Previous year paper · Group 2
APPSC G2 Screening Test 2024 question paper with answers
- 141 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
- Year 2024
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this paper (11)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Ancient & Medieval India
'Anda, harmika and chhatri' are integral parts of which one of the following Buddhist monuments ?
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Answer C. Stupas
A stupa has a hemispherical dome (anda), a railed platform on top (harmika) and an umbrella (chhatri). Chaityas are prayer halls and viharas are monasteries.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q1, final key
- Q2 Ancient & Medieval India
Which among the following pillar inscriptions of Ashoka states that the land revenue rate of Lumbini was reduced to one-eighth ?
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Answer B. Rummindei pillar inscription
The Rummindei (Lumbini) pillar records Ashoka's visit to the Buddha's birthplace; he exempted the village from bali and reduced its bhaga (land revenue share) to one-eighth.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q2, final key
- Q3 Ancient & Medieval India
Consider the following statements :
a. Humayun brought famous painters Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad from Iran to Delhi.
b. Jahangir's reign is considered as the 'Golden period of the Mughal painting'.
c. During the reign of Jahangir, European painting was introduced at the Mughal court by the Danish merchants.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
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Answer D. Statement c only
Humayun brought Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad from Persia, and Jahangir's reign is the high point of Mughal painting. European painting reached the court through Portuguese priests (Akbar's time onwards), not Danish merchants, so only c is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q3, final key
- Q4 Ancient & Medieval India
Which Mauryan officer was the incharge of Weights and Measures ?
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Answer C. Pautavadhyaksha
The Arthashastra names the Pautavadhyaksha as the superintendent of weights and measures.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q4, final key
- Q5 Ancient & Medieval India
Romaka Siddhanta written by Varahamihira deals with :
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Answer C. Astronomy
Romaka Siddhanta is one of the five astronomical systems summarised by Varahamihira in his Pancha Siddhantika.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q5, final key
- Q6 Ancient & Medieval India
Which one of the following books was not written by Harshavardhana ?
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Answer D. Kadambari
Harsha wrote the plays Priyadarshika, Ratnavali and Nagananda. Kadambari was written by his court poet Banabhatta.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q6, final key
- Q7 Modern India
Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to Permanent Settlement ?
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Answer A. It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in 1795.
The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Cornwallis in 1793, not 1795. It made zamindars hereditary owners, was planned with John Shore, and fixed the revenue permanently.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q7, final key
- Q8 Ancient & Medieval India
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I (Delhi Sultans) List II (Reforms) a. Muhammad bin Tughlaq I. Branding of Horses b. Alauddin Khalji II. Token Currency c. Iltutmish III. Development of Irrigation d. Firuz Shah Tughlaq IV. Introducing Silver Tankas Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer B. II I IV III
Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued token currency, Alauddin Khalji began branding of horses (dagh), Iltutmish introduced the silver tanka and Firuz Shah Tughlaq built canals for irrigation.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q8, final key
- Q9 Ancient & Medieval India
Among Ashtapradhans of Shivaji, the Sar-i-Naubat was associated with which of the following tasks ?
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Answer B. Military Commander
The Sar-i-Naubat (Senapati) was the commander-in-chief of Shivaji's army. Finance was the Amatya's job and foreign affairs the Sumant's.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q9, final key
- Q10 Modern India
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I (Leaders) List II (Revolt Centres) a. Kunwar Singh I. Kanpur b. Hazrat Mahal II. Delhi c. Nana Saheb III. Arrah, Bihar d. Bakht Khan IV. Lucknow Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer C. III IV I II
In 1857 Kunwar Singh led at Arrah (Bihar), Begum Hazrat Mahal at Lucknow, Nana Saheb at Kanpur and Bakht Khan at Delhi.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q10, final key
- Q11 Modern India
The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was formed in Bombay in 1920. Who presided over its first session ?
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Answer B. Lala Lajpat Rai
Lala Lajpat Rai presided over the first session of the AITUC in Bombay in October 1920; N.M. Joshi was among its founders and later general secretary.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q11, final key
- Q12 Modern India
Which Act introduced the Communal Electorate System ?
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Answer A. Morley-Minto Reforms
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced separate electorates for Muslims; later Acts extended the system.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q12, final key
- Q13 Modern India
Consider the following pairs regarding Carnatic wars :
Wars Associated Treaty I. First Carnatic War Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle II. Second Carnatic War Treaty of Yandabo III. Third Carnatic War Treaty of Paris Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
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Answer C. I and III
The First Carnatic War ended with Aix-la-Chapelle (1748) and the Third with the Treaty of Paris (1763). The Second ended with the Treaty of Pondicherry (1754); Yandabo (1826) closed the First Anglo-Burmese War.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q13, final key
- Q14 Modern India
The Vaikom Satyagraha which started in Kerala was associated with :
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Answer B. Temple Entry Movement
The Vaikom Satyagraha (1924-25) in Travancore demanded that lower castes be allowed to use the roads around the Vaikom temple, and is seen as the start of the temple entry movement.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q14, final key
- Q15 Modern India
What was the code name of the Indian armed forces operation to liberate Goa, Daman and Diu from Portuguese rule ?
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Answer B. Operation Vijay
Operation Vijay (December 1961) ended Portuguese rule in Goa, Daman and Diu. Operation Pawan was the IPKF operation in Sri Lanka and Operation Rajiv was in Siachen.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q15, final key
- Q16 Modern India
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I (Governor-General) List II (Treaty) a. Warren Hastings I. Treaty of Salbai b. Lord Wellesley II. Treaty of Bassein c. Lord Minto-I III. Treaty of Amritsar d. Lord Hardinge-I IV. Treaty of Lahore Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer A. I II III IV
Salbai (1782) under Warren Hastings, Bassein (1802) under Wellesley, Amritsar (1809) with Ranjit Singh under Minto I, and Lahore (1846) after the First Anglo-Sikh War under Hardinge I.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q16, final key
- Q17 Ancient & Medieval India
Which of the following is not a Harappan site ?
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Answer C. Sohgaura
Sutkagendor (Baluchistan), Surkotada (Gujarat) and Rakhigarhi (Haryana) are Harappan sites. Sohgaura (Gorakhpur, UP) is known for a Mauryan-era copper plate inscription.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q17, final key
- Q18 Ancient & Medieval India
Which of the following inscriptions mentions the names of Vedic Gods Indra, Varuna, Mitra and Nasatyas ?
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Answer C. Boghazkoi
The Boghazkoi inscription (c. 1400 BCE, Turkey) records a Hittite-Mitanni treaty invoking Indra, Varuna, Mitra and the Nasatyas.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q18, final key
- Q19 Ancient & Medieval India
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
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Answer D. Jahangir - Battle of Chausa
The Battle of Chausa (1539) was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah, not by Jahangir. Babur fought at Khanwa (1527), Akbar's army at Haldighati (1576) and Humayun lost at Bilgram/Kannauj (1540).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q19, final key
- Q20 Modern India
Arrange the following events in the correct chronological sequence :
I. Cripps Mission
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Chauri Chaura Incident
IV. Poona Pact
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Answer B. III, II, IV, I
Chauri Chaura (February 1922), Gandhi-Irwin Pact (March 1931), Poona Pact (September 1932), Cripps Mission (March 1942).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q20, final key
- Q21 Modern India
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor-General of Bengal designated as the Governor-General of India ?
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Answer B. Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India; Lord William Bentinck was the first.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q21, final key
- Q22 Modern India
During India's colonial period, the Downward Filtration Theory was related to :
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Answer B. Education
The Downward Filtration Theory held that Western education given to the upper classes would filter down to the masses; it shaped British education policy after Macaulay's Minute (1835).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q22, final key
- Q23 Modern India
Who said that "a single shelf of a good European Library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia" ?
