APPSC Group 2 · Prelims · Topic 6
6 APPSC Group 2 Indian Society questions with answers
59 questions from APPSC G2 Prelims Mock 1 with answers and APPSC G2 Screening Test 2024 question paper with answers and APPSC G2 Mains Paper II 2025 question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
6.8Women: issues & lawsNotes
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'Equal pay for equal work for both men and women' is a Directive Principle under:
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Answer B. Article 39(d)
Art. 39(d) directs equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 39
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The Vishaka guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997 deal with:
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Answer A. prevention of sexual harassment of women at the workplace
Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan laid down these guidelines.
Source: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997)
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According to Census 2011, which State had the highest sex ratio (females per 1,000 males)?
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Answer B. Kerala
Kerala recorded 1,084 females per 1,000 males.
Source: Census of India 2011
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Which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 makes sexual intercourse by deceitful means, including a false promise of marriage, a specific offence?
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Answer A. Section 69
S.69 BNS is a new provision on this offence.
Source: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, s.69
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In Danial Latifi v. Union of India (2001), the Supreme Court upheld the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, holding that the husband must make a reasonable and fair provision for the divorced wife that:
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Answer A. extends to her future and must be made within the iddat period
Danial Latifi (2001) read the 1986 Act to require a reasonable and fair provision for the divorced wife's future, to be made within the iddat period, and so upheld the Act.
Source: Danial Latifi v. Union of India, (2001) 7 SCC 740
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The Hindu Women's Rights to Property Act, 1937 gave a Hindu widow:
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Answer D. a limited interest in her husband's property
The 1937 Act gave a widow a limited interest, known as the Hindu woman's estate, in her husband's property; full ownership came only with Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
Source: Hindu Women's Rights to Property Act, 1937; Hindu Succession Act, 1956
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Who stated that 'I measure the progress of a community by the degree of progress which women have achieved' ?
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Answer D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said he measured a community's progress by the progress its women had achieved.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q73, final key
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After a landmark Judgement on Triple Talaq in 2017, which among the following methods of divorce practised in Muslim society was recently challenged in the Apex Court of India ?
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Answer A. Talaq-e-Hasan
After Shayara Bano (2017) struck down instant triple talaq, petitions in 2022 challenged Talaq-e-Hasan, where the husband pronounces talaq once a month over three months.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q74, final key
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Which among the following IT initiatives by the Ministry of Home Affairs facilitates dissemination of information about significant crimes, including Human Trafficking across the country on real time basis and enables Interstate co-ordination ?
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Answer C. Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC)
Cri-MAC, launched by the MHA in 2020 on the CCTNS platform, shares alerts on heinous and inter-state crimes, including human trafficking, in real time between police forces.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q75, final key
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The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 enacted by the Government of India came into force from :
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Answer D. 1st July, 1961
The Dowry Prohibition Act received assent on 20 May 1961 and came into force on 1 July 1961.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q77, final key
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Consider the following statements :
I. In the 15th Lok Sabha the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha had crossed 10% of its total strength for the first time.
II. The 17th Lok Sabha has a higher percentage of representation of elected women members than before and it is the highest ever since the independence of India.
III. The women members elected to the Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh in General Elections 2019 was 11·74% of its total strength.
IV. The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 got the assent of the President on 28th September, 2023.
Which among the above given statements are correct ?
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Answer C. I, II and IV only
The 15th Lok Sabha (2009) had 59 women (about 10.9%), the first time above 10%; the 17th (2019) had 78, about 14%, the highest so far; the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam got assent on 28 September 2023. Only 14 of 175 AP MLAs elected in 2019 were women (about 8%), so III is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q78, final key
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The comment 'Devotion cannot be subjected to gender discrimination' was made by the Apex Court in its judgement in the Sabarimala Case and permitted women of all age groups into the Sabarimala temple. Who among the following middle aged women first entered the Sabarimala temple after the Supreme Court judgement ?
