Free mock test · Group 2
APPSC G2 Prelims Mock 1 with answers
- 150 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
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Topics in this test (8)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Ancient & Medieval India
Who was the last ruler of the Delhi Sultanate?
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Answer B. Ibrahim Lodi
Ibrahim Lodi was the last Sultan of Delhi; his defeat at Panipat in 1526 ended the Sultanate.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.4 Delhi Sultanate
- Q2 Ancient & Medieval India
Which mahajanapada became the most powerful between the sixth and the fourth centuries BCE?
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Answer D. Magadha
Magadha, in present-day Bihar, became the most powerful mahajanapada between the sixth and fourth centuries BCE.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I, Theme 2
- Q3 Ancient & Medieval India
Asoka built the Lion Capital at Sarnath to commemorate which event in the life of the Buddha?
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Answer A. The first sermon
The Sarnath Lion Capital commemorates the Buddha's first sermon (Dhammachakrapravartana) at Sarnath.
Source: NCERT Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art Part I, ch.3
- Q4 Ancient & Medieval India
Which one of the following pairs (Item - Sultan) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer A. Control of market prices - Firuz Shah Tughlaq
Control of market prices was introduced by Alauddin Khalji, not Firuz Shah Tughlaq; the other pairs are correct.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.4 Delhi Sultanate
- Q5 Ancient & Medieval India
Consider the following statements about Pataliputra:
I. It began as a village known as Pataligrama.
II. When Xuan Zang visited it in the seventh century CE, he found it in ruins with a very small population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Pataliputra began as Pataligrama and, by Xuan Zang's visit in the seventh century, it lay in ruins with a small population.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part 1 ch.2 ch.2 (towns)
- Q6 Ancient & Medieval India
Which tiny Harappan settlement, of less than 7 hectares, was almost entirely devoted to crafts such as bead-making, shell-cutting, metal-working and seal-making?
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Answer B. Chanhudaro
Chanhudaro, a settlement of less than 7 hectares, was almost exclusively devoted to craft production.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I, Theme 1; NCERT Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art Part I, ch.2
- Q7 Ancient & Medieval India
Humayun's tomb was built in the tradition known as "hasht bihisht" or "eight paradises". In this plan:
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Answer A. A central hall is surrounded by eight rooms
Hasht bihisht means a central hall surrounded by eight rooms. The four-part garden is the chahar bagh, and forty-pillared halls are called chihil sutun.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social (old ed.) ch.22
- Q8 Ancient & Medieval India
Experiments by archaeologists show that the red colour of Harappan carnelian beads was obtained by:
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Answer B. Firing the yellowish raw material at various stages
The red colour of carnelian was obtained by firing the yellowish raw material and the beads at various stages of production.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part I, Theme 1
- Q9 Ancient & Medieval India
In the Vijayanagara period, the term 'Gajapati' (lord of elephants) referred to:
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Answer C. A powerful ruling lineage of Orissa
Gajapati was the name of a powerful ruling lineage of Orissa; the Deccan Sultans were called ashvapati and the rayas narapati.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part II, Theme 7 (Vijayanagara)
- Q10 Ancient & Medieval India
Which one of the following pairs (Ruler - Event) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer C. Prithviraja III - victory over Muhammad Ghori at Tarain in 1192
Prithviraja III defeated Muhammad Ghori at Tarain in 1191 but was defeated by him there in 1192, so the 1192 victory pair is wrong; the other pairs are correct.
Source: AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies Sem-1 (2025) ch.4 Delhi Sultanate; AP SCERT Class 7 Social Studies (2020 edition)
- Q11 Ancient & Medieval India
Match List I (Land category in the Ain-i Akbari) with List II (Description):
List I
a. Polaj
b. Parauti
c. Chachar
d. Banjar
List II
I. Lying fallow for three or four years
II. Cultivated every year
III. Uncultivated for five years or more
IV. Left fallow for a short time to recover its strength
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Answer D. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
Polaj was cultivated every year, parauti rested for a time, chachar lay fallow for three or four years and banjar for five years or more.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part II, Theme 8 (Peasants, Zamindars and the State)
- Q12 Ancient & Medieval India
How do Mauryan pillars differ from the pillars of the Achaemenian (Persian) empire?
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Answer A. Mauryan pillars are rock-cut from a single stone, while Achaemenian pillars were built in pieces by a mason
Mauryan pillars are rock-cut, showing the carver's skill, whereas Achaemenian pillars were constructed in pieces by a mason.
Source: NCERT Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art Part I, ch.3
- Q13 Modern India
V.O. Chidambaram Pillai started the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 at:
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Answer C. Tuticorin
V.O. Chidambaram Pillai founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company at Tuticorin to compete with British shipping.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.30
- Q14 Modern India
In which year did the Mughal emperor appoint the East India Company as the Diwan of Bengal?
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Answer B. 1765
The Company received the Diwani of Bengal on 12 August 1765.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.3 'Ruling the Countryside'; NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History III, Theme 9 'Colonialism and the Countryside'
- Q15 Modern India
In the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency, who formed an association for widow remarriage in the 19th century?
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Answer B. Veerasalingam Pantulu
Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage in the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.7 'Women, Caste and Reform' p.93; AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies (2021) ch.19 'Social and Religious Reform Movements' p.224
- Q16 Modern India
Which one of the following did NOT take place during the Governor-Generalship of Lord Ellenborough (1842-44)?
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Answer C. First Anglo-Sikh War
Ellenborough's short tenure saw the end of the First Afghan War (troops withdrawn in 1842), the annexation of Sindh (1843) and the Gwalior war (1843). The First Anglo-Sikh War came under Hardinge I.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.144
- Q17 Modern India
Bal Gangadhar Tilak published 'Kesari' in Marathi. Which paper did he publish in English?
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Answer A. Mahratta
Tilak's English paper was the Mahratta; Kesari was in Marathi.
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.8 p.108; Modern India (reference) p.132; Modern India (reference) p.30
- Q18 Modern India
Match List I (European settlement) with List II (European power):
List I
a. Pulicat
b. Chandernagore
c. Serampore
d. Diu
List II
I. French
II. Portuguese
III. Dutch
IV. Danes
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Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Pulicat was Dutch, Chandernagore French, Serampore Danish and Diu Portuguese.
Source: Modern India (reference) ch.1
- Q19 Modern India
The Paramahansa Mandali, a secret society formed in Bombay in 1849 that asked its members to break caste rules, was founded by:
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Answer B. Dadoba Pandurang
The Paramahansa Mandali (1849) was founded by Dadoba Pandurang; it believed in one god and opposed caste rules, and was a precursor of the Prarthana Samaj.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.92
- Q20 Modern India
Arrange the following agreements in chronological order:
I. Tashkent Agreement
II. Panchsheel
III. Shimla Agreement
IV. Indus Waters Treaty
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Answer D. II, IV, I, III
The order is Panchsheel (1954), Indus Waters Treaty (1960), Tashkent Agreement (1966) and Shimla Agreement (1972).
Source: NCERT Class 12 Politics in India since Independence p.70; NCERT Class 12 Politics in India since Independence p.76; NCERT Class 12 Politics in India since Independence p.78
- Q21 Modern India
Arrange the following press laws in chronological order:
I. Vernacular Press Act
II. Metcalfe's Press Act
III. Indian Press Act
IV. Licensing Regulations of John Adam
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Answer C. IV, II, I, III
The order is Licensing Regulations (1823), Metcalfe's Act (1835), Vernacular Press Act (1878) and Indian Press Act (1910).
