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Gidugu - spoken Telugu; Gora - atheist movement; Bhagya Reddy Varma - dalit awakening as Adi Andhras; Ayyanki - library movement.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.228
- Q49 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List I (title) with List II (poet):
List I
a. Kavi Brahma
b. Prabandha Parameswara
c. Kavi Sarvabhauma
d. Kaviraja Sikhamani
List II
I. Nannechoda
II. Srinatha
III. Errana
IV. Tikkana
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Kavi Brahma is Tikkana, Prabandha Parameswara is Errana, Kavi Sarvabhauma is Srinatha and Kaviraja Sikhamani is Nannechoda.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q41, Q62, Q73)
- Q50 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about N.G. Ranga:
I. He founded the Indian Peasants' Institute in 1933.
II. He was among the leaders of the All India Kisan Sabha founded at Lucknow in 1936.
III. He led the Chirala-Perala movement of 1921.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
Ranga founded the Indian Peasants' Institute (1933) and was a leader of the All India Kisan Sabha (Lucknow, 1936); Chirala-Perala was led by Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya.
Source: Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.108; AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) ch.11B National Movement - The Last Phase (Constituent Assembly section)
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100 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q51 AP Social & Cultural History
The main item that the Dutch exported from the Coromandel coast was:
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Answer B. Woven cotton cloth
The Dutch on the Coromandel coast bought mainly woven cotton textiles for export.
Source: APPSC PYQ compilation (modern Andhra) and Telugu AP History bit bank, cross-checked; Modern India reference, ch.1 Advent of Europeans (cross-check)
- Q52 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A): Kandukuri Veeresalingam launched an anti-nautch campaign in Andhra.
Reason (R): He regarded the dedication of girls to temples as devadasis, and the practices linked to it, as a social evil.
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Answer A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both are true and R explains A: Veeresalingam opposed the devadasi and nautch system as a social evil and so ran the anti-nautch campaign.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) p.242; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check)
- Q53 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List I (Author) with List II (Work):
List I
a. Ketana
b. Marana
c. Manchana
d. Gona Budda Reddy
List II
I. Markandeya Puranam
II. Ranganatha Ramayanam
III. Dasakumaracharitra
IV. Keyurabahu Charitra
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Ketana - Dasakumaracharitra, Marana - Markandeya Puranam, Manchana - Keyurabahu Charitra, Gona Budda Reddy - Ranganatha Ramayanam.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Kakatiyas); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Kakatiyulu
- Q54 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List I (writer) with List II (work recognised by a national literary award):
List I
a. Viswanatha Satyanarayana
b. C. Narayana Reddy
c. Ravuri Bharadwaja
d. Suravaram Pratapa Reddy
List II
I. Andhrula Sanghika Charitra
II. Paakudu Raallu
III. Viswambhara
IV. Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu
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Answer B. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Viswanatha - Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu (Jnanpith), C. Narayana Reddy - Viswambhara (Jnanpith), Ravuri Bharadwaja - Paakudu Raallu (Jnanpith), Suravaram - Andhrula Sanghika Charitra (Sahitya Akademi).
Source: Bharatiya Jnanpith; Sahitya Akademi; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q38
- Q55 AP Social & Cultural History
Who among the following was NOT a Telangana signatory to the Gentlemen's Agreement?
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Answer B. Madapati Hanumantha Rao
The Telangana signatories were B. Ramakrishna Rao, K.V. Ranga Reddy, M. Chenna Reddy and J.V. Narasinga Rao.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.262
- Q56 AP Social & Cultural History
According to the AP SCERT textbook, ryots in ryotwari areas who leased out land collected rents that were how many times the land revenue they paid?
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Answer B. Three to seven times
The AP SCERT text says tenants paid rents three to seven times the land revenue paid by the ryots (Rs 300-700 against Rs 100).
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (old 2021 ed.), Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam, pp.112-119 (p.116)
- Q57 AP Social & Cultural History
Vijnaneswareeyamu, a Telugu rendering of Vijnaneswara's law text Mitakshara, was written by:
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Answer D. Ketana
Ketana wrote Vijnaneswareeyamu.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q68, Q203)
- Q58 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List I (person) with List II (work):
List I
a. Kumaragiri Reddi
b. Pedakomati Vema Reddi
c. Kataya Vema Reddi
d. Vamana Bhatta Bana
List II
I. Sangita Chintamani
II. Vemabhupala Charitam
III. Vasantarajiyam
IV. Kumaragiriraajiyam
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Kumaragiri Reddi - Vasantarajiyam; Pedakomati Vema Reddi - Sangita Chintamani; Kataya Vema Reddi - Kumaragiriraajiyam; Vamana Bhatta Bana - Vemabhupala Charitam.