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Answer A. Thomas Babington Macaulay
The remark comes from Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education (1835), which argued for English education.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q23, final key
- Q24 Modern India
Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
Organisation Person (1) Seva Sadan Behramji M. Malabari (2) Deva Samaj Radhakant Deb (3) Seva Samiti Pandit Hriday Nath Kunzru (4) Bahujan Samaj Mukundrao Patil Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Deva Samaj - Radhakant Deb
Deva Samaj (Lahore, 1887) was founded by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri. Radhakant Deb led the orthodox Dharma Sabha.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q24, final key
- Q25 Modern India
Who among the following introduced the Blue Water Policy ?
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Answer C. Francisco de Almeida
Francisco de Almeida, the first Portuguese viceroy (1505-09), followed the Blue Water Policy of controlling the sea rather than holding land.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q25, final key
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116 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q26 Modern India
Lottery Committee (1817) of the British Rule was related to :
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Answer C. Town Planning
The Lottery Committee set up in Calcutta in 1817 used lottery money to build roads, drains and other town improvements, an early form of town planning.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q26, final key
- Q27 Modern India
Who founded the 'Indian Society of Oriental Art' to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
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Answer B. Abanindranath Tagore
Abanindranath Tagore, leader of the Bengal School, founded the Indian Society of Oriental Art in Calcutta in 1907 (with Gaganendranath Tagore).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q27, final key
- Q28 Modern India
Who among the following had resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council protesting Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
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Answer A. Sankaran Nair
C. Sankaran Nair, the only Indian member of the Viceroy's Executive Council, resigned in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919). Tagore returned his knighthood.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q28, final key
- Q29 Modern India
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
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Answer C. Tayuni Movement - Rashid Ahmed Gangohi
The Taiyuni movement was started by Maulana Karamat Ali Jaunpuri. Rashid Ahmed Gangohi was associated with the Deoband movement.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q29, final key
- Q30 Modern India
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Lex Loci Act of 1850 ?
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Answer C. It provided the right to inherit ancestral property to Hindu converts to Christianity.
The Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850 (Lex Loci) said a person who changed religion, such as a Hindu converting to Christianity, would not lose rights to inherit ancestral property.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q30, final key
- Q31 Physical & World Geography
Identify the incorrect statement :
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Answer D. Epicentre is a point directly below the focus.
The focus (hypocentre) is underground where energy is released; the epicentre is the point on the surface directly above it, not below.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q32, final key
- Q32 Physical & World Geography
Granite is a/an :
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Answer B. Intrusive Igneous rock
Granite forms when magma cools slowly deep inside the crust, giving large crystals, so it is an intrusive (plutonic) igneous rock. Basalt is extrusive.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q33, final key
- Q33 Physical & World Geography
Match the following :
List I (Landform) List II (Geomorphic agent) a. Delta I. Waves and Currents b. Cirque II. Winds c. Cliffs III. Running water d. Sand Dunes IV. Glaciers Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer D. III IV I II
Deltas are built by rivers, cirques are carved by glaciers, sea cliffs are cut by waves and currents, and sand dunes are piled up by wind.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q34, final key
- Q34 Physical & World Geography
In which of the following layers of the atmosphere do meteorites burn up when they enter from the space ?
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Answer A. Mesosphere
Most meteors burn up in the mesosphere, about 50-80 km above the Earth, where the air is dense enough to cause friction.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q35, final key
- Q35 Physical & World Geography
Match the following on heating and cooling of Atmosphere :
List I (Process) List II (Mechanism) a. Advection I. Horizontal heating b. Convection II. Vertical heating c. Insolation III. Direct heating d. Conduction IV. Heating the lower layers Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer A. I II III IV
Advection moves heat horizontally, convection moves it vertically, insolation is direct heating by incoming solar radiation, and conduction heats the air layers in contact with the ground.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q36, final key
- Q36 Physical & World Geography
Match the following :
List I (Ocean Bottom Relief) List II (Characteristic feature) a. Continental Shelf I. Presence of canyons and trenches b. Continental Slope II. Associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. c. Deep Sea Plain III. Presence of massive sedimentary deposits d. Oceanic Deeps IV. Presence of fine-grained sediments Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer C. III I IV II
The continental shelf holds thick sediment deposits, the continental slope is cut by canyons, abyssal plains are covered with fine-grained sediments, and oceanic deeps (trenches) are linked with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q38, final key
- Q37 Physical & World Geography
Identify the correct arrangement of the following water bodies as per their salinity in decreasing order :
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Answer A. Lake Van > Dead Sea > Great Salt Lake
As per the NCERT figures, Lake Van in Turkey has about 330 parts per thousand, the Dead Sea about 238 and the Great Salt Lake about 220.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q39, final key
- Q38 Physical & World Geography
Which of the following mountains are young fold mountains ?
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Answer C. The Alps
The Alps, like the Himalayas and Andes, were formed in the recent Alpine (Tertiary) orogeny. The Appalachians, Aravalis and Urals are old, worn-down fold mountains.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q40, final key
- Q39 Indian Geography
The part of the Himalayas between Satluj and Kali rivers is called :
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Answer D. Kumaon Himalayas
By river valleys, the Himalayas are divided into Punjab (Indus-Satluj), Kumaon (Satluj-Kali), Nepal (Kali-Teesta) and Assam (Teesta-Dihang) Himalayas.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q42, final key
- Q40 Indian Geography
The Eastern Ghats stretch from :
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Answer D. The Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris
The Eastern Ghats run from the Mahanadi valley in Odisha south to the Nilgiris, where they meet the Western Ghats.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q43, final key
- Q41 Indian Geography
Which of the following river forms the Dhuandhar waterfalls ?
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Answer B. The Narmada
The Narmada forms the Dhuandhar falls at Bhedaghat near Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh, flowing through marble rocks.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q44, final key
- Q42 Indian Geography
Pre-monsoon Mango Showers are common in the coastal areas of :
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Answer A. Karnataka
Mango showers are pre-monsoon thunderstorms in Kerala and coastal Karnataka that help mangoes ripen early.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q45, final key
- Q43 Indian Geography
In India, very deep black soils are found in :
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Answer A. North-Western part of the Deccan Plateau
Black (regur) soils formed from Deccan Trap basalt are deepest in the north-western Deccan (Maharashtra, Malwa) and thin out towards the south and east.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q46, final key
- Q44 Indian Geography
The most widespread forests in India are :
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Answer C. Tropical Deciduous forests
Tropical deciduous (monsoon) forests are the most widespread forests in India, found where rainfall is 70-200 cm.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q47, final key
- Q45 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the following :
List I (River) List II (Origin) a. Vamsadhara I. Nallamala hills b. Machkund II. Nandidurga hills c. Gundlakamma III. Jayapur hills d. Pennar IV. Mudugal hills Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer D. III IV I II
The Vamsadhara rises in the Jayapur (Jeypore) hills of Odisha, the Machkund in the Mudugal hills, the Gundlakamma in the Nallamala hills and the Pennar in the Nandidurga hills of Karnataka.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q48, final key
- Q46 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Identify the incorrect statement :
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Answer B. Laterites are formed in semi arid and low rainfall regions.
Laterite soils form under high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry seasons, which leach away silica and leave iron and aluminium oxides. They do not form in semi-arid, low-rainfall areas.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q49, final key
- Q47 Indian Society
Match the following :
List I (Scheduled Tribe) List II (State/Union Territory) a. Gaddis I. Sikkim b. Jarawas II. Jharkhand c. Santhals III. Andaman and Nicobar Islands d. Bhutias IV. Himachal Pradesh Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer C. IV III II I
Gaddis are pastoral tribes of Himachal Pradesh, Jarawas live in the Andaman Islands, Santhals are the largest tribe of Jharkhand and Bhutias live in Sikkim.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q50, final key
- Q48 Indian Geography
Match the following :
List I (Functional classification of town) List II (Example) a. Mining town I. Jamshedpur b. Industrial town II. Ankleshwar c. Administrative town III. Udhampur d. Garrison Cantonment town IV. Gandhinagar Codes :
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Answer B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Ankleshwar (Gujarat) grew around oil wells, so it is a mining town; Jamshedpur is the classic steel (industrial) town; Gandhinagar is the planned capital of Gujarat; Udhampur hosts the Northern Command, a cantonment.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q52, final key
- Q49 Indian Geography
Which of the following oilseed crops is grown as 'rabi' crop only ?