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Answer C. Bindu Ammini and Kanaka Durga
On 2 January 2019 Bindu Ammini and Kanaka Durga became the first women of menstruating age to enter Sabarimala after the September 2018 verdict.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q90, final key
6.6Religion & societyNotes
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The Jain practice of voluntarily fasting unto death is known as:
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Answer B. Sallekhana
Sallekhana (also called Santhara) is the Jain vow of voluntary fasting unto death.
Source: Standard references on Jainism
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In Emile Durkheim's definition, religion is a unified system of beliefs and practices relative to sacred things, which unite all who adhere to them into one single moral community called a:
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Answer D. Church
Durkheim defined religion as beliefs and practices relative to sacred things that unite adherents into one moral community called a Church.
Source: Emile Durkheim, The Elementary Forms of Religious Life (1912)
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Annual payments to the Devaswom Funds in Kerala and Tamil Nadu are provided for under which Article of the Constitution?
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Answer D. Article 290A
Article 290A provides annual payments of Rs 46.5 lakh to the Travancore Devaswom Fund and Rs 13.5 lakh to the Tamil Nadu Devaswom Fund.
Source: Constitution Art. 290A
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A circular structure used by Zoroastrians for excarnation or the disposal of human dead bodies through exposure to the natural elements and scavenger animals such as vultures is called :
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Answer A. Dakhma
The dakhma, or Tower of Silence, is the circular raised structure where Parsis expose the dead to the sun and vultures; aparigraha and sallekhana are Jain ideas and Shenshai is a Parsi calendar.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q62, final key
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According to whom 'the existence of strong personal attachments and the fact of death, which of all human events is the most upsetting and disorganizing to man's calculations, are perhaps the main sources of religious belief' ?
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Answer C. Bronislaw Malinowski
Malinowski's functionalist view traces religion to life crises, above all death, which upset human plans; religion restores emotional balance and social cohesion.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q82, final key
6.7Tribes of India & APNotes
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In the Munda movement led by Birsa, the term 'dikus' referred to:
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Answer B. outsiders such as traders, moneylenders and landlords
Birsa sought to free his people from the dikus (outsiders).
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.4
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Which one of the following powers is NOT given to Gram Sabhas or Panchayats in Scheduled Areas by the PESA Act, 1996?
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Answer C. Grant of mining leases for major minerals
PESA covers only recommendations for minor minerals; major mineral leases are outside it.
Source: PESA Act 1996, s.4
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Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule exist in ten States (as of 2024). Which one of the following States does NOT have any Scheduled Area?
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Answer A. Kerala
Kerala is not among the ten States having Fifth Schedule Areas.
Source: Constitution, Fifth Schedule; Scheduled Areas orders (as of 2024)
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Consider the following statements about Panchayats in Scheduled Areas under the PESA Act, 1996:
I. Reservation for Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat shall not be less than one-half of the total seats.
II. All seats of chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for Scheduled Tribes.
III. The State Government may nominate persons of Scheduled Tribes that have no representation in a Panchayat at the intermediate or district level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are in s.4(g) and s.4(h) of PESA.
Source: PESA Act 1996, s.4
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Match the following :
List I (Scheduled Tribe) List II (State/Union Territory) a. Gaddis I. Sikkim b. Jarawas II. Jharkhand c. Santhals III. Andaman and Nicobar Islands d. Bhutias IV. Himachal Pradesh Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer C. IV III II I
Gaddis are pastoral tribes of Himachal Pradesh, Jarawas live in the Andaman Islands, Santhals are the largest tribe of Jharkhand and Bhutias live in Sikkim.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q50, final key
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'Diku Andi' means :
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Answer D. Marriage by negotiation in Ho tribes
Among the Ho of Jharkhand 'Andi' is the regular arranged marriage settled by negotiation and bride price; 'Diku Andi' is the form borrowed from outsiders (diku), again by negotiation.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q63, final key
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Under whose Chairmanship was a high-level committee on socio-economic, health and educational status of tribal communities of India set up by the Prime Minister's Office in 2013 ?