Source: APPSC topic-wise PYQ compilation (user copy); Telugu AP History Bit Bank (user copy)
- Q59 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about the Nashik cave inscription of Gautami Balasri:
I. It praises the achievements of her son, Gautamiputra Satakarni.
II. It was engraved during the reign of Gautamiputra Satakarni himself.
III. It is written in Prakrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. The Prakrit inscription praising Gautamiputra Satakarni was engraved in the 19th regnal year of his successor, Vasishthiputra Pulumavi, so statement II is wrong.
Source: Samiksha AP History PYQ book (cross-check); standard
- Q60 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following in chronological order:
A. Konda Venkatappayya's resolution in the Madras Assembly for an Andhra province
B. Sri Bagh Pact
C. Report of the JVP Committee
D. Appointment of the Khosla Committee
Select the correct answer:
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. B, A, C, D
Sri Bagh Pact (1937), Madras Assembly resolution (1938), JVP report (1949), Khosla Committee (1951).
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.349; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.211; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.215; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) Nipuna p.337
- Q61 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following events in the history of the Amaravati stupa in chronological order:
A. Walter Elliot, commissioner of Guntur, took sculpture panels to Madras.
B. A local raja found the ruins while looking for building stone.
C. H.H. Cole pleaded that ancient sculptures should be preserved where they were found.
D. Colin Mackenzie visited the site and made drawings of the sculptures.
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Answer B. B, D, A, C
The order is B, D, A, C: a local raja found the ruins in 1796; Colin Mackenzie visited some years later; Walter Elliot took panels to Madras in 1854; H.H. Cole later pleaded for preservation in situ.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.4 pp.112-113
- Q62 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements:
Statement A: Salt marches during the Civil Disobedience Movement took place in the Godavari, Krishna and Guntur districts.
Statement B: The Salt Satyagraha in Andhra drew wider mass support than the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921-22.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. A only
Only Statement A is correct. Standard accounts note that the Salt Satyagraha in Andhra had less mass support than the 1921-22 Non-Cooperation Movement.
Source: Modern India reference (refs/text ref__4) p.54
- Q63 AP Social & Cultural History
Match the following journals with their description:
List I
a. Vivekavardhini
b. Satihitabodhini
c. Hasya Sanjeevani
d. Andhra Bhasha Sanjeevani
List II
I. Journal of the traditionalist Kokkonda Venkataratnam
II. Veeresalingam's journal for women
III. Veeresalingam's journal of humour and satire
IV. Veeresalingam's reform journal started in 1874
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Answer A. a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
Vivekavardhini (1874) was the reform journal, Satihitabodhini was for women, Hasya Sanjeevani carried humour and satire, and Andhra Bhasha Sanjeevani belonged to Kokkonda Venkataratnam, who opposed Veeresalingam.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check)
- Q64 AP Social & Cultural History
Statement A: Madayagari Mallana, one of the Ashtadiggajas, wrote a kavya called Rajasekhara Charitramu.
Statement B: Kandukuri Veeresalingam's Rajasekhara Charitramu is a prose novel.
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer C. Both A and B are correct
Both statements are correct. Two different works share the name: Madayagari Mallana's 16th-century kavya and Veeresalingam's 19th-century novel.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 p.170; APPSC G2 Mains 2025 P1 key Q74
- Q65 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about inscriptions in Telugu:
I. The Addanki inscription of Pandaranga contains a verse in the Taruvoja metre.
II. The Kalamalla inscription was issued by the Eastern Chalukyas.
III. The Bezawada inscription of Yuddhamalla contains verses in the Madhyakkara metre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. The Kalamalla inscription was issued by the Renati Chola ruler Dhananjaya, not the Eastern Chalukyas.
Source: Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu) (Q15, Q18, Q27, Q81)
- Q66 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about Jayapa (Jayapa Senani):
I. He was the chief of the elephant forces of Ganapatideva.
II. He wrote the Nritta Ratnavali in Telugu.
III. The dance styles described in the Nritta Ratnavali are reflected in the sculptures of the Ramappa temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. II only
Only II is wrong: the Nritta Ratnavali was written in Sanskrit, not Telugu.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025), ch.5 Kakatiya Kingdom; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Kakatiyulu; Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (Kakatiyas)
- Q67 AP Social & Cultural History
Consider the following statements about the ryotwari areas, as described in the AP SCERT textbook:
I. Because revenue was paid directly by ryots, no landlords grew up in ryotwari areas.
II. The revenue was fixed for twenty to thirty years and then revised.
III. Ryots who leased out land collected rents far higher than the revenue they paid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II and III only
II and III are correct; the textbook notes that the ryotwari areas too soon became full of landlords who leased land to tenants at high rents.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (old 2021 ed.), Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam, pp.112-119 (p.116)
- Q68 AP Social & Cultural History
The 'Periplus of the Erythraean Sea' names two great inland marts of 'Dachinabades' (the Deccan) from which goods were carried to Barygaza. They were:
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Answer C. Paithana and Tagara
The Periplus names Paithana (Pratishthana) and Tagara (Ter) as the two chief marts of the Deccan, linked by road to the port of Barygaza (Broach).