Source: Modern India (reference) ch.13
- Q22 Modern India
The proclamation issued in the name of Bahadur Shah in 1857 called on people to join the fight under the standards of:
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Answer C. Muhammad and Mahavir
It appealed to people to fight under the standards of both Muhammad and Mahavir, stressing Hindu-Muslim unity.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History III, Theme 11 'Rebels and the Raj'
- Q23 Modern India
At the Battle of Colachel (1741), Marthanda Varma of Travancore defeated the forces of the:
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Answer D. Dutch
Marthanda Varma of Travancore defeated the Dutch East India Company at Colachel in 1741.
Source: Modern India (reference) ch.1
- Q24 Modern India
Which commission recommended that the civil services be divided into Imperial, Provincial and Subordinate services?
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Answer A. Aitchison Commission
The Aitchison Commission (1886) under Lord Dufferin recommended the Imperial, Provincial and Subordinate classification.
Source: Modern India (reference) ch.9
- Q25 Modern India
Who persuaded Gandhi to visit Champaran in 1917 to see the plight of the indigo cultivators?
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Answer B. Rajkumar Shukla
Rajkumar Shukla, a local cultivator, persuaded Gandhi to come to Champaran.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.40
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Start free - Q26 Modern India
Sachindranath Sanyal, who wrote 'Bandi Jivan', was involved along with Rash Behari Bose in the attempt in 1912 to:
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Answer B. Throw a bomb at Viceroy Hardinge in Delhi
In the Delhi Conspiracy Case (1912), Rash Behari Bose and Sachindranath Sanyal tried to bomb Viceroy Hardinge during his state entry into Delhi. Sanyal wrote 'Bandi Jivan' in prison.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.31; Modern India (reference) p.32
- Q27 Modern India
Arrange the following treaties connected with the First Anglo-Maratha War in chronological order:
I. Treaty of Purandar
II. Treaty of Salbai
III. Treaty of Surat
IV. Treaty of Wadgaon
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Answer D. III, I, IV, II
Surat (1775), Purandar (1776), Wadgaon (1779) and Salbai (1782) is the correct sequence.
Source: Modern India (reference) ch.1
- Q28 Modern India
Consider the following reform bodies and the persons who founded or led them. Which pair is NOT correct?
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Answer A. Bharat Dharma Mahamandal : Swami Dayanand Saraswati
The Bharat Dharma Mahamandal (1902) was an all-India body of orthodox Hindus, linked with Pandit Din Dayal Sharma and Madan Mohan Malaviya, that opposed the Arya Samaj; Dayanand Saraswati had died in 1883.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.92; Modern India (reference) p.93; Modern India (reference) p.94; Modern India (reference) p.95
- Q29 Modern India
Consider the following statements about the Home Rule Leagues:
I. Tilak's league worked in Maharashtra (except Bombay city), Karnataka, the Central Provinces and Berar.
II. Annie Besant's league covered the rest of India, including Bombay city.
III. The two leagues were merged into one organisation in 1916 itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; the two leagues worked separately, dividing the country between them.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.35
- Q30 Modern India
Match the following phrases with the events they were used to describe:
List I
a. 'Himalayan blunder'
b. 'As dead as a doornail'
c. 'A post-dated cheque on a crashing bank'
d. 'Napoleon's return from Elba'
List II
I. August Offer
II. Rowlatt Satyagraha
III. Dandi March
IV. Cripps proposals
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Answer D. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Gandhi called the early launch of the Rowlatt Satyagraha a 'Himalayan blunder' (his own words were 'Himalayan miscalculation'); Nehru called the August Offer 'dead as a doornail'; Gandhi called the Cripps offer a 'post-dated cheque'; Subhas Bose compared the Dandi March to Napoleon's return from Elba.
Source: Modern India (reference) p.41; Modern India (reference) p.63; Modern India (reference) p.64; Modern India (reference) p.53
- Q31 Physical & World Geography
Match the items in List I with the descriptions in List II:
List I
a. Convectional rain
b. Orographic rain
c. Frontal (cyclonic) rain
d. Rain-shadow area
List II
I. Leeward side of a mountain that gets less rainfall
II. Saturated air forced to rise over a mountain
III. Heated air rising in convection currents, common in equatorial regions in the hotter part of the day
IV. Rain along the boundary where warm air rises over cold air
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Answer D. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
Convectional rain comes from rising heated air, orographic rain from air forced up mountains, frontal rain from fronts, and the leeward side forms the rain-shadow area.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.10 Water in the Atmosphere
- Q32 Physical & World Geography
Limestone caves that have openings at both ends are called:
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Answer A. Tunnels
Caves having openings at both ends are called tunnels.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.6
- Q33 Physical & World Geography
In limestone caves, the calcium carbonate deposits that hang from the roof like icicles are called:
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Answer B. Stalactites
Stalactites hang from cave roofs; stalagmites rise from the floor; the two fuse to form pillars.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.6
- Q34 Physical & World Geography
Which one of the following statements about cyclones is INCORRECT?
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Answer C. Tropical cyclones generally move from west to east.
Tropical cyclones move from east to west, while extra-tropical cyclones move from west to east.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.9 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems
- Q35 Physical & World Geography
Match List I with List II:
List I (Example)
a. Overburden pressure, load and shearing stress
b. Crystal growth and changes in temperature
c. Repeated wetting and drying
d. Burrowing by termites and rodents, and pressure of plant roots
List II (Type of weathering agency)
I. Water pressure in physical weathering
II. Biological weathering
III. Gravitational force in physical weathering
IV. Expansion force in physical weathering
Select the correct code:
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
NCERT groups the forces of physical weathering as gravitational forces (overburden pressure, load, shearing stress), expansion forces (temperature changes, crystal growth, animal activity) and water pressures (wetting and drying cycles). Burrowing organisms and plant roots cause biological weathering.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.5 Geomorphic Processes p.40-41
- Q36 Physical & World Geography
The largest continental shelf in the world, stretching about 1,500 km in width, is the:
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Answer D. Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean
The Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean is the largest; shelves are almost absent or very narrow off Chile and western Sumatra.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.12 Water (Oceans)
- Q37 Physical & World Geography
Match List I with List II:
List I (Process)
a. Differentiation
b. Degassing
c. Accretion
d. Photosynthesis
List II (Description)
I. Outpouring of gases from the earth's interior
II. Change in the composition of the atmosphere by the living world
III. Separation of earth materials into layers according to density
IV. Small planetesimals combining into a few large bodies
Select the correct code:
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Answer B. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Differentiation separated earth materials into layers by density, degassing released gases from the interior, accretion joined planetesimals into planets, and photosynthesis changed the atmosphere's composition.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.2
- Q38 Physical & World Geography
According to NCERT, mixed tides (tides with variations in height) generally occur along:
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Answer C. the west coast of North America and many islands of the Pacific Ocean
NCERT states that mixed tides, which vary in height, generally occur along the west coast of North America and on many islands of the Pacific Ocean.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.13 p.110
- Q39 Physical & World Geography
Consider the following statements about the agents of erosion:
I. Wind, running water and glaciers are controlled by climatic conditions.
II. The work of waves is controlled by climate.
III. The work of groundwater is determined more by the lithological character of the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. II only
Only statement II is incorrect: the work of waves is not controlled by climate; it depends on location along the coast.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography ch.5
- Q40 Indian Geography
According to Census 2011, which state had the highest sex ratio?
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Answer C. Kerala
Kerala had the highest sex ratio in 2011, 1,084 females per 1,000 males.