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Answer B. Mustard
Rapeseed-mustard needs cool weather and is sown only in the rabi season; groundnut, sunflower and sesame are grown in both kharif and rabi/summer seasons.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q53, final key
- Q50 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the following on industrial clusters developed by APIIC Ltd. in Andhra Pradesh :
List I (Location of the Industrial Cluster) List II (Type of Industry) a. Gandrajupalle in Chittoor region I. Silk and Garments b. Kopparthi in Kadapa region II. Engineering c. Makavarapalem at Visakhapatnam III. Aluminium d. Machilipatnam IV. Jewellery Codes :
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Answer A. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
APIIC planned a silk and garments cluster at Gandrajupalle (Chittoor), an engineering cluster at Kopparthi (Kadapa), an aluminium cluster at Makavarapalem (Visakhapatnam) and the imitation-jewellery cluster at Machilipatnam.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q55, final key
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91 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q51 Indian Geography
In which place in India was the first cement plant set up in 1904 ?
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Answer B. Chennai (Madras)
India's first cement factory was set up in Madras (Chennai) in 1904 by South India Industries Ltd; large-scale production began at Porbandar in 1914.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q56, final key
- Q52 Indian Geography
Which one of the following states is not connected with the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) gas pipeline ?
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Answer D. Maharashtra
The HVJ pipeline runs from Hazira (Gujarat) through Vijaipur (Madhya Pradesh) and Rajasthan to Jagdishpur (Uttar Pradesh); it does not pass through Maharashtra.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q57, final key
- Q53 Indian Geography
Bilaspur is the headquarters of which of the following Railway zones ?
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Answer D. South East Central
Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh) is the headquarters of the South East Central Railway; South Eastern is at Kolkata, East Coast at Bhubaneswar and East Central at Hajipur.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q58, final key
- Q54 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the following on mineral resources of Andhra Pradesh :
List I (Mineral) List II (Place in erstwhile districts) a. Manganese I. Forest areas of Visakhapatnam and East Godavari b. Bauxite II. Garividi in Vizianagaram c. Mica III. Jammalamadugu and Mydukuru in Kadapa region d. Limestone IV. Nellore Region Codes :
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Answer B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Manganese is mined around Garividi (Vizianagaram), bauxite occurs in the Eastern Ghats forests of Visakhapatnam and East Godavari, mica in the Nellore belt, and limestone around Jammalamadugu and Mydukuru in Kadapa.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q59, final key
- Q55 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the following tourist spots of Andhra Pradesh :
List I (Beach) List II (Nearest City / Town) a. Suryalanka I. Narasapuram b. Manginapudi II. Ongole c. Kothapatnam III. Machilipatnam d. Perupalem IV. Bapatla Codes :
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Answer C. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Suryalanka beach is near Bapatla, Manginapudi near Machilipatnam, Kothapatnam near Ongole and Perupalem near Narasapuram.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q60, final key
- Q56 Indian Society
To eradicate child marriages, a unique data driven approach like ALIVA is adopted by :
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Answer C. Nayagarh district of Odisha
ALIVA is a data-driven initiative of the Nayagarh district administration in Odisha that tracks adolescent girls to prevent child marriage; it won the PM's award for excellence in public administration.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q61, final key
- Q57 Indian Society
A circular structure used by Zoroastrians for excarnation or the disposal of human dead bodies through exposure to the natural elements and scavenger animals such as vultures is called :
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Answer A. Dakhma
The dakhma, or Tower of Silence, is the circular raised structure where Parsis expose the dead to the sun and vultures; aparigraha and sallekhana are Jain ideas and Shenshai is a Parsi calendar.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q62, final key
- Q58 Indian Society
'Diku Andi' means :
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Answer D. Marriage by negotiation in Ho tribes
Among the Ho of Jharkhand 'Andi' is the regular arranged marriage settled by negotiation and bride price; 'Diku Andi' is the form borrowed from outsiders (diku), again by negotiation.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q63, final key
- Q59 Indian Society
The online portal developed by the Government of India for effective enforcement of the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, (which was amended in 2016), is :
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Answer D. PENCIL
PENCIL (Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour), launched in 2017 by the Labour Ministry, supports enforcement of the amended child labour law.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q64, final key
- Q60 Indian Society
Consider the following statements :
I. W.P. Scott defined divorce as 'an institutionalised arrangement for terminating the marriage relationship and allowing each partner the right to remarry'.
II. The first legislation in respect of the dissolution of marriage in India was enacted in 1869, and is 'Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act'.
III. The irresponsible departure from the home on the part of husband, leaving the family to fend for itself is called as 'the poor man's divorce'.
Which of the above given statements are correct ?
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Answer C. I and III only
Scott's definition of divorce and the description of desertion as 'the poor man's divorce' are both standard. Statement II mixes two laws: the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act dates from 1865, while 1869 is the Indian (Christian) Divorce Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q65, final key
- Q61 Indian Society
Ravindra and Seema are husband and wife. Krishna and Madhavi are children of Ravindra-Seema. Madhavi is married to Harish and Jyothi is the daughter of Madhavi-Harish. Then the Consanguineous Kinship is between :
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Answer C. Krishna and Jyothi
Consanguineous kin are related by blood. Krishna is Madhavi's sibling and so Jyothi's maternal uncle/aunt by blood; the other pairs are related through marriage (affinal kinship).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q66, final key
- Q62 Indian Society
As per the recommendations of the Sachar Committee, which among the following Muslim groups needs additional attention, similar to that of Hindu OBCs ?
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Answer A. Ajlaf
The Sachar Committee grouped Muslims into Ashraf (upper), Ajlaf (converts from occupational castes, comparable to Hindu OBCs) and Arzal (comparable to SCs); the Ajlaf were the group it likened to Hindu OBCs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q67, final key
- Q63 Indian Society
In the lines of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013, which of the following Robots can be used to end India's manual scavenging ?
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Answer C. Bandicoot
Bandicoot, built by the Kerala start-up Genrobotics, is a manhole-cleaning robot used to replace manual scavenging; Vyommitra is ISRO's humanoid for Gaganyaan.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q68, final key
- Q64 Indian Society
In which of the following cases is it alleged that the verdict of the Supreme Court of India diluted the stringent provisions of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ?
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Answer D. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan vs State of Maharashtra
In Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (2018) the Supreme Court allowed anticipatory bail and a preliminary inquiry under the Atrocities Act; Parliament reversed this by the 2018 amendment (Section 18A).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q69, final key
- Q65 Modern India
The Shuddhi Movement to bring back the people who transformed their religion to Islam and Christianity from Hinduism was started by :
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Answer D. Arya Samaj
The Shuddhi (purification) movement for reconversion to Hinduism was launched by Swami Dayananda Saraswati's Arya Samaj and later led by Swami Shraddhananda.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q70, final key
- Q66 Indian Society
India's first high-tech sports training centre for Divyangjan, 'The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Training Centre for Disability Sports' inaugurated on 2nd October, 2023 is located at :
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Answer B. Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh
The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Centre for Disability Sports in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, was inaugurated in October 2023 as India's first such centre for para-athletes.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q71, final key
- Q67 Indian Society
Under whose Chairmanship was a high-level committee on socio-economic, health and educational status of tribal communities of India set up by the Prime Minister's Office in 2013 ?