Source: Periplus of the Erythraean Sea ch.51; standard; Periplus of the Erythraean Sea ch. 51
- Q69 AP Social & Cultural History
Vishnukundin inscriptions credit Madhavavarma with performing how many Ashvamedha sacrifices?
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Answer C. Eleven
Vishnukundin charters credit Madhavavarma with eleven Ashvamedha sacrifices, besides many other Vedic rites.
Source: standard AP history; Nipuna AP History Bit Bank (Telugu), Ikshvakulu / Vishnukundinulu
- Q70 AP Social & Cultural History
Which title of Krishnadevaraya reflects his support to claimants to power in the Deccan Sultanates?
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Answer A. Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya
Krishnadevaraya supported claimants to power in the Sultanates and was proud of the title 'establisher of the Yavana kingdom' (Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya).
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History II, ch.7 (p.76)
- Q71 AP Social & Cultural History
Which one of the following pairs (person - European company) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer D. Captain Hippon - Dutch
Captain Hippon commanded the English ship Globe in 1611; he was not Dutch.
Source: Modern India reference, ch.1 Advent of Europeans (cross-check); APPSC PYQ compilation (modern Andhra) and Telugu AP History bit bank, cross-checked
- Q72 AP Social & Cultural History
The Madras Public Libraries Act, which gave legal backing to public libraries in the Madras Province, was passed in:
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Answer B. 1948
The Madras Public Libraries Act was passed in 1948.
Source: Madras Public Libraries Act, 1948
- Q73 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A): Ayyanki Venkata Ramanaiah is regarded as the father of the library movement in Andhra.
Reason (R): He founded the Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam at Hyderabad in 1901.
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Answer C. A is true but R is false
A is true but R is false: Ayyanki Venkata Ramanaiah is the father of the Andhra library movement, but the Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam (1901) was founded by Komarraju Lakshmana Rao with Ravichettu Ranga Rao and Raja Nayani Venkata Ranga Rao.
Source: Samiksha AP History topic-wise PYQs (cross-check); Nipuna AP History Bit Bank, Telugu (cross-check); APPSC Group 2 Mains 2025 Paper I (official key)
- Q74 AP Social & Cultural History
Match the laws with their provisions:
List I
a. States Reorganisation Act, 1956
b. Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
c. Constitution (32nd Amendment) Act, 1973
d. Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014
List II
I. Constitutional changes for the reorganisation of states
II. Creation of 14 states and 6 union territories
III. Hyderabad as common capital for up to ten years
IV. Insertion of Article 371D
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Answer A. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
SR Act - 14 states and 6 UTs; 7th Amendment - constitutional changes for reorganisation; 32nd Amendment - Art. 371D; 2014 Act - Hyderabad common capital.
Source: NCERT Politics in India since Independence ch.1 p.21; Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 whole Act; Samiksha AP History PYQs Samiksha p.259; Constitution of India, Arts. 371D and 371E (32nd Amendment Act, 1973) Art. 371D, 371E
- Q75 AP Social & Cultural History
According to NCERT, which of the following is NOT correct about the marriage practices of the Satavahana rulers?
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Answer A. They strictly followed gotra exogamy
They did not strictly follow gotra exogamy. NCERT notes that some rulers were polygynous, that queens kept names from their fathers' gotras, and that marriage within the kin group (endogamy) took place, against Brahmanical rules.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I ch.3 p.74
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75 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Indian Constitution
Which one of the following is NOT a unitary feature of the Constitution of India?
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Answer D. Written Constitution
A written constitution is a federal feature. Single citizenship, an integrated judiciary and the All-India Services are unitary features.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.33
- Q77 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about subordinate courts:
I. Persons other than district judges are appointed to the judicial service of a State by the Governor in accordance with rules made after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and the High Court.
II. Posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons in the judicial service holding posts below the rank of district judge are controlled by the High Court.
III. District judges are appointed by the Chief Justice of the High Court after consulting the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is wrong. Under Article 233, district judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Statements I and II reflect Articles 234 and 235.
Source: Constitution of India, Arts 233-235; Polity reference p.115
- Q78 Indian Constitution
Which Article directs the State to secure to all workers a living wage and conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life?
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Answer A. Article 43
Article 43 deals with a living wage and a decent standard of life for workers; it also asks the State to promote cottage industries in rural areas.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 43
- Q79 Indian Constitution
The expression 'procedure established by law' in Article 21 was borrowed from the Constitution of
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Answer B. Japan
'Procedure established by law' comes from the Japanese Constitution; 'due process of law' is an American concept.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
- Q80 Indian Constitution
Statement I: If the two Houses disagree on a Constitution Amendment Bill, the President can summon a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
Statement II: The President cannot withhold assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill passed in accordance with Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II only
There is no joint sitting for a Constitution Amendment Bill; each House must pass it separately. Since the 24th Amendment (1971), the President must give assent.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 3 (Amendment, Basic Structure); Constitution of India Art. 368(2), Art. 108
- Q81 Indian Constitution
Failure of which of the following to pass in the Lok Sabha amounts to the defeat of the government?