Source: Indian Geography (reference) ch.8 Population and Settlements; Census of India 2011
- Q41 Indian Geography
Asia's first cross-country oil pipeline, built by Oil India Limited, linked:
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Answer C. Naharkatiya and Barauni
Oil India Limited built Asia's first cross-country pipeline (1,157 km) from Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.7 Transport and Communication; Indian Geography (reference) ch.7 Trade, Transport and Communication
- Q42 Indian Geography
Match the Census 2011 features with the states:
List I
a. Highest density of population
b. Lowest density of population
c. Lowest sex ratio
d. Most urbanised state
List II
I. Haryana
II. Goa
III. Arunachal Pradesh
IV. Bihar
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
Bihar had the highest density, Arunachal Pradesh the lowest, Haryana the lowest sex ratio (879) and Goa was the most urbanised state.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.1 Population and ch.2 Human Settlements; Indian Geography (reference) ch.8 Population and Settlements
- Q43 Indian Geography
According to Census 2011, which Union Territory had the lowest density of population?
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Answer D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands had the lowest density among Union Territories, 46 persons per sq km.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy Appendix (i)
- Q44 Indian Geography
Match the towns with their type of origin:
List I
a. Post-Independence administrative capital
b. Post-Independence industrial centre
c. Satellite town of Delhi
d. Industrial town developed after 1850
List II
I. Gurugram
II. Jamshedpur
III. Dispur
IV. Durgapur
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Dispur is a post-Independence administrative capital, Durgapur a post-Independence industrial centre, Gurugram a satellite town of Delhi and Jamshedpur an industrial town that grew after 1850.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.1 Population and ch.2 Human Settlements
- Q45 Indian Geography
Rice cultivation in the irrigated areas of Punjab and Haryana, which are not traditional rice-growing areas, was introduced in the:
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Answer C. 1970s
Rice in irrigated Punjab and Haryana was introduced in the 1970s, following the Green Revolution.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India People and Economy ch.3 Land Resources and Agriculture
- Q46 Indian Geography
Which coarse cereal has the highest yield level in India?
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Answer D. Maize
The yield level of maize is higher than that of other coarse cereals; it is high in the southern states and declines towards central India.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy ch.3 (Maize)
- Q47 Indian Geography
To speed up mail delivery in large towns and cities, India Post introduced six mail channels. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Answer C. Express Channel
The six mail channels are Rajdhani, Metro, Green, Business, Bulk Mail and Periodical; there is no 'Express Channel'.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.7 Lifelines of National Economy
- Q48 Indian Geography
Arrange the following stages of soil erosion by water in the correct sequence:
I. Rill erosion
II. Splash erosion
III. Gully erosion
IV. Sheet erosion
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Answer D. II, IV, I, III
Water erosion begins with raindrop splash, then sheet flow, then rills, which develop into gullies.
Source: Indian Geography (reference) ch.5 Soils and Natural Vegetation
- Q49 Indian Geography
According to NFHS-5 (2019-21), India's total fertility rate (TFR) was:
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Answer B. 2.0
NFHS-5 (2019-21) reported a national TFR of 2.0, just below the replacement level of 2.1.
Source: Indian Geography (reference) ch.8 Population and Settlements; NFHS-5 India Fact Sheet 2019-21
- Q50 Indian Geography
Match the steel plants in List I with the places where they are located in List II:
List I (Steel plant)
a. IISCO
b. Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Ltd (VISL)
c. Bokaro Steel Plant
d. Salem Steel Plant
List II (Location)
I. Tamil Nadu
II. Burnpur and Kulti, West Bengal
III. Bhadravati, Karnataka
IV. Jharkhand
Select the correct code:
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Answer D. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
IISCO is at Burnpur and Kulti in West Bengal, VISL at Bhadravati in Karnataka, Bokaro in Jharkhand and the Salem plant in Tamil Nadu.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Contemporary India II ch.6 (Manufacturing Industries)
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Start free - Q51 Indian Geography
Match the railway sites with the year in which they were placed on the UNESCO World Heritage List:
List I
a. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
b. Nilgiri Mountain Railway
c. Kalka-Shimla Railway
d. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus
List II
I. 2008
II. 1999
III. 2004
IV. 2005
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Answer D. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway was listed in 1999, extended to the Nilgiri Mountain Railway in 2005 and the Kalka-Shimla Railway in 2008; CSMT Mumbai was listed in 2004.
Source: Indian Geography (reference) ch.7 Trade, Transport and Communication
- Q52 Indian Geography
Consider the following statements about road transport in India:
I. About 85 per cent of passenger traffic and 70 per cent of freight traffic are carried by roads every year.
II. National Highways form about 20 per cent of the total road length and carry 40 per cent of the road traffic.
III. After Independence, a twenty-year road plan was introduced in 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. II only
Only statement II is incorrect. National Highways form only about 2 per cent of the total road length, though they carry about 40 per cent of road traffic.
Source: NCERT Class 12 India: People and Economy ch.7 (Transport and Communication)
- Q53 Indian Geography
The classification of social forestry into urban forestry, rural forestry and farm forestry was made by the:
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Answer C. National Commission on Agriculture (1976)
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) classified social forestry into urban, rural and farm forestry.
Source: Indian Geography (reference) ch.5 Soils and Natural Vegetation
- Q54 Indian Geography
Match List I with List II:
List I (Peak)
a. Saddle Peak
b. Mount Diavolo
c. Mount Koyob
d. Mount Thuiller
List II (Island)
I. Great Nicobar
II. South Andaman
III. North Andaman
IV. Middle Andaman
Select the correct code:
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Saddle Peak is in North Andaman, Mount Diavolo in Middle Andaman, Mount Koyob in South Andaman and Mount Thuiller in Great Nicobar.
Source: NCERT Class 11 India: Physical Environment ch.2 (Structure and Physiography)
- Q55 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the minerals in List I with the erstwhile districts of Andhra Pradesh in List II:
List I
a. Mica
b. Asbestos
c. Manganese
d. Bauxite
List II
I. Vizianagaram
II. Visakhapatnam (agency area)
III. SPSR Nellore
IV. YSR Kadapa
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Mica comes from Nellore, asbestos from YSR Kadapa (Pulivendula), manganese from Vizianagaram (Garividi) and bauxite from the Visakhapatnam agency.
Source: Reference: Indian Geography (minerals and energy) p.70; APPSC G2 2024 pattern
- Q56 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the minerals in List I with their uses in List II, as given in the AP SCERT text:
List I
a. Feldspar
b. Asbestos
c. Chrome
d. Barytes
List II
I. Source of barium
II. Glass and ceramic ware
III. Stainless steel
IV. Heat-resistant roofing sheets
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Answer B. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
Feldspar is used for glass and ceramics, asbestos for heat-resistant roofing, chrome for stainless steel and barytes as a source of barium.
Source: AP SCERT Class 8 Social Studies p.72
- Q57 Andhra Pradesh Geography
National Waterway-4 includes stretches of which two rivers along with the Kakinada-Puducherry canal?
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Answer C. Godavari and Krishna
NW-4 combines the Kakinada-Puducherry canal with stretches of the Godavari and the Krishna.
Source: National Waterways Act 2016 Schedule; Reference: Indian Geography p.77
- Q58 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the minerals in List I with the places in Andhra Pradesh in List II:
List I
a. Barytes
b. Uranium
c. Manganese
d. Galaxy granite
List II
I. Garividi
II. Chimakurthy
III. Mangampeta
IV. Tummalapalle
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Answer B. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Barytes is mined at Mangampeta, uranium at Tummalapalle, manganese around Garividi and galaxy granite at Chimakurthy.
Source: Reference: Indian Geography (minerals and energy) p.77; APPSC G2 2024 pattern
- Q59 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the places in List I with the crafts in List II:
List I
a. Srikalahasti
b. Machilipatnam (Pedana)
c. Narsapur
d. Nimmalakunta
List II
I. Leather puppets
II. Crochet lace
III. Pen-drawn (freehand) Kalamkari
IV. Block-printed Kalamkari
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
Srikalahasti Kalamkari is drawn freehand with a pen, Machilipatnam Kalamkari is block-printed, Narsapur is known for crochet lace and Nimmalakunta for leather puppets.