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Answer D. Prof. Virginius Xaxa
The 2013 high-level committee on the status of tribal communities was chaired by sociologist Prof. Virginius Xaxa and reported in 2014.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q72, final key
6.4Caste, class & social stratificationNotes
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'Caste and Race in India' (1932), which listed six main features of the caste system, was written by:
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Answer A. G.S. Ghurye
G.S. Ghurye's Caste and Race in India (1932) set out six features of caste.
Source: Ghurye, Caste and Race in India (1932)
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The Sanskrit word 'varna', used for the four orders of Brahmanical society, literally means:
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Answer A. Colour
'Varna' literally means colour; 'jati' is the term linked with birth.
Source: Monier-Williams, Sanskrit-English Dictionary, 'varna'
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Caste-wise population data for all castes were last published from which Census of India?
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Answer B. 1931
The 1931 Census was the last whose caste data for all castes were published; censuses after Independence counted only SCs and STs.
Source: Census of India 1931; NCERT Class 10 Democratic Politics II ch.3
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Which of the following is NOT among the six features of caste listed by G.S. Ghurye?
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Answer D. Collective ownership of village land by each caste
Ghurye's six features are segmental division, hierarchy, restrictions on feeding and social intercourse, civil and religious disabilities and privileges, lack of unrestricted choice of occupation, and restrictions on marriage.
Source: Ghurye, Caste and Race in India (1932), ch.1
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Who wrote: 'When a class is somewhat strictly hereditary, we may call it a caste'?
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Answer C. C.H. Cooley
C.H. Cooley gave this definition in 'Social Organization' (1909).
Source: Cooley, Social Organization (1909)
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As per the recommendations of the Sachar Committee, which among the following Muslim groups needs additional attention, similar to that of Hindu OBCs ?
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Answer A. Ajlaf
The Sachar Committee grouped Muslims into Ashraf (upper), Ajlaf (converts from occupational castes, comparable to Hindu OBCs) and Arzal (comparable to SCs); the Ajlaf were the group it likened to Hindu OBCs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q67, final key
6.12Welfare schemes & constitutional safeguardsNotes
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Under the National Food Security Act, 2013, how much food grain is an Antyodaya Anna Yojana household entitled to per month?
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Answer C. 35 kg per household
Under NFSA 2013 an AAY household gets 35 kg of food grains per month.
Source: National Food Security Act 2013 s.3; AP SCERT Class 9 Economics ch. Food Security
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The SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2015 provided for which courts for the speedy trial of offences under the Act?
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Answer B. Exclusive Special Courts
The 2015 amendment substituted Section 14 to provide Exclusive Special Courts for one or more districts, with Exclusive Special Public Prosecutors.
Source: Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
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A private unaided school, which is not a minority institution, has 60 seats in Class I. Under Section 12(1)(c) of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, at least how many of these seats must go to children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups in the neighbourhood?
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Answer B. 15
Section 12(1)(c) requires at least 25% of the class strength, so 25% of 60 = 15 seats.
Source: RTE Act 2009 s.12(1)(c)
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In the lines of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013, which of the following Robots can be used to end India's manual scavenging ?
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Answer C. Bandicoot
Bandicoot, built by the Kerala start-up Genrobotics, is a manhole-cleaning robot used to replace manual scavenging; Vyommitra is ISRO's humanoid for Gaganyaan.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q68, final key
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In which of the following cases is it alleged that the verdict of the Supreme Court of India diluted the stringent provisions of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ?
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Answer D. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan vs State of Maharashtra
In Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (2018) the Supreme Court allowed anticipatory bail and a preliminary inquiry under the Atrocities Act; Parliament reversed this by the 2018 amendment (Section 18A).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q69, final key
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Which of the following Constitutional Amendments provided rights for making provisions in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation of qualifying marks in any examination (or) lowering the standards of evaluation and for reservation in the matter of promotions to the public services of the Centre and the State ?
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Answer B. 82nd Constitutional Amendment
The 82nd Amendment (2000) added a proviso to Article 335 allowing relaxation of qualifying marks and lower evaluation standards for SCs and STs in promotions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q83, final key
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Anganwadi worker is a functionary of which scheme ?