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Answer B. The Motion of Thanks on the President's address
The Motion of Thanks on the President's address must be passed by the House; if it is defeated, it amounts to the defeat of the government.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 87
- Q82 Indian Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void?
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Answer D. Article 13
Article 13 makes laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void to the extent of the inconsistency; it is the express basis of judicial review of laws.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
- Q83 Indian Constitution
The High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections (One Nation, One Election), constituted in September 2023, was chaired by
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Answer B. Ram Nath Kovind
The High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections was chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind.
Source: HLC on Simultaneous Elections report (March 2024); PW Polity p.155
- Q84 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
I. It added Part IXA, consisting of Articles 243P to 243ZG.
II. It added the Twelfth Schedule containing 29 matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only I is correct: the 74th Amendment added Part IXA (Articles 243P-243ZG) and the Twelfth Schedule with 18 matters.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.125; Constitution of India Part IXA
- Q85 Indian Constitution
The Zonal Councils were established under the
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Answer B. States Reorganisation Act, 1956
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies set up under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.69
- Q86 Indian Constitution
Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution of India deal with:
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Answer A. Public Service Commissions
Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV deal with the Union and State Public Service Commissions.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies; Constitution Part XIV
- Q87 Indian Constitution
Since which year has 26 November been observed as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) in India?
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Answer B. 2015
The Government of India decided in 2015 to observe 26 November, the day the Constitution was adopted, as Constitution Day.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.35
- Q88 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Schedules of the Constitution:
I. The original Constitution had 8 Schedules; it now has 12.
II. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
III. The Eleventh Schedule contains 18 subjects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
I and II are correct; the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats) has 29 subjects, while the Twelfth (Municipalities) has 18.
Source: PW Polity p.22
- Q89 Indian Constitution
Dr Rajendra Prasad holds which one of the following distinctions among the Presidents of India?
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Answer B. He is the only person to have served two terms as President
Dr Rajendra Prasad served two terms as President (1950-1962), the only person to do so.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 13-14 (President, Vice-President; Executive); Constitution of India Art. 57
- Q90 Indian Constitution
Article 243W, which enables the State Legislature to endow Municipalities with powers and responsibilities, refers to the matters listed in the
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Answer D. Twelfth Schedule
Article 243W refers to the 18 matters in the Twelfth Schedule; Article 243G refers to the Eleventh Schedule for Panchayats.
Source: Constitution of India Arts 243G, 243W
- Q91 Indian Constitution
Andhra Pradesh has raised the reservation of seats for women in its Panchayat Raj institutions from the constitutional minimum of one-third to
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Answer C. 50 per cent
Andhra Pradesh provides 50 per cent reservation for women in Panchayat Raj institutions, above the one-third minimum in Article 243D(3).
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 ch.10 p.80; AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 ch.10
- Q92 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements:
I. The Advocate General has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly.
II. The Advocate General has the right to vote in the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct. Article 177 lets ministers and the Advocate General speak and take part in either House, but gives no right to vote.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); Constitution Art. 177
- Q93 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about ordinances issued by the Governor:
I. The Governor may promulgate an ordinance under Article 213 when the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses, where there are two) is not in session.
II. An ordinance ceases to operate at the end of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature unless disapproved earlier.
III. In D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that repeated re-promulgation of ordinances is unconstitutional.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct. The Court in D.C. Wadhwa held that re-promulgating ordinances without placing them before the Legislature is a fraud on the Constitution.
Source: PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor); Constitution Art. 213
- Q94 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Constituent Assembly:
I. Dr Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was its temporary President, following the French practice.
II. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected its permanent President on 11 December 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both statements are correct. H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected Vice-Presidents.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.16,18
- Q95 Indian Constitution
Reservation of up to 10% for economically weaker sections (EWS) in educational institutions and public posts was provided by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
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Answer D. 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), allowing up to 10% reservation for EWS.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
- Q96 Indian Constitution
What is the minimum age prescribed for appointment as Governor of a State?
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Answer C. 35 years
Article 157 requires the Governor to be a citizen of India who has completed 35 years of age.
Source: PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor); Constitution Art. 157
- Q97 Indian Constitution
A Joint State Public Service Commission for two or more States is created by:
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Answer A. Parliament by law, after the legislatures of the States concerned pass resolutions
Under Article 315(2), Parliament may by law provide for a Joint State Public Service Commission if the legislature of each State concerned passes a resolution; hence it is a statutory body.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies (JSPSC); Constitution Art. 315(2)
- Q98 Indian Constitution
Match List I (Body) with List II (Its first Chairperson):
List I
a. National Human Rights Commission
b. National Commission for Women
c. Lokpal
d. Central Information Commission
List II
I. Pinaki Chandra Ghose
II. Wajahat Habibullah
III. Ranganath Misra
IV. Jayanti Patnaik
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
The first chairpersons were Ranganath Misra (NHRC), Jayanti Patnaik (NCW), Pinaki Chandra Ghose (Lokpal) and Wajahat Habibullah (Chief Information Commissioner).