Source: AP Handlooms & Textiles Dept, ODOP GI Tagged Products list
- Q60 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the industrial locations in List I with the erstwhile districts in List II:
List I
a. Orvakal
b. Kopparthi
c. Sri City
d. Erramanchi (Kia plant)
List II
I. Chittoor
II. Anantapur
III. Kurnool
IV. YSR Kadapa
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Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Orvakal is in Kurnool, Kopparthi in YSR Kadapa, Sri City in erstwhile Chittoor and the Kia plant at Erramanchi (Penukonda) in Anantapur.
Source: PIB 28 Aug 2024 (12 industrial smart cities); AP industrial data
- Q61 Indian Society
'Equal pay for equal work for both men and women' is a Directive Principle under:
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Answer B. Article 39(d)
Art. 39(d) directs equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 39
- Q62 Indian Society
The Vishaka guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997 deal with:
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Answer A. prevention of sexual harassment of women at the workplace
Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan laid down these guidelines.
Source: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997)
- Q63 Indian Society
The Jain practice of voluntarily fasting unto death is known as:
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Answer B. Sallekhana
Sallekhana (also called Santhara) is the Jain vow of voluntary fasting unto death.
Source: Standard references on Jainism
- Q64 Indian Society
In the Munda movement led by Birsa, the term 'dikus' referred to:
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Answer B. outsiders such as traders, moneylenders and landlords
Birsa sought to free his people from the dikus (outsiders).
Source: NCERT Class 8 Our Pasts III ch.4
- Q65 Indian Society
According to Census 2011, which State had the highest sex ratio (females per 1,000 males)?
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Answer B. Kerala
Kerala recorded 1,084 females per 1,000 males.
Source: Census of India 2011
- Q66 Indian Society
'Caste and Race in India' (1932), which listed six main features of the caste system, was written by:
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Answer A. G.S. Ghurye
G.S. Ghurye's Caste and Race in India (1932) set out six features of caste.
Source: Ghurye, Caste and Race in India (1932)
- Q67 Indian Society
The Sanskrit word 'varna', used for the four orders of Brahmanical society, literally means:
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Answer A. Colour
'Varna' literally means colour; 'jati' is the term linked with birth.
Source: Monier-Williams, Sanskrit-English Dictionary, 'varna'
- Q68 Indian Society
Under the National Food Security Act, 2013, how much food grain is an Antyodaya Anna Yojana household entitled to per month?
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Answer C. 35 kg per household
Under NFSA 2013 an AAY household gets 35 kg of food grains per month.
Source: National Food Security Act 2013 s.3; AP SCERT Class 9 Economics ch. Food Security
- Q69 Indian Society
Which one of the following powers is NOT given to Gram Sabhas or Panchayats in Scheduled Areas by the PESA Act, 1996?
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Answer C. Grant of mining leases for major minerals
PESA covers only recommendations for minor minerals; major mineral leases are outside it.
Source: PESA Act 1996, s.4
- Q70 Indian Society
The SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2015 provided for which courts for the speedy trial of offences under the Act?
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Answer B. Exclusive Special Courts
The 2015 amendment substituted Section 14 to provide Exclusive Special Courts for one or more districts, with Exclusive Special Public Prosecutors.
Source: Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
- Q71 Indian Society
Among the Nairs of Kerala, the ritual in which a 'tali' was tied on girls before puberty, separate from their later sambandham union, was called:
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Answer A. Talikettu kalyanam
Talikettu kalyanam was the pre-puberty tali-tying rite of Nair girls.
Source: Gough (1959); Kapadia (1955)
- Q72 Indian Society
Caste-wise population data for all castes were last published from which Census of India?
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Answer B. 1931
The 1931 Census was the last whose caste data for all castes were published; censuses after Independence counted only SCs and STs.
Source: Census of India 1931; NCERT Class 10 Democratic Politics II ch.3
- Q73 Indian Society
Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:
I. It is provided for under Article 263 of the Constitution.
II. It was first set up in 1990 by a Presidential order, following the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation.
III. It is chaired by the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is incorrect: the Inter-State Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is provided for under Article 263 and was first set up in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice.
Source: Constitution of India; ref__5. Polity
- Q74 Indian Society
Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule exist in ten States (as of 2024). Which one of the following States does NOT have any Scheduled Area?
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Answer A. Kerala
Kerala is not among the ten States having Fifth Schedule Areas.
Source: Constitution, Fifth Schedule; Scheduled Areas orders (as of 2024)
- Q75 Indian Society
In Emile Durkheim's definition, religion is a unified system of beliefs and practices relative to sacred things, which unite all who adhere to them into one single moral community called a:
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Answer D. Church
Durkheim defined religion as beliefs and practices relative to sacred things that unite adherents into one moral community called a Church.
Source: Emile Durkheim, The Elementary Forms of Religious Life (1912)
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75 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Indian Society
A private unaided school, which is not a minority institution, has 60 seats in Class I. Under Section 12(1)(c) of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, at least how many of these seats must go to children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups in the neighbourhood?
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Answer B. 15
Section 12(1)(c) requires at least 25% of the class strength, so 25% of 60 = 15 seats.
Source: RTE Act 2009 s.12(1)(c)
- Q77 Indian Society
Which of the following is NOT among the six features of caste listed by G.S. Ghurye?
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Answer D. Collective ownership of village land by each caste
Ghurye's six features are segmental division, hierarchy, restrictions on feeding and social intercourse, civil and religious disabilities and privileges, lack of unrestricted choice of occupation, and restrictions on marriage.
Source: Ghurye, Caste and Race in India (1932), ch.1
- Q78 Indian Society
In which case (2011) did the Supreme Court declare unconstitutional the practice of arming tribal youth as Special Police Officers (as under 'Salwa Judum') in Chhattisgarh?
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Answer B. Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh
In Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh (2011) the Court held the use of tribal youth as SPOs in counter-insurgency unconstitutional.
Source: Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh (2011)
- Q79 Indian Society
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Act, 2021 gave the power to issue adoption orders to the:
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Answer D. District Magistrate, including the Additional District Magistrate
The 2021 amendment moved adoption orders from courts to the District Magistrate, including the Additional District Magistrate.
Source: Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Act, 2021
- Q80 Indian Society
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' is dealt with in:
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Answer B. Section 80
Dowry death, formerly IPC s.304B, is s.80 of the BNS.
Source: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 s.80
- Q81 Indian Society
The National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (NIEPID) is located at:
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Answer A. Secunderabad
NIEPID is located at Secunderabad.
Source: DEPwD Annual Report (National Institutes)
- Q82 Indian Society
Which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 makes sexual intercourse by deceitful means, including a false promise of marriage, a specific offence?
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Answer A. Section 69
S.69 BNS is a new provision on this offence.
Source: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, s.69
- Q83 Indian Society
Who wrote: 'When a class is somewhat strictly hereditary, we may call it a caste'?
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Answer C. C.H. Cooley
C.H. Cooley gave this definition in 'Social Organization' (1909).
Source: Cooley, Social Organization (1909)
- Q84 Indian Society
Under Section 4 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, a Juvenile Justice Board consists of:
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Answer D. A Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class and two social workers, at least one of whom is a woman
A Board has a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class and two social workers, at least one of them a woman.
Source: Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, s.4
- Q85 Indian Society
Annual payments to the Devaswom Funds in Kerala and Tamil Nadu are provided for under which Article of the Constitution?