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Answer C. ICDS
Anganwadi workers run Anganwadi centres under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, now under Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q150, final key
6.5Family, marriage & kinshipNotes
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Among the Nairs of Kerala, the ritual in which a 'tali' was tied on girls before puberty, separate from their later sambandham union, was called:
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Answer A. Talikettu kalyanam
Talikettu kalyanam was the pre-puberty tali-tying rite of Nair girls.
Source: Gough (1959); Kapadia (1955)
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Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' is dealt with in:
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Answer B. Section 80
Dowry death, formerly IPC s.304B, is s.80 of the BNS.
Source: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 s.80
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Who wrote 'Systems of Consanguinity and Affinity of the Human Family', which distinguished classificatory from descriptive kinship terms?
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Answer C. L.H. Morgan
Lewis Henry Morgan wrote Systems of Consanguinity and Affinity of the Human Family (1871).
Source: L.H. Morgan (1871)
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In the classification of marriages given in the Manusmriti, 'Asura' marriage refers to:
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Answer A. Marriage in which the bridegroom gives wealth to the bride's kin and to the bride
Asura, the fifth form, is marriage after the bridegroom gives as much wealth as he can to the bride's kinsmen and the bride.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part 1 ch.3 (Kinship, Caste and Class), p.58 (Source 3); Manusmriti III
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Consider the following statements :
I. W.P. Scott defined divorce as 'an institutionalised arrangement for terminating the marriage relationship and allowing each partner the right to remarry'.
II. The first legislation in respect of the dissolution of marriage in India was enacted in 1869, and is 'Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act'.
III. The irresponsible departure from the home on the part of husband, leaving the family to fend for itself is called as 'the poor man's divorce'.
Which of the above given statements are correct ?
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Answer C. I and III only
Scott's definition of divorce and the description of desertion as 'the poor man's divorce' are both standard. Statement II mixes two laws: the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act dates from 1865, while 1869 is the Indian (Christian) Divorce Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q65, final key
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Ravindra and Seema are husband and wife. Krishna and Madhavi are children of Ravindra-Seema. Madhavi is married to Harish and Jyothi is the daughter of Madhavi-Harish. Then the Consanguineous Kinship is between :
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Answer C. Krishna and Jyothi
Consanguineous kin are related by blood. Krishna is Madhavi's sibling and so Jyothi's maternal uncle/aunt by blood; the other pairs are related through marriage (affinal kinship).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q66, final key
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A consensual and informal relationship practised in accordance to matrilineal laws of Kerala that prevailed among Namboothiris and Nairs is known as :
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Answer A. Sambandham
Sambandham was the informal union between Nair women and (often Namboothiri) men under the matrilineal marumakkathayam system; the children belonged to the mother's taravad.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q85, final key
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Recently the Delhi High Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a provision of the Hindu Marriage Act which 'prohibits marriage between people who are related to each other through ancestors from their parent's side unless their customs allow them to do so'. The said provision was mentioned in which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act ?
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Answer B. Section 5(v)
Section 5(v) of the Hindu Marriage Act bars marriage between sapindas unless custom permits; the Delhi High Court upheld it in January 2024.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q86, final key
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Which of the following was the custom practised during the ancient period that allows married women to cohabit with a designated male for the sole purpose of procreating a child if her husband was impotent or had died ?
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Answer D. Niyoga
Niyoga allowed a widow or the wife of an impotent man to bear a child by an appointed man, usually a kinsman of the husband.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q88, final key
6.11Social issues: communalism, regionalism, povertyNotes
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Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:
I. It is provided for under Article 263 of the Constitution.
II. It was first set up in 1990 by a Presidential order, following the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation.
III. It is chaired by the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is incorrect: the Inter-State Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is provided for under Article 263 and was first set up in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice.
Source: Constitution of India; ref__5. Polity
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In which case (2011) did the Supreme Court declare unconstitutional the practice of arming tribal youth as Special Police Officers (as under 'Salwa Judum') in Chhattisgarh?