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Answer D. Prof. Virginius Xaxa
The 2013 high-level committee on the status of tribal communities was chaired by sociologist Prof. Virginius Xaxa and reported in 2014.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q72, final key
- Q68 Indian Society
Who stated that 'I measure the progress of a community by the degree of progress which women have achieved' ?
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Answer D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said he measured a community's progress by the progress its women had achieved.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q73, final key
- Q69 Indian Society
After a landmark Judgement on Triple Talaq in 2017, which among the following methods of divorce practised in Muslim society was recently challenged in the Apex Court of India ?
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Answer A. Talaq-e-Hasan
After Shayara Bano (2017) struck down instant triple talaq, petitions in 2022 challenged Talaq-e-Hasan, where the husband pronounces talaq once a month over three months.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q74, final key
- Q70 Indian Society
Which among the following IT initiatives by the Ministry of Home Affairs facilitates dissemination of information about significant crimes, including Human Trafficking across the country on real time basis and enables Interstate co-ordination ?
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Answer C. Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC)
Cri-MAC, launched by the MHA in 2020 on the CCTNS platform, shares alerts on heinous and inter-state crimes, including human trafficking, in real time between police forces.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q75, final key
- Q71 Indian Society
Who defined 'Communalism as the political assertiveness of a community to maintain its identity in a plural society undergoing modernization' ?
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Answer D. Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe
Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe described communalism as a community's political assertiveness to keep its identity within a modernising plural society.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q76, final key
- Q72 Indian Society
The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 enacted by the Government of India came into force from :
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Answer D. 1st July, 1961
The Dowry Prohibition Act received assent on 20 May 1961 and came into force on 1 July 1961.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q77, final key
- Q73 Indian Society
Consider the following statements :
I. In the 15th Lok Sabha the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha had crossed 10% of its total strength for the first time.
II. The 17th Lok Sabha has a higher percentage of representation of elected women members than before and it is the highest ever since the independence of India.
III. The women members elected to the Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh in General Elections 2019 was 11·74% of its total strength.
IV. The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 got the assent of the President on 28th September, 2023.
Which among the above given statements are correct ?
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Answer C. I, II and IV only
The 15th Lok Sabha (2009) had 59 women (about 10.9%), the first time above 10%; the 17th (2019) had 78, about 14%, the highest so far; the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam got assent on 28 September 2023. Only 14 of 175 AP MLAs elected in 2019 were women (about 8%), so III is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q78, final key
- Q74 AP Social & Cultural History
Under the pressure of groups interested in linguistic regionalism, the President of the Constituent Assembly of India has appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission to report on creation of provinces of Andhra, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. In which year was this Commission appointed and who was it chaired by ?
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Answer D. 1948, Justice S.K. Dhar
Rajendra Prasad, as President of the Constituent Assembly, appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission under Justice S.K. Dhar in June 1948; it advised against immediate linguistic reorganisation.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q79, final key
- Q75 Indian Society
Consider the following statements about the Assam Movement :
I. The Assam Movement led by All Assam Students' Union (AASU) was started in the year 1983.
II. The objective of the Assam Movement is to identify the migrant people, protect and provide constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards to the Bangladeshi Migrants in Assam.
III. The Assam Movement was officially ended on 15th August, 1989 after coming to an understanding with the Government of India which found official expression in the Memorandum of Understanding popularly known as the Assam Accord.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
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Answer D. None of the above
The AASU-led agitation began in 1979, sought to detect and deport illegal migrants and to safeguard the Assamese people (not the migrants), and ended with the Assam Accord of 15 August 1985. All three statements are wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q80, final key
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66 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Indian Society
Consider the following statements regarding the PM CARES for Children Scheme :
I. The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11th March, 2020 for children who have lost their parents due to COVID-19 pandemic.
II. The PM CARES for Children Scheme inter-alia provides support to children through convergent approach, gap funding for ensuring education, health, monthly stipend from the age of 14 years and the child receives a lump sum amount of ₹ 10 lakhs on attaining the age of 18 years.
III. The children who have lost their legal guardian, adoptive parents or single adoptive parent due to COVID-19 pandemic are also entitled to benefits under the scheme.
Which of the above given statements are incorrect ?
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Answer A. I and II only
The scheme was announced on 29 May 2021 (11 March 2020 is when WHO declared the pandemic); it gives a monthly stipend from 18 years and ₹10 lakh at 23 years. It does cover children who lost legal guardians or adoptive parents, so only I and II are incorrect.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q81, final key
- Q77 Indian Society
According to whom 'the existence of strong personal attachments and the fact of death, which of all human events is the most upsetting and disorganizing to man's calculations, are perhaps the main sources of religious belief' ?
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Answer C. Bronislaw Malinowski
Malinowski's functionalist view traces religion to life crises, above all death, which upset human plans; religion restores emotional balance and social cohesion.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q82, final key
- Q78 Indian Society
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments provided rights for making provisions in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation of qualifying marks in any examination (or) lowering the standards of evaluation and for reservation in the matter of promotions to the public services of the Centre and the State ?
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Answer B. 82nd Constitutional Amendment
The 82nd Amendment (2000) added a proviso to Article 335 allowing relaxation of qualifying marks and lower evaluation standards for SCs and STs in promotions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q83, final key
- Q79 Indian Society
Identify the country with which the Union Cabinet of India has approved signing of Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for co-operation in disability sector that benefits the persons with disabilities (PwDs) ?
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Answer A. South Africa
In 2023 the Union Cabinet approved an MoU between India's Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities and South Africa for cooperation in the disability sector.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q84, final key
- Q80 Indian Society
A consensual and informal relationship practised in accordance to matrilineal laws of Kerala that prevailed among Namboothiris and Nairs is known as :
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Answer A. Sambandham
Sambandham was the informal union between Nair women and (often Namboothiri) men under the matrilineal marumakkathayam system; the children belonged to the mother's taravad.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q85, final key
- Q81 Indian Society
Recently the Delhi High Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a provision of the Hindu Marriage Act which 'prohibits marriage between people who are related to each other through ancestors from their parent's side unless their customs allow them to do so'. The said provision was mentioned in which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act ?
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Answer B. Section 5(v)
Section 5(v) of the Hindu Marriage Act bars marriage between sapindas unless custom permits; the Delhi High Court upheld it in January 2024.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q86, final key
- Q82 Indian Society
A Centrally sponsored scheme that aims to achieve the objectives of child protection, happy childhood and development under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is :
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Answer D. Mission Vatsalya
Mission Vatsalya (formerly the Child Protection Services scheme) is the centrally sponsored scheme for child protection and welfare aligned with the SDGs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q87, final key
- Q83 Indian Society
Which of the following was the custom practised during the ancient period that allows married women to cohabit with a designated male for the sole purpose of procreating a child if her husband was impotent or had died ?
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Answer D. Niyoga
Niyoga allowed a widow or the wife of an impotent man to bear a child by an appointed man, usually a kinsman of the husband.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q88, final key
- Q84 Indian Constitution
As per Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, a minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes is compulsory for which of the following states ?
I. Madhya Pradesh
II. Punjab
III. Uttar Pradesh
IV. Jharkhand
V. Odisha
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Answer C. I, IV and V only
The proviso to Article 164(1), as amended in 2006, requires a tribal welfare minister in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha (Bihar was dropped).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q89, final key
- Q85 Indian Society
The comment 'Devotion cannot be subjected to gender discrimination' was made by the Apex Court in its judgement in the Sabarimala Case and permitted women of all age groups into the Sabarimala temple. Who among the following middle aged women first entered the Sabarimala temple after the Supreme Court judgement ?