Source: Standard polity text
- Q99 Indian Constitution
Which Cabinet Committee is often described as a 'Super Cabinet'?
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Answer D. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
The Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister, deals with major policy matters and is called a 'Super Cabinet'.
Source: Standard polity reference (Cabinet Committees)
- Q100 Indian Constitution
An ordinance promulgated by the President under Article 123 ceases to operate at the end of what period from the reassembly of Parliament, unless approved earlier?
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Answer D. Six weeks
An ordinance must be laid before both Houses and ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles, unless disapproved earlier.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 13-14 (President, VP, Executive); Constitution of India Art. 123(2)
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Start free - Q101 Indian Constitution
The Preamble of the Constitution of India is based on the Objectives Resolution moved in the Constituent Assembly by:
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Answer B. Jawaharlal Nehru
The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.35,17
- Q102 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the stages of an ordinary bill:
I. No amendments can be moved at the third reading.
II. The committee stage is a part of the second reading.
III. The bill is discussed clause by clause at the first reading.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. III only
Statement III is the incorrect one: at the first reading the bill is only introduced, with no discussion.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 107
- Q103 Indian Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution enables Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court the power to issue directions, orders or writs for purposes other than the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
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Answer B. Article 139
Article 139 lets Parliament by law confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs for purposes other than those in Article 32(2), which covers Fundamental Rights.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 139
- Q104 Indian Constitution
The State Finance Commission for Panchayats is provided for in
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Answer C. Article 243I
Article 243I provides for the State Finance Commission; Article 243Y applies it to Municipalities.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.124; Constitution of India Art. 243I
- Q105 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Speaker pro tem:
Statement I: The Speaker pro tem is appointed by the President.
Statement II: The Speaker pro tem is elected by the members of the new Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
The President appoints the Speaker pro tem, usually the senior-most member, who administers the oath to new members and presides over the election of the Speaker.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 95(1), Art. 99
- Q106 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about voting in a House of a State Legislature:
I. The Speaker or the Chairman does not vote in the first instance, but has and exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
II. Proceedings of the House are valid even if it is later found that a person who was not entitled to do so sat or voted in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct. Article 189(1) gives the presiding officer only a casting vote, and Article 189(2) says proceedings are not invalid because a person not entitled sat, voted or took part.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 189; Polity reference p.106
- Q107 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about freedom of trade and commerce in Part XIII of the Constitution:
I. A State Legislature may impose restrictions on trade between States in the public interest under Article 302.
II. A State bill imposing reasonable restrictions under Article 304(b) needs the previous sanction of the President.
III. Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. II and III only
Statements II and III are correct: Art. 301 declares freedom of trade, and an Art. 304(b) State bill needs the President's previous sanction; Art. 302 restrictions are imposed by Parliament, not a State.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India pp.64, 68; Constitution of India Arts. 301-304
- Q108 Indian Constitution
Under Article 148(5), the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by rules made by
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Answer B. the President after consultation with the CAG
Article 148(5) leaves these conditions of service, and the CAG's administrative powers, to rules made by the President after consultation with the CAG.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 148(5)
- Q109 Indian Constitution
Which one of the following does NOT empower Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List?
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Answer D. Article 258
Article 258 only lets the President entrust Union executive functions to a State; it confers no power to legislate on State List matters.
Source: Constitution of India Arts 249-253, 258
- Q110 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the composition of Panchayats under Article 243C:
I. Apart from the representation that State law may provide under Article 243C(3), all seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies.
II. The chairperson of a Panchayat at the intermediate or district level is elected by and from among its elected members.
III. The Constitution requires direct election of the chairperson of a village Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
All Panchayat seats are filled by direct election; intermediate and district chairpersons are elected indirectly, while the method for the village chairperson is left to State law.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.123; Constitution of India Art. 243C
- Q111 Indian Constitution
What is the quorum for a meeting of a House of the State Legislature?
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Answer B. Ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members, whichever is greater
Article 189(3) fixes the quorum at ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House, whichever is greater.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); Constitution Art. 189
- Q112 Indian Constitution
Which of the following were borrowed from the Irish Constitution?
I. Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Method of election of the President
III. Nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha
IV. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer B. I, II and III only
The Directive Principles, the method of electing the President and the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha came from Ireland. The Fundamental Duties came from the former USSR.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.20
- Q113 Indian Constitution
Which Article lays down the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State?
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Answer D. Article 167
Article 167 sets out the duties of the Chief Minister towards the Governor; the corresponding provision for the Prime Minister is Article 78.
Source: PW Polity ch.14 (The Executive in India); Constitution Art. 167
- Q114 Indian Constitution
The Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the President under which provision of the Constitution?