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Answer D. Article 290A
Article 290A provides annual payments of Rs 46.5 lakh to the Travancore Devaswom Fund and Rs 13.5 lakh to the Tamil Nadu Devaswom Fund.
Source: Constitution Art. 290A
- Q86 Indian Society
In Danial Latifi v. Union of India (2001), the Supreme Court upheld the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, holding that the husband must make a reasonable and fair provision for the divorced wife that:
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Answer A. extends to her future and must be made within the iddat period
Danial Latifi (2001) read the 1986 Act to require a reasonable and fair provision for the divorced wife's future, to be made within the iddat period, and so upheld the Act.
Source: Danial Latifi v. Union of India, (2001) 7 SCC 740
- Q87 Indian Society
Who wrote 'Systems of Consanguinity and Affinity of the Human Family', which distinguished classificatory from descriptive kinship terms?
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Answer C. L.H. Morgan
Lewis Henry Morgan wrote Systems of Consanguinity and Affinity of the Human Family (1871).
Source: L.H. Morgan (1871)
- Q88 Indian Society
Consider the following statements about Panchayats in Scheduled Areas under the PESA Act, 1996:
I. Reservation for Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat shall not be less than one-half of the total seats.
II. All seats of chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for Scheduled Tribes.
III. The State Government may nominate persons of Scheduled Tribes that have no representation in a Panchayat at the intermediate or district level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three are in s.4(g) and s.4(h) of PESA.
Source: PESA Act 1996, s.4
- Q89 Indian Society
In the classification of marriages given in the Manusmriti, 'Asura' marriage refers to:
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Answer A. Marriage in which the bridegroom gives wealth to the bride's kin and to the bride
Asura, the fifth form, is marriage after the bridegroom gives as much wealth as he can to the bride's kinsmen and the bride.
Source: NCERT Class 12 Themes in Indian History Part 1 ch.3 (Kinship, Caste and Class), p.58 (Source 3); Manusmriti III
- Q90 Indian Society
The Hindu Women's Rights to Property Act, 1937 gave a Hindu widow:
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Answer D. a limited interest in her husband's property
The 1937 Act gave a widow a limited interest, known as the Hindu woman's estate, in her husband's property; full ownership came only with Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
Source: Hindu Women's Rights to Property Act, 1937; Hindu Succession Act, 1956
- Q91 Current Affairs
In the context of India's first non-GMO popcorn maize hybrids launched in Andhra Pradesh in 2026, consider the following statements:
I. A hybrid is produced by crossing selected parent varieties.
II. Every hybrid crop is a genetically modified organism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only I is correct. Hybridisation crosses parent varieties; it does not change genetic material by genetic engineering, so a crop can be hybrid and non-GMO.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Non-GMO Popcorn Maize Hybrid' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q92 Current Affairs
Who announced, during a visit to Tirumala in June 2026, the donation of 25 electric buses by Reliance Foundation for pilgrims?
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Answer D. Anant Ambani
Reliance Executive Director Anant Ambani announced the 25 electric buses (about Rs 27.5 crore); they were flagged off in September 2026.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Tirumala Introduces Digital Pilgrim Centre ... (The Hindu)
- Q93 Current Affairs
Which payload on EOS-06 (Oceansat-3) provides information on ocean-surface wind speed and direction?
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Answer B. Ku-band Scatterometer (SCAT-3)
The Ku-band Scatterometer (SCAT-3) measures ocean-surface wind speed and direction; OCM-3 measures ocean colour and SSTM measures surface temperature.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Oceansat-3 Tracks El Nino's Impact (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q94 Current Affairs
A 2026 report on India's first non-GMO popcorn maize hybrids noted maize's place among India's food crops. Maize is India's ___ most important food crop after rice and wheat.
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Answer B. third
Maize is India's third most important food crop, after rice and wheat.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'India's First Non-GMO High-Expansion Popcorn Maize Hybrid' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q95 Current Affairs
The Catch the Rain campaign, implemented in Nandyal district in July-August 2026, follows which principle?
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Answer B. Catch the Rain, Where it Falls, When it Falls
The campaign follows the principle 'Catch the Rain, Where it Falls, When it Falls'.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Catch the Rain Campaign in Nandyal' (source: PIB)
- Q96 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about decisions of the Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams (TTD) Board in 2026:
I. A Rs 2 lakh life insurance cover was approved for pilgrims who die of natural causes in Tirumala.
II. Accidental insurance for families of devotees who die in accidents in Tirumala was raised from Rs 3 lakh to Rs 10 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct: the TTD Board approved a Rs 2 lakh life cover for natural deaths and raised accident compensation from Rs 3 lakh to Rs 10 lakh.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: TTD Insurance Cover and Biogas Plant Proposal (The Hindu; TTD Board decision)
- Q97 Current Affairs
Comparing the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita with the CrPC on police custody, consider the following statements:
I. The BNSS has raised the maximum police custody from 15 days to 30 days.
II. The default bail periods of 60 and 90 days remain the same under the BNSS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. II only
Only II is correct. The maximum police custody stays 15 days under both laws; the change is in the window within which it can be sought (the initial 40 or 60 days).
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Police Custody under BNSS' (source: The Hindu)
- Q98 Current Affairs
World Telecommunication and Information Society Day, observed on 17 May, marks the founding in 1865 of which body?
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Answer B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
World Telecommunication and Information Society Day (17 May) marks the founding of the International Telecommunication Union in 1865; the Amaravati quantum test bed was announced on this day in 2026.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Amaravati Quantum-Secure Communications Test Bed (The Hindu)
- Q99 Current Affairs
During his 2026 Singapore visit, the Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister invited Singaporean companies to invest in several sectors in the State. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Answer D. Coal mining
Coal mining was not among the sectors; the CM named food processing, electronics, semiconductors, quantum technologies, shipbuilding, civil-aviation MRO, logistics, horticulture and aquaculture.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Google to Set Up Task Force to Explore Technology Partnership with Andhra Pradesh (The Hindu)
- Q100 Current Affairs
Match the following persons in Andhra Pradesh news of May 2026 with their description:
List I
a. Garimella Balakrishna Prasad
b. Vempaty Kutumba Sastry
c. Kandula Durgesh
d. Kinjarapu Ram Mohan Naidu
List II
I. Union Minister of Civil Aviation
II. Padma Shri (posthumous) for devotional music
III. Andhra Pradesh Minister for Tourism
IV. Padma Shri for Sanskrit scholarship
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Answer C. a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
Garimella Balakrishna Prasad (posthumous) was honoured for devotional music and Vempaty Kutumba Sastry for Sanskrit scholarship; Kandula Durgesh is AP Tourism Minister and Kinjarapu Ram Mohan Naidu is Union Civil Aviation Minister.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: AP Duo to Receive Padma Shri Awards 2026 (Deccan Chronicle); Andhra Pradesh Named 'Best Tourism Promotion State' at GTM Tourism Awards 2026 (Deccan Chronicle); India's First Indigenous Super Pressure Balloon Launched from Vijayawada (Deccan Chronicle)
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Start free - Q101 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the work of Andhra Pradesh's Society for Social Audit, Accountability and Transparency (SSAAT), which won the SKOCH Gold Award in 2026:
I. Social audit findings are presented before Gram Sabhas and public hearings.
II. Public proceedings of social audits are livestreamed.
III. Like a financial audit, its social audit mainly examines accounts and expenditure rather than people's participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct; a social audit, unlike a financial audit, focuses on people's participation and the actual delivery of services.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Andhra Pradesh Social Audit Body Wins SKOCH Gold Award (The Hindu, SKOCH Group)
- Q102 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about Japan's Specified Skilled Worker (SSW) system, under which Andhra Pradesh youth are to be placed in Japan (2026):
I. Japan introduced the SSW system in 2019 to address labour shortages.
II. The SSW system is another name for Japan's older Technical Intern Training Programme (TITP).
III. Workers under SSW must pass skill proficiency and Japanese language tests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. SSW was introduced in 2019 and requires skill and Japanese language tests; it is distinct from, and less restrictive than, the older TITP.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Japan Skill Mobility Partnership: Andhra Pradesh Youth in Japan's Automobile Manufacturing Sector (The Hindu)
- Q103 Current Affairs
Which one of the following statements about 'Operation Clean Sweep' in Andhra Pradesh (2026) is NOT correct?