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Answer C. Bindu Ammini and Kanaka Durga
On 2 January 2019 Bindu Ammini and Kanaka Durga became the first women of menstruating age to enter Sabarimala after the September 2018 verdict.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q90, final key
- Q86 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements regarding the 9th Asian Winter Games :
I. The 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 are set to be held at Beijing, China.
II. The official slogan of the 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 is 'Dream of Winter, Love Among Asia'.
III. The names of the two tiger mascots of the 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 are Yingying and Nini.
IV. On January 11th, 2024 the emblem of the 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 'Breakthrough' was officially announced.
Which of the given above statements are correct ?
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Answer D. II and IV only
The 2025 Asian Winter Games were held at Harbin, not Beijing, and the tiger mascots were Binbin and Nini. The slogan 'Dream of Winter, Love Among Asia' and the emblem 'Breakthrough' are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q91, final key
- Q87 Current Affairs
Which country was certified as Malaria-free by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2024 ?
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Answer B. Cabo Verde
WHO certified Cabo Verde malaria-free in January 2024; Morocco, the UAE and Mauritius were certified years earlier.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q92, final key
- Q88 Current Affairs
Who among the following eminent personalities have been conferred with the Padma Shri Award 2024 for their contributions and achievements in the field of Arts ?
I. Drona Bhuyan
II. Ghulam Nabi Dar
III. Rajaram Jain
IV. Dasari Kondappa
V. Dukhu Majhi
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Answer A. I, II and IV only
Drona Bhuyan (Assamese Deodhani dance), Ghulam Nabi Dar (Kashmiri wood carving) and Dasari Kondappa (Burra veena, Telangana) were honoured for Art in 2024; Rajaram Jain got it for literature and education and Dukhu Majhi for social work (afforestation).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q93, final key
- Q89 Current Affairs
According to INTERPOL, which State police had registered one of the first cases in India of human trafficking committed to force victims to commit cyber fraud ?
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Answer C. Telangana
INTERPOL's 2024 notes on trafficking-fuelled 'scam centres' cited a Telangana police case, among India's first, where trafficked victims were forced to run cyber frauds abroad.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q94, final key
- Q90 Current Affairs
Match the following List I with List II with regard to Arjuna Awards 2023 :
List I (Name) List II (Sports Discipline) a. Ritu Negi I. Golf b. Sheetal Devi II. Kabaddi c. Naorem Roshibina Devi III. Squash d. Diksha Dagar IV. Para-Archery e. Harinder Pal Singh Sandhu V. Wushu Codes :
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Answer D. a-II, b-IV, c-V, d-I, e-III
Ritu Negi captains India's women's kabaddi team, Sheetal Devi is a para-archer, Roshibina Devi plays wushu, Diksha Dagar is a golfer and Harinder Pal Singh Sandhu plays squash.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q95, final key
- Q91 Current Affairs
Which among the following is the initiative by the Government of Karnataka in collaboration with the All India Game Developers Forum (AIGDF) with special emphasis on gaming and social media ?
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Answer A. Digital Detox
Karnataka launched the 'Digital Detox' initiative with the All India Game Developers Forum in 2024 to tackle excessive gaming and social media use.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q96, final key
- Q92 Current Affairs
What is the theme of 'International Day of Education 2024' ?
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Answer C. Learning for lasting peace
UNESCO's theme for the International Day of Education on 24 January 2024 was 'Learning for lasting peace'; 2023's was 'To invest in people, prioritize education'.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q97, final key
- Q93 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements :
I. India's first National Highway steel slag road section is on NH-66 Mumbai-Goa National Highway.
II. Steel slag technology was developed by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) and Central Road Research Institute (CRRI).
III. JSW Steel, under the IGBC-CRRI technological guidance, has constructed a 1 km long four lane steel slag road section on NH-66 Mumbai-Goa National Highway.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
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Answer A. I only
India's first steel slag stretch on a national highway is on NH-66 (Mumbai-Goa), built by JSW Steel using technology developed by CSIR-CRRI with the Ministry of Steel; IGBC had no role, so II and III are wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q98, final key
- Q94 Current Affairs
'The Husavik Exploration Museum' seen in the news recently, belongs to which country ?
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Answer D. Iceland
The Exploration Museum is in Húsavík, a town in north Iceland; it was in the news in 2024 for its Leif Erikson award.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q99, final key
- Q95 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about MILAN 2024 :
I. MILAN 2024 is the 12th edition of Multilateral Naval Exercise being held from 19th to 27th February, 2024 under the aegis of Southern Naval Command.
II. The Harbour phase of MILAN 2024 is from 19th to 25th February, 2024 and is aimed towards building upon the experience of multilateral forces operating together at sea.
III. The Sea phase of MILAN 2024 is being conducted from 22nd to 27th February, 2024 and provides a platform for participating navies to discuss maritime subjects of common interest and share solutions.
Which among the above given statements are correct ?
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Answer D. None of the above
MILAN 2024 (12th edition, 19-27 February) was hosted at Visakhapatnam by the Eastern Naval Command. The harbour phase (19-23 February) was for seminars and discussion and the sea phase (24-27 February) for operating together, so the dates and aims in II and III are swapped or wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q100, final key
- Q96 Current Affairs
Which country has officially declared the 'Snow Leopard' as its national symbol, underscoring its commitment to conservation and ecological balance ?
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Answer C. Kyrgyzstan
In October 2023 Kyrgyzstan declared the snow leopard its national symbol; the animal lives in its Tien Shan and Pamir-Alay ranges and the country hosts the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program secretariat.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q101, final key
- Q97 Current Affairs
The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) was launched on 9th September, 2023 during the G20 Summit. Which among the following non-G20 countries are supporting the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) ?
I. Paraguay
II. Sri Lanka
III. Guyana
IV. Seychelles
V. Chile
VI. Finland
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Answer D. I, II, III, IV and VI
The non-G20 countries supporting the GBA at launch included Iceland, Kenya, Guyana, Paraguay, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Uganda and Finland. Chile was not among them, so every option containing V is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q102, final key
- Q98 Current Affairs
The Government of Gujarat is set to launch the country's first Submarine tourism in collaboration with :
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Answer C. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
Gujarat signed an agreement with the public sector Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited to run India's first submarine tourism service off Dwarka.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q103, final key
- Q99 Current Affairs
A German-based company, Pepper Motion is set to invest ₹ 4,640 crores in its EV Bus and Truck manufacturing unit in 800 acres at :
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Answer D. Punganur, Chittoor
Pepper Motion announced a ₹4,640 crore electric bus and truck plant on about 800 acres at Punganur in Chittoor district.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q104, final key
- Q100 Current Affairs
In which state was the law guaranteeing 75% reservation for their local residents in the private sector struck down by the High Court stating the law is unconstitutional ?
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Answer B. Haryana
In November 2023 the Punjab and Haryana High Court struck down the Haryana State Employment of Local Candidates Act, 2020, which reserved 75% of private jobs for local residents.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q105, final key
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41 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements :
I. The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) led by National Mission for Clean Ganga under the Ministry of Jal Shakti was launched at COP28 in New Delhi.
II. The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) is a unique alliance covering 275+ global river cities in 11 countries.
III. The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) is the first of its kind in the world.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
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Answer D. II and III only
The GRCA, led by the National Mission for Clean Ganga, was launched at COP28 in Dubai, not New Delhi, so statement I is wrong. It covers 275+ river cities in 11 countries and is described as the first alliance of its kind, so II and III are right.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q106, final key
- Q102 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which among the following is incorrectly paired ?
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Answer D. YSR Navodayam Scheme : It aims to provide self-employment opportunities to the youth of Andhra Pradesh by creating job opportunities in the transport sector.