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Answer B. Article 77(3)
Article 77(3) empowers the President to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and its allocation among ministers.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 13-14 (President, Vice-President; Executive); Constitution of India Art. 77
- Q115 Indian Constitution
Match List I (Article) with List II (Subject relating to the Supreme Court):
List I
a. Article 138
b. Article 140
c. Article 145
d. Article 146
List II
I. Rules of court
II. Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court
III. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
IV. Ancillary powers of the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Article 138 provides for enlargement of jurisdiction, Article 140 for ancillary powers, Article 145 for rules of court and Article 146 for officers, servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.
Source: Constitution of India, Arts 138, 140, 145, 146
- Q116 Indian Constitution
Statement A: Once approved by Parliament, a National Emergency remains in force for one year at a time unless revoked earlier.
Statement B: A National Emergency cannot remain in force for more than three years in all.
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer D. Neither A nor B
Neither is correct: an approved National Emergency continues for six months at a time and can be extended indefinitely; the three-year limit applies to President's Rule.
Source: PW Polity ch.12 Emergency Provisions p.71
- Q117 Indian Constitution
Arrange the following changes to the Eighth Schedule in chronological order:
a. Addition of Bodo
b. Addition of Sindhi
c. Renaming of 'Oriya' as 'Odia'
d. Addition of Konkani
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Answer A. b, d, a, c
Sindhi (21st Amendment, 1967), Konkani (71st, 1992), Bodo (92nd, 2003), Odia renaming (96th, 2011).
Source: PW Polity p.22
- Q118 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about reports of Public Service Commissions:
I. The UPSC presents an annual report on its work to the President.
II. The President places the report before each House of Parliament with a memorandum explaining the cases where the Commission's advice was not accepted.
III. A Joint State Public Service Commission presents its annual report to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct under Article 323(1). Under Article 323(2), a Joint Commission reports to the Governor of each State it serves, not to the President.
Source: Constitution Art. 323; PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies
- Q119 Indian Constitution
Consider the following matters:
I. Fisheries
II. Libraries
III. Fire services
IV. Markets and fairs
How many of the above are listed in the Eleventh Schedule?
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Answer C. Only three
Fisheries, libraries and markets and fairs are Eleventh Schedule items; fire services is in the Twelfth Schedule, so three are listed.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies pp.123, 126; Constitution of India Eleventh Schedule
- Q120 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the District Planning Committee:
I. It consolidates the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district.
II. Not less than two-thirds of its members are elected by and from the elected members of the district Panchayat and the Municipalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only I is correct: the DPC consolidates local plans, and not less than four-fifths of its members are elected from among elected members of local bodies.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.127; Constitution of India Art. 243ZD
- Q121 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements:
I. If a question arises whether a bill is a money bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is final.
II. The Governor may return a money bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct (Article 199(3)). The Governor cannot return a money bill; he can only give or withhold assent or reserve it for the President.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor)
- Q122 Indian Constitution
Arrange the following Supreme Court cases in chronological order:
1. S.R. Bommai case
2. L. Chandra Kumar case
3. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
4. Minerva Mills case
Select the correct order:
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Answer D. 3-4-1-2
Indira Nehru Gandhi (1975), Minerva Mills (1980), S.R. Bommai (1994) and L. Chandra Kumar (1997).
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 3 (Amendment, Basic Structure); Constitution of India Art. 368
- Q123 Indian Constitution
Arrange the following constitutional changes in the order in which they were made, earliest first:
1. Law on disqualification on the ground of defection
2. Sikkim made a full-fledged State of the Union
3. Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years
4. Parliament's power to amend the Fundamental Rights expressly affirmed
Select the correct order:
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Answer D. 4-2-1-3
The order is the 24th Amendment (1971), the 36th Amendment on Sikkim (1975), the 52nd Amendment on defection (1985) and the 61st Amendment on voting age (Act of 1988, in force 1989).
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 3 (Amendment, Basic Structure); Constitution of India Arts. 326, 368, 371F; Tenth Schedule
- Q124 Indian Constitution
Statement I: A no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha must state the reasons for its adoption.
Statement II: A censure motion in the Lok Sabha must state the reasons for its adoption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II only
A no-confidence motion, moved under Rule 198 with 50 members' support, need not give reasons. A censure motion must state the reasons.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 75(3)
- Q125 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:
I. The President or the Governor of a State shall, when requested by the Election Commission, make available to it the staff necessary for its functions.
II. The Constitution does not prescribe any qualifications for members of the Election Commission.
III. The Constitution does not fix the term of office of the Election Commissioners.
IV. The Constitution debars retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I, II and III only
I, II and III are correct; unlike the CAG (Art. 148(4)), the Constitution places no bar on further appointment of retiring Election Commissioners.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 324; PW Polity p.134
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Start free - Q126 Indian Constitution
Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. First Lokayukta established in Maharashtra
II. First Administrative Reforms Commission constituted
III. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 came into force
IV. First Chairperson of the Lokpal appointed
Select the correct answer:
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Answer B. II, I, III, IV
The order is: First ARC (1966), first Lokayukta in Maharashtra (Act of 1971), Lokpal Act in force (16 January 2014), first Lokpal Chairperson (March 2019). The order holds even if the Maharashtra Lokayukta is dated 1972.