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Answer D. Its first week focuses on source segregation and bulk waste generators.
Week 1 of Operation Clean Sweep targets garbage black spots; source segregation and bulk waste generators are covered in Week 3. The drive covers all 123 ULBs from 23 May to 20 June 2026 under SASA.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Operation Clean Sweep in Andhra Pradesh (The Hindu)
- Q104 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the SKOCH award won by Andhra Pradesh's Society for Social Audit, Accountability and Transparency (SSAAT) in 2026:
I. SSAAT became the first State Social Audit Organisation in India to receive the SKOCH Gold Award.
II. The award was presented at the 109th SKOCH Summit at the India Habitat Centre, New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both statements are correct: SSAAT is the first State Social Audit Organisation to win the SKOCH Gold Award, received at the 109th SKOCH Summit in New Delhi.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: AP Social Audit Body Wins SKOCH Gold Award (The Hindu; SKOCH Group)
- Q105 Current Affairs
Tekkali, where an Odia inscription naming 'Pratapa Kapileswara' was traced in 2026, was formerly an ancient Odia zamindari of:
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Answer D. Ganjam
Tekkali was formerly an Odia zamindari of Ganjam and was later separated from Odisha when the separate State of Odisha was formed.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Odia Inscription of the Gajapati Era Found at Tekkali' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q106 Current Affairs
Japan's major automobile manufacturing region, where Toyota Motor Corporation has its headquarters in Toyota City, lies in which prefecture?
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Answer D. Aichi
Aichi Prefecture is Japan's major automobile manufacturing region and Toyota Motor Corporation is headquartered in Toyota City, Aichi.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Japan Skill Mobility Partnership: Andhra Pradesh Youth in Japan's Automobile Manufacturing Sector (The Hindu)
- Q107 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about storage capacity created under the Catch the Rain campaign in Nandyal district (2026):
I. Restoration of feeder channels and water structures is estimated to restore 3.27 TMC of tank storage.
II. Newly created water conservation structures add about 3 TMC of storage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Restoration adds 3.27 TMC; new structures add only 0.03 TMC.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Catch the Rain Campaign in Nandyal' (source: PIB)
- Q108 Current Affairs
Andhra Pradesh challenged which Karnataka project in the Supreme Court in 2023, arguing that it may intercept Tungabhadra water upstream of the dam?
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Answer D. Upper Bhadra project
Andhra Pradesh challenged Karnataka's Upper Bhadra lift-irrigation project, saying it may cut supplies to Anantapur, Kadapa and Kurnool.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Tungabhadra River: Course, Dam Project and Inter-State Water Sharing (The Hindu); origin: KWDT award / Tungabhadra Board
- Q109 Current Affairs
Which one of the following statements about the Talliki Vandanam scheme 2026 is NOT correct?
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Answer C. Students admitted to Polytechnic institutions are covered.
ITI and Polytechnic students are excluded from the scheme.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Talliki Vandanam Scheme 2026' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q110 Current Affairs
Match the following Andhra Pradesh irrigation works with their target completion time announced in 2026:
List I
a. Veligonda Phase-I
b. Handri-Neeva Sujala Sravanthi Phase-II
c. Polavaram Left Main Canal water supply to North Andhra
d. Polavaram Project
List II
I. July 2026
II. August 2026
III. October 2026
IV. June-July 2027
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Answer D. a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
Veligonda Phase-I is targeted for August 2026, HNSS Phase-II for October 2026, Polavaram Left Main Canal supply to North Andhra for July 2026 and the Polavaram Project for June-July 2027.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: A.P. Sets Timeline for 36 Irrigation Projects by 2028 (The Hindu)
- Q111 Current Affairs
Andhra Pradesh cited demographic data in May 2026 for its third and fourth child incentive proposal. Which one of the following is NOT correct as per that data?
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Answer A. The working-age population share is expected to rise from 57% to 62.9%.
The working-age population share is expected to fall from 62.9% to 57%, not rise. The fertility rate is about 1.5 (1.2 by 2040), 48.7% of couples opt for one child and about 11.5 lakh couples face childlessness.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: AP Plans Cash Incentives for Third and Fourth Child (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q112 Current Affairs
Under Swachh Andhra–Swarna Andhra, the Chief Minister laid foundation stones for two waste-to-energy plants in 2026. Consider the following statements:
I. The two plants are at Kadapa and Kurnool.
II. Their combined capacity is 15 MW.
III. The State plans to set up twelve such plants in all.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is incorrect: the State plans eight waste-to-energy plants; the Kadapa and Kurnool plants have a combined 15 MW at ₹330 crore.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Andhra Pradesh Pushes Natural Farming and Farmer Welfare through Rs 3,125-Crore Support (Deccan Chronicle); origin: AP Government
- Q113 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister's 2026 Singapore visit:
I. YCH Logistics Group discussed setting up logistics parks and a supply-chain city in Andhra Pradesh.
II. The National University of Singapore was invited to set up a branch or satellite campus in Visakhapatnam.
III. UN-Habitat was invited to establish a Centre of Excellence in Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
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Answer B. II only
Only statement II is incorrect: NUS was invited to set up a branch or satellite campus in Amaravati, not Visakhapatnam.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Jun 2026: Google to Set Up Task Force to Explore Technology Partnership with Andhra Pradesh (The Hindu)
- Q114 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the digital trade corridor proposed by Andhra Pradesh to Singapore in May 2026:
I. It is proposed as a pilot between Singapore and the Visakhapatnam or Krishnapatnam seaport.
II. It would use the blockchain platform of the Singapore Commodities Intelligence Centre.
III. It aims at paperless trade and greater cargo transparency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct. The pilot corridor links Singapore with Visakhapatnam or Krishnapatnam seaport on the CIC blockchain platform for paperless, transparent trade.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest May 2026: Andhra Pradesh-Singapore Cooperation: Digital Trade Corridor, Amaravati Economic Region and MICE Vision (The Hindu)
- Q115 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the Catch the Rain campaign in Nandyal district in 2026, as reported by PIB:
I. It ran from 4 July to 4 August 2026.
II. Scientific planning was carried out across all 489 Gram Panchayats of the district.
III. The district grounded 2,103 water conservation works, achieving 100% grounding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I, II and III
All three are reported by PIB.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Catch the Rain Campaign in Nandyal' (source: PIB)
- Q116 Current Affairs
Match the Telugu film (List I) with the award it won at the 72nd National Film Awards (List II):
List I
a. Kalki 2898 AD
b. Pushpa 2
c. 35 Chinna Katha Kaadu
d. Lucky Baskhar
List II
I. Best Original Screenplay
II. Best Dialogues
III. Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment
IV. Best Children's Film
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Answer D. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Kalki - Best Popular Film; Pushpa 2 - Best Original Screenplay; 35 Chinna Katha Kaadu - Best Children's Film; Lucky Baskhar - Best Dialogues.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Telugu Cinema at the 72nd National Film Awards' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q117 Current Affairs
As highlighted by the ASI in 2026, the 10th-century Ederu copper-plate inscription records the name of Guntur as:
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Answer C. Gomturu
The Ederu plates record the name as Gomturu, a form used from the 10th to the 14th century. The name evolved from Kunturu to Gomturu to Gunturu.