YSR Navodayam is a one-time debt restructuring scheme for MSMEs, not a transport-sector job scheme for youth. The other three pairs describe the schemes correctly.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q107, final key
- Q103 Current Affairs
The Centre of Excellence for Vegetables and Spices under the Indo-Israel Agriculture Project was proposed to be set up in :
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Answer C. Palnadu District
Under the Indo-Israel Agriculture Project, Andhra Pradesh proposed its Centre of Excellence for vegetables and spices in Palnadu district, a major chilli and vegetable belt.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q108, final key
- Q104 Current Affairs
Which among the following countries got membership into BRICS bloc with effect from 1st January, 2024 ?
I. Egypt
II. Argentina
III. Indonesia
IV. Ethiopia
V. Saudi Arabia
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Answer D. I, IV and V
Six countries were invited at the 2023 Johannesburg summit; Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran and the UAE joined on 1 January 2024 and Saudi Arabia was listed among the new members. Argentina declined, and Indonesia joined only in January 2025.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q110, final key
- Q105 Current Affairs
Identify the incorrect statement regarding 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana' Scheme :
I. The Government of India launched the 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana' Scheme to provide end-to-end support to fishermen with non-mechanized boats.
II. 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana' Scheme provides collateral free enterprise development loan up to ₹ 6 lakhs in two tranches.
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Answer C. Both I and II
PM Vishwakarma (Sept 2023) supports artisans and craftspeople in 18 traditional trades, not fishermen, and its collateral-free loans total ₹3 lakh (₹1 lakh then ₹2 lakh). Both statements are wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q111, final key
- Q106 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements :
I. Dr. Tallavajhala Patanjali Sastri was conferred with Sahitya Akademi Award 2023 in Telugu Language for his poetry and poetry collections.
II. D.K. Chaduvula Babu was conferred with the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2023 in Telugu Language for his short stories 'Vajrala Vaana'.
III. Johny Takkedasila was conferred with the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2023 in Telugu Language for his book 'Devara Kotishu'.
Which of the above given statements are incorrect ?
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Answer C. I and III only
Tallavajhala Patanjali Sastri's 2023 Sahitya Akademi award was for a collection of short stories, not poetry, and Johny Takkedasila's Yuva Puraskar was for a different book, so I and III are wrong. D.K. Chaduvula Babu did win the 2023 Bal Sahitya Puraskar for 'Vajrala Vaana'.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q112, final key
- Q107 Current Affairs
Identify the incorrect statements among the following :
I. Man Singh is the second Indian to win a gold medal at the Asian Marathon Championships.
II. Hardik Singh was named as Men's FIH Player of the Year at the International Hockey Federation Hockey Star Awards 2023.
III. Indian women's hockey captain Sushila Chanu won the FIH 'Best Goalkeeper of the Year Award' at the International Hockey Federation Hockey Star Awards 2023.
IV. Shubman Gill has been selected as 'Emerging Player of the Year' at International Cricket Council (ICC) Awards 2023.
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Answer C. III and IV only
Statement III is wrong: Sushila Chanu is a midfielder, not a goalkeeper, and did not win the FIH Goalkeeper of the Year award (India's women's captain and goalkeeper is Savita Punia). Statement IV is wrong: the ICC Emerging Men's Cricketer of 2023 was Rachin Ravindra; Shubman Gill was not chosen. Man Singh's 2023 Asian Marathon gold and Hardik Singh's FIH Player of the Year award are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q113, final key
- Q108 Andhra Pradesh Geography
In which part of Andhra Pradesh is India's first largest private gold mine located ?
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Answer C. Tuggali Mandal of Kurnool District
The Jonnagiri gold project of Geomysore Services, India's first large private gold mine, is at Jonnagiri in Tuggali mandal of Kurnool district.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q114, final key
- Q109 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2023 :
I. Daniel Barenboim was announced as winner of the Indira Gandhi Prize 2023 for his efforts to solve economic crisis and his contribution in the development of Sri Lanka.
II. Ali Abu Awwad was announced as winner of the Indira Gandhi Prize 2023 for his efforts towards a non-violent resolution of the Israel-Palestine conflict.
III. The International Jury of the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2023 was chaired by former Chief Justice of India, R.M. Lodha.
Which among the above given statements are incorrect ?
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Answer C. I and III only
The 2023 prize was shared by conductor Daniel Barenboim and peace activist Ali Abu Awwad for work on the Israel-Palestine conflict, not Sri Lanka, and the jury was chaired by former NSA Shivshankar Menon. So I and III are wrong, II is right.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q115, final key
- Q110 Current Affairs
Which among the following rare natural phenomenon is going to happen in 2024, after 221 years, in the United States of America ?
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Answer D. Double Cicada Explosion
In 2024 the 13-year Brood XIII and 17-year Brood XIX of periodical cicadas emerged together in the US, a co-emergence that last happened in 1803, 221 years earlier (13 × 17 = 221).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q116, final key
- Q111 Current Affairs
Which among the following are incorrectly paired with regard to Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 ?
I. Best SafaiMitra Suraksha Sheher : Prayagraj
II. Cleanest Ganga Town rank 2 : Varanasi
III. Cleanest Cantonment Board : Mhow Cantonment Board
IV. All India Cleanest City rank 3 : Navi Mumbai
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Answer A. I and II only
In Swachh Survekshan 2023 the Best Safaimitra Surakshit Shehar was Chandigarh, and Varanasi ranked first (Prayagraj second) among Ganga towns. Mhow was the cleanest cantonment and Navi Mumbai ranked third overall.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q117, final key
- Q112 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements with regard to India Skills Report 2024 :
I. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Kerala are the top three states with the highest availability of talent with computer skills.
II. Karnataka is the most preferred state to work for both male and female employable talent.
III. Telangana has the highest concentration of employable talent in the age group of 18 to 21 years.
IV. Andhra Pradesh is one among the states with the largest concentration of highly employable resources.
Which of the above given statements are correct ?
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Answer C. I, III and IV only
India Skills Report 2024 named Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Kerala for computer-skilled talent, Telangana for employable talent aged 18-21, and listed Andhra Pradesh among states with the most highly employable people. Kerala, not Karnataka, was the most preferred state to work in, so II is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q118, final key
- Q113 Current Affairs
Pick out the odd pairs with regard to newly elected Presidents of that respective country :
I. Fernando Pérez Molina : Guatemala
II. Abdel Fattah El-Sisi : Egypt
III. Felix Tshisekedi : Democratic Republic of the Congo
IV. Sierra Leone : Liberia
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Answer D. I and IV only
Guatemala elected Bernardo Arévalo in 2023 (Otto Pérez Molina was a former president), and Sierra Leone is a country, not Liberia's president (Joseph Boakai won there). El-Sisi (Egypt) and Tshisekedi (DR Congo) were re-elected in December 2023.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q119, final key
- Q114 Current Affairs
Which is the first South Asian Nation to formally register same sex marriage ?
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Answer B. Nepal
In November 2023 Nepal officially registered its first same-sex marriage, after a Supreme Court order, becoming the first South Asian country to do so.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q120, final key
- Q115 Mental Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully :
DE*9E$P#6+U0$H1A2D&#AS2ΩA3DS9ALM#
What should be in the place of question mark (?) in the following sequence based on the above arrangement ?
DE* 9$P 60$ A#A ?
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Answer B. AAL
Each term takes the element at position n² followed by the elements at positions n(n+1) and n(n+1)+1: (1,2,3) DE*, (4,6,7) 9$P, (9,12,13) 60$, (16,20,21) A#A. The next term uses positions 25, 30 and 31: A, A, L.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q121, final key
- Q116 Mental Ability
Rajesh codes the alphabets as numbers such as a=1, b=2, c=3 and so on. Then what is the value that Rajesh gets by adding all the letters (according to the code given to that letter) in the word 'pneumonoultramicroscopicsilicovolcanoconiosis' ?