Source: PW Polity ch.21 Extra-Constitutional Bodies (Lokpal); Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
- Q127 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Right to Information Act, 2005:
Statement I: A public authority may allow access to information even if it is protected under the Official Secrets Act, 1923, if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.
Statement II: Information relating to any event that took place twenty-five years before the date of the request shall be provided, subject to certain exceptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only Statement I is correct. Section 8(2) contains the public-interest override over the Official Secrets Act; section 8(3) fixes the period at twenty years, not twenty-five, so II is wrong.
Source: Right to Information Act, 2005 s.8(2)-(3)
- Q128 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements:
I. Adjournment sine die of a sitting is done by the presiding officer of the House.
II. Prorogation of a House is done by the President.
III. Prorogation causes all bills pending before the House to lapse.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Statement III is wrong: prorogation ends the session but does not make pending bills lapse. Adjournment sine die is by the presiding officer, and prorogation by the President under Article 85(2).
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 85
- Q129 Indian Constitution
Under Article 236 of the Constitution, the expression 'district judge' does NOT include which one of the following?
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Answer D. Judicial Magistrate of the second class
Article 236(a) includes judges of city civil courts, additional, joint and assistant district judges, the chief judge of a small cause court, chief and additional chief presidency magistrates, and sessions, additional sessions and assistant sessions judges. Judicial magistrates of the second class are not included.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 236; Polity reference p.115
- Q130 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about qualifications and reservation in Panchayats:
I. In Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015), the Supreme Court upheld a State law prescribing minimum educational qualifications for contesting Panchayat elections.
II. In K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India (2010), the Supreme Court struck down Article 243D(6), which enables reservation for backward classes.
III. Article 243F allows the State Legislature by law to lay down disqualifications for membership of a Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct: Art. 243F lets State law add disqualifications, which Rajbala (2015) upheld for education; K. Krishna Murthy (2010) upheld, not struck down, Art. 243D(6).
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.125; Constitution of India Arts. 243D, 243F
- Q131 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the duration of the Lok Sabha:
I. The Twelfth Lok Sabha, which first met in 1998, lasted only about thirteen months.
II. The Eleventh Lok Sabha completed its full term of five years.
III. The Fifth Lok Sabha was dissolved in January 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct: the Twelfth Lok Sabha was dissolved in April 1999 and is the shortest so far; the Fifth Lok Sabha was dissolved in January 1977, after its term had been extended. Statement II is wrong because the Eleventh Lok Sabha (1996-97) was dissolved after about a year and a half.
Source: Standard polity reference (Lok Sabha: duration)
- Q132 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements:
I. In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot take away or abridge Fundamental Rights by a constitutional amendment.
II. The 24th Amendment Act, 1971 affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
III. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend any Fundamental Right at all.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Statement III is not correct: Kesavananda Bharati allowed Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights, but not to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
- Q133 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements:
I. The National Commission for Backward Classes consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members.
II. After the 105th Amendment, States may prepare and maintain their own lists of socially and educationally backward classes.
III. The National Commission for Backward Classes was the first national commission for weaker sections to be given constitutional status.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Only III is incorrect: constitutional status came first to the National Commission for SCs and STs (65th Amendment, 1990), and to the NCBC only in 2018 (102nd Amendment).
Source: Constitution of India Arts 338, 338B, 342A
- Q134 Indian Constitution
Match List I (Part of the Constitution) with List II (subject):
List I
a. Part IVA
b. Part IXB
c. Part XIVA
d. Part XVII
List II
I. Official Language
II. Tribunals
III. The Co-operative Societies
IV. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Part IVA - Fundamental Duties; Part IXB - Co-operative Societies; Part XIVA - Tribunals; Part XVII - Official Language.
Source: PW Polity ch.3 Salient Features; Constitution of India
- Q135 Indian Constitution
Under Article 361, civil proceedings for any act done by a Governor in his personal capacity may be instituted during his term only after a written notice of at least
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Answer B. two months
Article 361(4) requires two months' notice before civil proceedings for personal acts can be instituted against a Governor during his term.
Source: PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor); Constitution Art. 361
- Q136 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The office of whip in Parliament is not mentioned in the Constitution of India and is based on parliamentary conventions.
Statement II: A three-line whip instructs members to vote according to the party line.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both statements are correct. The whip is a conventional office, and a three-line whip directs members to vote as the party decides; a one-line whip only informs members of a vote.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Tenth Schedule
- Q137 Indian Constitution
Who said that the Indian Constitution is a federal Constitution 'inasmuch as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity'?