Source: APPSC CA digest Aug 2026, 'Seventh-Century Inscription: Antiquity of Guntur' (source: The Hindu)
- Q118 Current Affairs
In 2026, Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited signed an MoU to set up a greenfield merchant shipyard at Dugarajapatnam. Dugarajapatnam is in which district?
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Answer C. Tirupati
Dugarajapatnam is in Tirupati district, where MDL plans an approximately Rs 15,000-crore merchant shipyard.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: Mazagon Dock ... Dugarajapatnam (The Hindu)
- Q119 Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about Andhra Pradesh's tribal policy (2026):
I. The State has an agreement with IIT Madras to improve tribal education and provide coaching for examinations such as IIT and NEET.
II. G.O. 3, which reserved jobs in tribal areas for local candidates, was annulled by the Andhra Pradesh High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct: G.O. 3 was annulled by the Supreme Court, not the High Court, and the State plans a legally acceptable alternative.
Source: KP's 21st Century IAS Academy CA digest Sep 2026: AP's Integrated Strategy for Tribal Development (Deccan Chronicle)
- Q120 Current Affairs
As of 28 February 2026, how many notified Special Economic Zones (SEZs) did India have?
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Answer B. 368
India had 368 notified SEZs as of 28 February 2026 under the SEZ Act, 2005.
Source: APPSC CA digest Jul 2026, 'Kakinada Special Economic Zone: Renewed Push' (source: Deccan Chronicle)
- Q121 Mental Ability
Seven candidates, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, sit in a straight row facing South while waiting for an interview in Tirupati. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. P sits immediately to the right of V. S sits at one of the ends of the row. Exactly two candidates sit between R and T. Q is an immediate neighbour of S. R sits somewhere to the right of T.
Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
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Answer B. S
Facing South, right = West. V is seat 4 (West to East), so P is seat 3. If S were at the West end (1), Q would be 2 and R, T would need two of seats 5, 6, 7 three apart, which is impossible; so S is at the East end (7) and Q = 6. R and T take seats 2 and 5, and R is to the right (West) of T, so R = 2, T = 5 and U = 1. Seats from West to East: U, R, P, V, T, Q, S (everyone faces South, so each person's right is towards the West).
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q122 Mental Ability
Seven candidates, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, sit in a straight row facing South while waiting for an interview in Tirupati. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. P sits immediately to the right of V. S sits at one of the ends of the row. Exactly two candidates sit between R and T. Q is an immediate neighbour of S. R sits somewhere to the right of T.
Who sits third to the right of T?
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Answer B. R
Seats from West to East: U, R, P, V, T, Q, S (everyone faces South, so each person's right is towards the West). From T (seat 5), moving West: V (4), P (3), R (2). So R is third to the right of T.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q123 Mental Ability
Seven candidates, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, sit in a straight row facing South while waiting for an interview in Tirupati. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. P sits immediately to the right of V. S sits at one of the ends of the row. Exactly two candidates sit between R and T. Q is an immediate neighbour of S. R sits somewhere to the right of T.
How many candidates sit between U and Q?
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Answer C. 4
Seats from West to East: U, R, P, V, T, Q, S (everyone faces South, so each person's right is towards the West). U is in seat 1 and Q in seat 6, so 6 - 1 - 1 = 4 candidates sit between them.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q124 Mental Ability
Eight friends, Kiran, Latha, Mohan, Naveen, Ravi, Sita, Teja and Usha, sit around a circular table in a Nellore restaurant, all facing the centre. Kiran sits third to the left of Mohan. Latha sits opposite Kiran. Naveen sits immediately to the right of Latha. Usha is not an immediate neighbour of Mohan or of Kiran. Sita sits opposite Usha. Teja sits second to the left of Ravi.
Who sits immediately to the left of Kiran?
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Answer A. Teja
Facing the centre, left = clockwise. Place Kiran; Mohan is 3 seats anticlockwise, Latha opposite Kiran and Naveen just anticlockwise of Latha. Usha must avoid Mohan's and Kiran's neighbours, leaving one seat; Sita is opposite her; Teja and Ravi take the last two seats with Teja two seats clockwise of Ravi. Clockwise (towards each person's left) from Kiran: Kiran, Teja, Usha, Naveen, Latha, Mohan, Sita, Ravi.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q125 Mental Ability
Eight friends, Kiran, Latha, Mohan, Naveen, Ravi, Sita, Teja and Usha, sit around a circular table in a Nellore restaurant, all facing the centre. Kiran sits third to the left of Mohan. Latha sits opposite Kiran. Naveen sits immediately to the right of Latha. Usha is not an immediate neighbour of Mohan or of Kiran. Sita sits opposite Usha. Teja sits second to the left of Ravi.
Who sits opposite Naveen?
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Answer D. Ravi
Clockwise (towards each person's left) from Kiran: Kiran, Teja, Usha, Naveen, Latha, Mohan, Sita, Ravi. Opposite pairs: Kiran-Latha, Teja-Mohan, Usha-Sita, Naveen-Ravi.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
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Start free - Q126 Mental Ability
Eight friends, Kiran, Latha, Mohan, Naveen, Ravi, Sita, Teja and Usha, sit around a circular table in a Nellore restaurant, all facing the centre. Kiran sits third to the left of Mohan. Latha sits opposite Kiran. Naveen sits immediately to the right of Latha. Usha is not an immediate neighbour of Mohan or of Kiran. Sita sits opposite Usha. Teja sits second to the left of Ravi.
Counting from Usha towards her left, how many persons sit between Usha and Mohan?
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Answer C. 2
Clockwise (towards each person's left) from Kiran: Kiran, Teja, Usha, Naveen, Latha, Mohan, Sita, Ravi. From Usha going clockwise (her left): Naveen, Latha, Mohan. So two persons sit between them on that side (and four on the other side).
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q127 Mental Ability
A father's age is four times his son's age. After 5 years, the father's age will be three times the son's age. What is the son's present age?
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Answer C. 10 years
Let the son be s. 4s + 5 = 3(s + 5), so 4s + 5 = 3s + 15 and s = 10 years (father 40).
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q128 Mental Ability
Number of tourists (in thousands) who visited Araku Valley in three years (hypothetical data): 2021 - 40, 2022 - 55, 2023 - 66. What was the percentage increase in tourists from 2022 to 2023?
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Answer A. 20%
Increase = 66 - 55 = 11 thousand; percentage increase = 11/55 x 100 = 20%.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q129 Mental Ability
Find the next term in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?
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Answer A. 56
Terms are 1x2, 2x3, 3x4, 4x5, 5x6, 6x7; the next is 7x8 = 56 (differences 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14).
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q130 Mental Ability
How many multiples of 7 lie strictly between 100 and 300?
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Answer A. 28
The first multiple after 100 is 105 = 7 x 15 and the last before 300 is 294 = 7 x 42. Count = 42 - 15 + 1 = 28.
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
- Q131 Mental Ability
As the Sun sets one evening, Ramu stands looking straight at it. He then makes a quarter turn (90°) to his left, followed by a 135° turn in the clockwise sense. Which way is he looking now?
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Answer A. North-West
Facing the setting Sun means facing West (270°). A left turn of 90° gives South (180°). Then 135° clockwise: 180 + 135 = 315°, which is North-West.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q132 Mental Ability
A sum is lent at simple interest for 4 years. Had it been lent at a rate 3% per annum higher, it would have earned Rs 1,080 more. What is the sum?