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Answer D. 560
Add the alphabet positions of all 45 letters (p=16, n=14, e=5, u=21, m=13, o=15 ...). The total is 560.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q122, final key
- Q117 Mental Ability
Directions for question nos. 123 to 125
Study the given information and answer the following questions :
YSR Kadapa team has to play cricket matches with Visakhapatnam team as a part of 'Aadudam Andhra' organized by the Government of Andhra Pradesh. The number of players in each team must be 5 only. Both the teams have to choose 5 players from the eight players given below. The information about the eight players, their role in the team and the money to be paid for playing one match is as follows :
Player Role Money to be paid per Match A Batsman ₹ 5,000 B Batsman ₹ 5,500 C Batsman/Part time Wicketkeeper ₹ 6,500 D Specialist Wicketkeeper ₹ 5,500 E Bowler (Spin) ₹ 5,000 F Bowler (Fast) ₹ 6,000 G Bowler (Spin) ₹ 5,500 H Bowler (Fast) ₹ 5,500 Conditions :
1. B and C cannot be selected together.
2. Wicketkeeper is a must in the team.
3. E and G cannot be selected together.
4. Among E, F, G and H, only two persons are to be selected.
5. If A is selected, H must be selected.
6. There must be at least two batsmen and two bowlers in the team.
7. C is considered as both a batsman and a wicketkeeper.
YSR Kadapa team decides to compose the team with one fast bowler and one spinner and has a budget of only ₹ 26,500 to form a team. Then who among the following is not a member of that team satisfying all the conditions ?
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Answer D. G
The valid teams are ABDEH 26,500, ABDGH 27,000, ABDFH 27,500, ACDEH 27,500, ACDGH 28,000 and ACDFH 28,500. With one fast bowler, one spinner and at most ₹26,500, only ABDEH fits, so G is not in it.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q123, final key
- Q118 Mental Ability
If it is known that the stadium is favourable to spin bowling and YSR Kadapa team decided to select C and G compulsorily in the team, then what is the total amount spent by the team on selected players satisfying all the conditions ?
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Answer C. ₹ 28,000
With C in, B is out, so the second batsman must be A, which forces H. With G and H as the two bowlers, D fills the fifth place: A, C, D, G, H = 5,000 + 6,500 + 5,500 + 5,500 + 5,500 = ₹28,000.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q124, final key
- Q119 Mental Ability
If it is known that the stadium is favourable to fast bowling and YSR Kadapa team decided to compose the team with two fast bowlers, then what would be the least amount that can be spent to form a team satisfying all the conditions ?
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Answer C. ₹ 27,500
Two fast bowlers means F and H. The valid teams are A, B, D, F, H (₹27,500) and A, C, D, F, H (₹28,500), so the least amount is ₹27,500.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q125, final key
- Q120 Mental Ability
Read the following instructions :
A$D means 'A is to the North of D'
A&D means 'A is to the East of D'
A*D means 'D is to the West of A'
A%D means 'D is to the South of A'
A@DR means 'A stands exactly in the middle of the horizontal line of DR'
A!DR means 'A stands exactly in the middle of the vertical line of DR'
It should be noted that 'A6m$D' means 'A is 6 meters to the north of D' and so on.
Find the shortest distance between S and T in the following expression :
'B12m$S5m*R3m&J6m%K!JT'
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Answer A. 4√13 m
Take S at (0,0). R is 5 m west of S at (-5,0); R is 3 m east of J, so J is at (-8,0); K is 6 m south of J at (-8,-6); K is the midpoint of JT, so T is at (-8,-12). ST = √(8² + 12²) = √208 = 4√13 m.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q126, final key
- Q121 Mental Ability
The speeds of Rohit and Lalith are 30 km/h and 40 km/h. Initially, Lalith is at place X and Rohit is at place Y. The distance between X and Y is 650 kms. Rohit started his journey 3 hours earlier than Lalith to meet him. If they both meet each other at a place Z somewhere between X and Y and the distance between Y and Z is P, then what is the value of P ÷ 2 ?
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Answer D. 165
In the first 3 hours Rohit covers 90 km, leaving 560 km, which they close at 70 km/h in 8 hours. Rohit travels 11 hours × 30 = 330 km, so P = 330 and P ÷ 2 = 165.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q128, final key
- Q122 Mental Ability
If in a certain code language 'CONSERVE' is written as 'BDNPMORTDFQSUWDF', then how will 'NUMEROUS' be written in that code ?
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Answer C. MOTVLNDFQSNPTVRT
Each letter is replaced by the letter before it and the letter after it (C → BD, O → NP ...). So N → MO, U → TV, M → LN, E → DF, R → QS, O → NP, U → TV, S → RT, giving MOTVLNDFQSNPTVRT.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q129, final key
- Q123 Mental Ability
In the month of January, the students of Chaitanya Bharathi Public School visited M/s Swaminathan Farm, where they saw rabbits and pigeons. One student started counting. If the heads are counted, there are 340 heads and if legs are counted there are 1060 legs. He also observed that 3 pigeons (out of the total pigeons present there) were dead. Then how many live pigeons are there on that farm ?
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Answer D. 147
Rabbits r and pigeons p: r + p = 340 and 4r + 2p = 1060, so 2r = 380, r = 190 and p = 150. The 3 dead pigeons are part of the 150, so 147 are alive.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q131, final key
- Q124 Mental Ability
The sum of the present ages of Ramu and his son Jagadeesh is 60 years. Six years ago, Ramu's age was five times the age of Jagadeesh. After 6 years, Jagadeesh's age will be :
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Answer D. 20 years
Let Jagadeesh be J now. Ramu is 60 − J, and 60 − J − 6 = 5(J − 6), so 6J = 84 and J = 14. After 6 years he will be 20.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q132, final key
- Q125 Mental Ability
If 2X4X6X8X10X12X14X16X18=18579XYZ0, what is the value of X + Y + Z ?
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Answer D. 15
2 × 4 × ... × 18 = 2⁹ × 9! = 512 × 362880 = 185794560. So X = 4, Y = 5, Z = 6 and X + Y + Z = 15.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q133, final key
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Start free - Q126 Mental Ability
Directions for question nos. 134 and 135 :
Study the given information and answer the following questions :
On the occasion of unveiling of Statue of Social Justice, the Government of Andhra Pradesh had set up exhibition and stalls at PWD grounds, Vijayawada. Raghu went to the exhibition to visit 8 stalls, Stall-1, Stall-2, Stall-3, Stall-4, Stall-5, Stall-6, Stall-7, Stall-8, but not necessarily in the same order. He started from Stall-1 and walked towards Stall-3 which is at distance of 24 m towards East. He then turned left and walked 16 m to reach Stall-5. Then he walked 57 m Southwest to visit Stall-2, which is towards the South of Stall-1, crossing the path which goes through the midpoint of the line joining Stall-1 and Stall-3. After visiting Stall-2, he walked 40 m in the East direction and reached Stall-7. He then walked 50 m left to reach Stall-8 and then 16 m right to reach Stall-4 and to reach the last stall, he walked 35 m towards the right.
What is the shortest distance between Stall-3 and Stall-6 ?
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Answer B. 4√89 m
Put Stall-1 at (0,0): Stall-3 (24,0), Stall-5 (24,16), Stall-2 (0,−35) (the key's 35 m, since √(24² + 51²) ≈ 56.4 ≈ 57 m), Stall-7 (40,−35), Stall-8 (40,15), Stall-4 (56,15), Stall-6 (56,−20). Stall-3 to Stall-6 = √(32² + 20²) = √1424 = 4√89 m.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q134, final key
- Q127 Mental Ability
What is the direction of Stall-1 with respect to Stall-2 and the shortest distance between them ?