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Answer B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Dr B.R. Ambedkar said this in the Constituent Assembly, explaining that the Union and the States both get their powers from the Constitution.
Source: PW Polity ch.4 System of Government
- Q138 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about tribunals:
I. Article 323A was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
II. State Legislatures can set up administrative tribunals for public service matters under Article 323A.
III. In L. Chandra Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court held that decisions of tribunals are subject to the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Tribunals under Article 323A can be set up only by Parliament; Article 323B allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to set up tribunals for other matters.
Source: PW Polity ch.17 (Tribunals in India); Constitution Art. 323A
- Q139 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about Article 23:
I. The expression 'traffic in human beings' includes immoral traffic in women and children and the devadasi system.
II. When the State imposes compulsory service for public purposes, it is bound to pay for such service.
III. The protection of Article 23 is available to non-citizens as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Article 23(2) lets the State impose compulsory service such as military or social service, and it is not bound to pay for it.
Source: PW Polity ch.8 Fundamental Rights
- Q140 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833:
I. It made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India.
II. It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's council.
III. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. The separation of the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's council came with the Charter Act of 1853.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.11
- Q141 Indian Constitution
Which of the following rights has the Supreme Court read into the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21?
I. Right to sleep
II. Right against public hanging
III. Right to decent burial or cremation
IV. Right to property
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer A. I, II and III only
Rights I, II and III have been read into Article 21. The right to property is a constitutional (legal) right under Article 300A after the 44th Amendment.
Source: PW Polity ch.8 Fundamental Rights
- Q142 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015:
I. It gave effect to the Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh.
II. Under it, 111 Indian enclaves were transferred to Bangladesh.
III. Under it, 51 Bangladeshi enclaves were transferred to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.27,40
- Q143 Indian Constitution
Which of the following bodies function as non-statutory bodies as of 2026?
I. National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
II. National Statistical Commission
III. National Commission for Women
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer A. I and II only
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis has been non-statutory since its 1993 Act lapsed in 2004 (its tenure now runs to March 2028), and the National Statistical Commission rests on a government resolution of 1 June 2005. The National Commission for Women is statutory under the NCW Act, 1990.
Source: NCSK Act 1993; MoSPI Resolution 2005
- Q144 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the minimum strength of Legislative Assemblies fixed by special provisions:
I. The Mizoram Assembly shall consist of not less than 40 members.
II. The Goa Assembly shall consist of not less than 30 members.
III. The Sikkim Assembly shall consist of not less than 40 members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
I (Art. 371G) and II (Art. 371I) are correct; under Article 371F the Sikkim Assembly must have not less than 30 members.
Source: PW Polity, Special Provisions in Constitution p.130; Constitution Arts. 371F, 371G, 371I
- Q145 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
I. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
II. Whenever he is appointed a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman.
III. He resigns his office by writing addressed to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Under Article 94(b) the Deputy Speaker addresses his resignation to the Speaker, not the President.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Arts. 93, 94
- Q146 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements comparing the Indian and British parliamentary systems:
I. In India the Prime Minister may be a member of either House of Parliament.
II. India has no formal institution of a shadow cabinet.
III. In India, as in Britain, ministers are legally responsible and must countersign the official acts of the head of State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. In India there is no system of legal responsibility of ministers; they do not countersign the acts of the President.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.32
- Q147 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about the Amending Act of 1781:
I. It excluded revenue matters from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court at Calcutta.
II. It required the Supreme Court to decide cases of Hindus and Muslims according to the personal law of the defendant.
III. It provided that appeals from the provincial courts would lie to the Supreme Court at Calcutta.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer D. III only
Only statement III is wrong: under the 1781 Act appeals from the provincial courts lay to the Governor-General-in-Council. Statements I and II are correct provisions of the Act.
Source: PW Polity ch.1 Historical Background
- Q148 Indian Constitution
How many items did the Federal List contain under the Government of India Act, 1935?
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Answer C. 59
The Federal List had 59 items, the Provincial List 54 and the Concurrent List 36.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.13
- Q149 Indian Constitution
Match the Articles in List I with the arrangement of taxes in List II:
List I
a. Article 268
b. Article 269
c. Article 270
d. Article 271
List II
I. Levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States
II. Surcharge on certain taxes exclusively for the Union
III. Levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States
IV. Levied and collected by the Union and distributed between the Union and the States
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Art. 268 duties are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by States; Art. 269 taxes are assigned to States; Art. 270 taxes are shared; the Art. 271 surcharge goes to the Union.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.67; Constitution of India Arts. 268-271
- Q150 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements about bills passed by a State Legislature:
I. The Governor must reserve for the President a bill which, if it became law, would derogate from the powers of the High Court.
II. If the President directs the Governor to return a reserved bill and the Legislature passes it again, the President is bound to give assent.
III. The Governor may return a bill other than a money bill to the Legislature for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct (Article 200). Under Article 201 the President is not bound to give assent even after the bill is passed again.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); Constitution Arts 200, 201
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