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Answer B. Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh
In Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh (2011) the Court held the use of tribal youth as SPOs in counter-insurgency unconstitutional.
Source: Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh (2011)
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Who defined 'Communalism as the political assertiveness of a community to maintain its identity in a plural society undergoing modernization' ?
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Answer D. Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe
Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe described communalism as a community's political assertiveness to keep its identity within a modernising plural society.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q76, final key
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Consider the following statements about the Assam Movement :
I. The Assam Movement led by All Assam Students' Union (AASU) was started in the year 1983.
II. The objective of the Assam Movement is to identify the migrant people, protect and provide constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards to the Bangladeshi Migrants in Assam.
III. The Assam Movement was officially ended on 15th August, 1989 after coming to an understanding with the Government of India which found official expression in the Memorandum of Understanding popularly known as the Assam Accord.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
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Answer D. None of the above
The AASU-led agitation began in 1979, sought to detect and deport illegal migrants and to safeguard the Assamese people (not the migrants), and ended with the Assam Accord of 15 August 1985. All three statements are wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q80, final key
6.9Children, youth & elderlyNotes
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The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Act, 2021 gave the power to issue adoption orders to the:
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Answer D. District Magistrate, including the Additional District Magistrate
The 2021 amendment moved adoption orders from courts to the District Magistrate, including the Additional District Magistrate.
Source: Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Act, 2021
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Under Section 4 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, a Juvenile Justice Board consists of:
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Answer D. A Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class and two social workers, at least one of whom is a woman
A Board has a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class and two social workers, at least one of them a woman.
Source: Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, s.4
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To eradicate child marriages, a unique data driven approach like ALIVA is adopted by :
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Answer C. Nayagarh district of Odisha
ALIVA is a data-driven initiative of the Nayagarh district administration in Odisha that tracks adolescent girls to prevent child marriage; it won the PM's award for excellence in public administration.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q61, final key
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The online portal developed by the Government of India for effective enforcement of the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, (which was amended in 2016), is :
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Answer D. PENCIL
PENCIL (Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour), launched in 2017 by the Labour Ministry, supports enforcement of the amended child labour law.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q64, final key
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Consider the following statements regarding the PM CARES for Children Scheme :
I. The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11th March, 2020 for children who have lost their parents due to COVID-19 pandemic.
II. The PM CARES for Children Scheme inter-alia provides support to children through convergent approach, gap funding for ensuring education, health, monthly stipend from the age of 14 years and the child receives a lump sum amount of ₹ 10 lakhs on attaining the age of 18 years.
III. The children who have lost their legal guardian, adoptive parents or single adoptive parent due to COVID-19 pandemic are also entitled to benefits under the scheme.
Which of the above given statements are incorrect ?
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Answer A. I and II only
The scheme was announced on 29 May 2021 (11 March 2020 is when WHO declared the pandemic); it gives a monthly stipend from 18 years and ₹10 lakh at 23 years. It does cover children who lost legal guardians or adoptive parents, so only I and II are incorrect.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q81, final key
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A Centrally sponsored scheme that aims to achieve the objectives of child protection, happy childhood and development under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is :
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Answer D. Mission Vatsalya
Mission Vatsalya (formerly the Child Protection Services scheme) is the centrally sponsored scheme for child protection and welfare aligned with the SDGs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q87, final key
6.10Disability & vulnerable groupsNotes
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The National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (NIEPID) is located at:
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Answer A. Secunderabad
NIEPID is located at Secunderabad.
Source: DEPwD Annual Report (National Institutes)
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India's first high-tech sports training centre for Divyangjan, 'The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Training Centre for Disability Sports' inaugurated on 2nd October, 2023 is located at :
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Answer B. Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh
The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Centre for Disability Sports in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, was inaugurated in October 2023 as India's first such centre for para-athletes.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q71, final key
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Identify the country with which the Union Cabinet of India has approved signing of Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for co-operation in disability sector that benefits the persons with disabilities (PwDs) ?
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Answer A. South Africa
In 2023 the Union Cabinet approved an MoU between India's Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities and South Africa for cooperation in the disability sector.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q84, final key
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