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Answer C. North, 35 m
Stall-2 is due south of Stall-1, so Stall-1 is to the north of Stall-2. From Stall-5 (24,16), a 57 m walk ending on the line x = 0 drops about 51 m, putting Stall-2 about 35 m south of Stall-1 (√(24² + 51²) ≈ 56.4 m).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q135, final key
- Q128 Mental Ability
If AB × DED = AB AB,
AB × DEDED = AB AB AB,
ABC × DEED = ABC ABC, and
DED + DEDED + DEED = DDFEG,
where A, B, C, D, E, F and G are different digits, what is the value of F × G ?
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Answer C. 6
AB × 101 = ABAB, so D = 1 and E = 0 (also 10101 and 1001 fit the next two lines). Then 101 + 10101 + 1001 = 11203 = DDFEG, so F = 2, G = 3 and F × G = 6.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q136, final key
- Q129 Mental Ability
Suneetha is working as a Deputy Collector and gets a monthly salary of ₹ 74,000. She used to spend it on three heads : i.e., Personal and family expenses (P), Medical (M) and Charity (C) and rest were her savings. P was 70% of her salary, M was 20% of P and C was 15% of M. When she gets a salary hike, her salary is 60% higher than in the past. She maintained the same percentage of P, but M became 25% of P and C became 20% of M. The difference between the two savings is :
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Answer B. ₹ 370
Before: P 51,800, M 10,360, C 1,554, savings 74,000 − 63,714 = 10,286. After the hike salary is 1,18,400: P 82,880, M 20,720, C 4,144, savings 1,18,400 − 1,07,744 = 10,656. Difference = ₹370.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q137, final key
- Q130 Mental Ability
Vijay invested a sum of ₹ 8,192 at 15% per annum in State Bank of India. What is the compound interest for the sum invested by Vijay for 1¼ years, if interest is compounded 5 monthly ?
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Answer D. ₹ 1,634
15% a year gives 6.25% (1/16) for each 5-month period, and 1¼ years = 15 months = 3 periods. Amount = 8192 × (17/16)³ = 9,826, so compound interest = 9,826 − 8,192 = ₹1,634.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q138, final key
- Q131 Mental Ability
Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain rule. Following the same rule find out the missing number (?) :
2 [4] 3 = 14, 4 [6] 5 = 32, 5 [7] 6 = 44, 6 [8] 7 = ?
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Answer C. 58
Rule: a [b] c = a × c + 2b. Check: 2×3 + 8 = 14, 4×5 + 12 = 32, 5×6 + 14 = 44. So 6 [8] 7 = 42 + 16 = 58.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q139, final key
- Q132 Mental Ability
Arun finds the letters to be placed in the place of '?' and '!' in the figure given and by combining and arranging those four letters in the figure given, he finds the name of a country. The Capital city of that country is :
[Figure: four squares, each with three numbers at its corners and a letter at the inner corner. Top-left: 9, 5, 7 and U. Top-right: 7, 4, 5 and ?. Bottom-left: 2, 1, 2 and E. Bottom-right: 6, 9, 3 and !.]
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Answer C. Lima
In each square the three numbers add up to the letter's position in the alphabet: 9 + 5 + 7 = 21 (U), 2 + 1 + 2 = 5 (E). So ? = 7 + 4 + 5 = 16 (P) and ! = 6 + 9 + 3 = 18 (R). U, E, P, R make PERU, whose capital is Lima.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q140, final key
- Q133 Mental Ability
Siva defines a number as 'connected with 9' if it is divisible by 9, or if the sum of its digits is 9, or if 9 is one of the digits of the number, and other numbers are all 'not connected with 9'. As per his definition, the number of integers from 1 to 90 (both included) which are not connected with 9 is :
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Answer C. 72
Multiples of 9 up to 90 are 10 numbers (digit-sum-9 numbers are among them). Numbers with the digit 9 are 9, 19, ..., 89 and 90, also 10, of which 9 and 90 are already counted. Connected = 10 + 10 − 2 = 18, so not connected = 90 − 18 = 72.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q141, final key
- Q134 Mental Ability
Read the following instructions :
A3B means 'A is the Mother of B'
A11B means 'A is the Brother of B'
A9B means 'A is the Father of B'
A12B means 'A is the Sister of B'
Which of the following expressions means that P is the maternal uncle of Q ?
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Answer C. P11M3N12Q
P11M3N12Q reads: P is the brother of M, M is the mother of N, and N is the sister of Q. So M is Q's mother and P, her brother, is Q's maternal uncle.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q142, final key
- Q135 Mental Ability
Find out the odd one in the following series :
2, 4, 7, 11.5, 18.25, 28.375, 42.5625
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Answer D. 42.5625
The differences 2, 3, 4.5, 6.75, 10.125 grow by a factor of 1.5, so the next difference is 15.1875 and the last term should be 28.375 + 15.1875 = 43.5625, not 42.5625.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q143, final key
- Q136 Mental Ability
Mahesh and Krishna are engaged to do a work. Mahesh working alone takes 8 hours more to complete the job than if both worked together. If Krishna worked alone, he would need 4½ hours more to complete the job than if they both worked together. How much time would they both take to do the work together ?
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Answer D. 6 hours
If together they take T hours, then T² = 8 × 4.5 = 36, so T = 6 hours. Check: Mahesh 14 h and Krishna 10.5 h give 1/14 + 1/10.5 = 1/6.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q145, final key
- Q137 Mental Ability
Find the number of triangles and squares in the following figure :
[Figure: a large triangle with a vertical median and a horizontal line, a rectangle and a small square at the apex, and a small diamond (a square turned 45°) with its diagonals at the centre.]
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Answer D. 21 Triangles and 7 Squares
Counting every triangle formed by the sides, the median, the horizontal line and the central diamond with its diagonals gives 21 triangles, and counting the apex square, the diamond and the squares made by the median and cross lines gives 7 squares (official final key).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q146, final key
- Q138 Mental Ability
The question below consists of a problem figure and is followed by four answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Select the correct answer figure that is embedded in the question figure.
[Figure: question figure is a square with diagonal and slanted lines and a shaded triangle; the answer figures are four line shapes: (1) an M-like shape, (2) a sideways triangle with a bar, (3) a slanted V-like shape, (4) an hourglass.]
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Answer A. Figure (1)
The M-shaped figure (1) can be traced along the lines of the question figure without turning it; the other shapes need lines that are not there (official final key).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q147, final key
- Q139 Mental Ability
Choose the correct mirror image for the given figure among the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). The mirror is represented by a line AB.
[Figure: a triangle with letters and hatched parts inside, standing on a horizontal mirror line AB below it; the four answer figures are rotated or flipped versions of it.]
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Answer B. Figure (2)
With the mirror line AB below the figure, the image is flipped top to bottom: the triangle points downward while left and right stay where they are. Figure (2) shows this (official final key).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q148, final key
- Q140 Mental Ability
Statement : Two industrialists, Shyam and Manoj, have industries right next to each other. They have been working hard for their industries' development and both of them manufacture the same product. Both spend equal amount of time, use the same materials and are equally hardworking. During the sales period, Shyam had better product sale in comparison to Manoj's product.
Conclusion I : The quality of material used by Manoj was not good.
Conclusion II : Power cuts ruined the quality of Manoj's product.
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Answer D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Both use the same materials, so I contradicts the statement, and nothing is said about power cuts, so II is an outside guess. Neither follows.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q149, final key
- Q141 Mental Ability
Statement : The civic authority has decided that all the factories located inside the city limits be shifted outside to reduce the level of environmental pollution in the city.
Assumption I : The pollution level in the city in future may reduce after these factories are shifted outside the city limits.
Assumption II : Enough usable land is available outside the city limit for these factories.
Assumption III : Many of these factories may shift to some other smaller towns to remain profitable.
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Answer B. Only I and II are implicit
The decision is made to cut pollution, so the authority assumes shifting will reduce it (I), and ordering all factories outside assumes there is land for them there (II). Whether factories move to other towns for profit (III) is not something the decision depends on.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q150, final key
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