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Answer C. Rs 9,000
Extra interest = P x 3 x 4/100 = 12% of P = 1,080, so P = Rs 9,000.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q133 Mental Ability
Codes: 'P x Q' = P is the father of Q; 'P - Q' = P is the sister of Q; 'P + Q' = P is the brother of Q; 'P ÷ Q' = P is the mother of Q. Given 'A x B - C + D', what is D to A?
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Answer D. Son or daughter (the gender of D is not known)
A x B: A is the father of B. B - C: B is the sister of C. C + D: C is the brother of D. So B, C and D are siblings and all are children of A. D's own gender is never stated, so D is A's son or daughter.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q134 Mental Ability
A grocer buys 150 kg of rice at Rs 36 per kg. 10% of the rice gets spoilt and cannot be sold. At what price per kg must he sell the rest to make a profit of 20% on his total outlay?
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Answer D. Rs 48
Cost = 150 x 36 = Rs 5,400; receipts needed = 5,400 x 1.20 = Rs 6,480. Saleable rice = 135 kg, so price = 6,480/135 = Rs 48 per kg.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q135 Mental Ability
A figure is a grid of equal small squares with 3 rows and 5 columns. Count all the squares of every size in it.
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Answer A. 26
In an m x n grid, the number of k x k squares is (m - k + 1)(n - k + 1). For 3 x 5: 1 x 1 = 3 x 5 = 15; 2 x 2 = 2 x 4 = 8; 3 x 3 = 1 x 3 = 3. Total = 26.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q136 Mental Ability
Given: The district office in Vijayawada will be closed on Monday unless the staff meeting is postponed. The office was open on Monday.
Which one of the following follows definitely from these statements?
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Answer D. The staff meeting was postponed
'Closed unless postponed' means 'if the meeting is not postponed, the office is closed'. The office was open (not closed), so by the contrapositive the meeting was postponed.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q137 Mental Ability
In a certain code, ROSE is written as 6821, CHAIR as 73456 and PREACH as 961473. How is SEARCH written in that code?
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Answer C. 214673
ROSE gives R6 O8 S2 E1; CHAIR gives C7 H3 A4 I5 R6; PREACH confirms P9 R6 E1 A4 C7 H3. SEARCH = 2 1 4 6 7 3.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q138 Mental Ability
Ten years ago a mother was three times as old as her daughter. Ten years from now she will be twice as old as her daughter. What is the mother's present age?
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Answer A. 70 years
m - 10 = 3(d - 10) and m + 10 = 2(d + 10). So m = 3d - 20 = 2d + 10, giving d = 30, m = 70. Check: 60 = 3 x 20 and 80 = 2 x 40.
Source: Standard arithmetic / number-theory method; every option computed and checked in Python (puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q139 Mental Ability
A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs 7,800 in 3 years and to Rs 9,000 in 5 years. What is the rate of interest per annum?
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Answer A. 10%
Interest for 2 years = 9,000 - 7,800 = 1,200, so Rs 600 a year. Principal = 7,800 - 3 x 600 = 6,000. Rate = 600/6,000 x 100 = 10%.
Source: Standard arithmetic method; every option computed and checked in Python
- Q140 Mental Ability
The calendar for the year 2026 will be used again, for the first time, in which year?
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Answer D. 2037
A year repeats a calendar when it starts on the same day and has the same number of days. Odd days from 2026: 2026(1)+2027(1)+2028(2)+2029(1)+2030(1)+2031(1)+2032(2)+2033(1)+2034(1)+2035(1)+2036(2) = 14 = 0 odd days, so 2037 starts on the same day as 2026, and 2037 is also an ordinary year.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q141 Mental Ability
Find the next term in the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, 28, 41, ?
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Answer C. 58
Differences 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 are consecutive primes. The next prime is 17, so 41 + 17 = 58.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-C build script)
- Q142 Mental Ability
Early one morning, Hari walks along a straight road with his shadow falling directly behind him. He then turns left, walks for some time, and then turns 135° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
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Answer C. South-East
Morning shadows fall towards the West, so a shadow directly behind means he faces East. Left turn: North (0°). Then 135° clockwise: 0 + 135 = 135°, South-East.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q143 Mental Ability
Statement 1: All engineers are graduates.
Statement 2: ________
Conclusion: Some graduates are not doctors.
Which one of the following, used as Statement 2, makes the conclusion follow definitely?
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Answer D. No engineer is a doctor
If no engineer is a doctor, then the engineers form a group of graduates who are not doctors, so 'Some graduates are not doctors' follows. Each of the other options leaves open the case in which every graduate is a doctor.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q144 Mental Ability
Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to differ from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1. All rivers are streams.
2. No streams are canals.
3. Some canals are dams.
Conclusions:
I. No rivers are canals.
II. Some dams are not streams.
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Answer C. Both I and II follow
Both I and II follow. All rivers are streams and no stream is a canal, so no river is a canal. The dams that are canals cannot be streams, so some dams are not streams.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q145 Mental Ability
A clock is set right at 6 a.m. on Monday. It loses 15 minutes in every 24 hours of correct time. What is the correct time when this clock shows 8 p.m. on Tuesday?
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Answer B. 8:24 p.m. on Tuesday
Shown time elapsed = 6 a.m. Monday to 8 p.m. Tuesday = 38 hours = 2280 minutes. The clock shows 1440 - 15 = 1425 minutes for every 1440 correct minutes, so correct elapsed time = 2280 x 1440/1425 = 2304 minutes = 38 hours 24 minutes. Correct time = 8:24 p.m. on Tuesday.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q146 Mental Ability
Facts: A is B's brother, B is C's sister and C is D's father. What is D to A?
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Answer C. Nephew or niece
A, B and C are brothers and sister of one another, and C (a father) is male. D is the child of A's brother C, so D is A's nephew if a boy and niece if a girl. D's gender is not given.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements and relation puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q147 Mental Ability
What is the greatest number of pieces into which a cube-shaped cake can be cut with 4 straight plane cuts, if the pieces are not moved between cuts?
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Answer D. 15
With plane cuts the maximum pieces are 2, 4, 8 for 1, 2, 3 cuts. A fourth plane meets the first three planes in 3 lines, which divide it into at most 7 regions; so it adds 7 pieces: 8 + 7 = 15.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-I build script)
- Q148 Mental Ability
Statements: If Ravi studies regularly, he passes the examination. If he passes the examination, he gets a job in Hyderabad. Ravi did not get a job in Hyderabad.
Which of the following follows definitely?
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Answer B. Ravi neither passed the examination nor studied regularly
Chain: study -> pass -> job. 'No job' gives 'not passed' (contrapositive of the second statement), and 'not passed' gives 'did not study regularly' (contrapositive of the first).
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option checked in Python (arrangements, syllogisms and truth puzzles brute-forced for a unique answer)
- Q149 Mental Ability
Each question below is followed by two statements, I and II. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Question: For real numbers x and y, is x greater than y?
I. x squared is greater than y squared.
II. x + y is greater than 0.
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Answer C. Both statements together are needed; neither alone is sufficient
From I, (x - y)(x + y) > 0. Alone this allows x = -3, y = 1 (x < y) or x = 3, y = 1 (x > y). II alone allows x = 1, y = 2 or x = 2, y = 1. Together, since x + y > 0, the product being positive forces x - y > 0, so x > y. Both are needed.
Source: Standard reasoning method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-E build script)
- Q150 Mental Ability
A clerk numbers 250 files from 1 to 250. How many zeros does she write in all?
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Answer B. 45
Units place: 10, 20, ..., 250 gives 25 zeros. Tens place: 100-109 and 200-209 give 20 zeros. Total = 45 (checked by counting in Python).
Source: Standard mental-ability method; answer and every option computed and checked in Python (MA-G build script)
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