Previous year paper · Group 2
APPSC G2 Mains Paper I 2025 question paper with answers
- 146 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
- Year 2025
Try each question first. Then tap Show answer.
Topics in this paper (5)
Questions and answers
- Q1 AP Social & Cultural History
Which one of the following statements is incorrect with reference to megalithic burials in Andhra ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Many numbers of cyst burials were found in Vishakhapatnam District
Megalithic cist burials are concentrated in the southern and Rayalaseema districts and the Krishna valley, not in Visakhapatnam; the official key treats this as the incorrect statement.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q1, final key
- Q2 AP Social & Cultural History
Statement (A) : "Gatha Saptasathi" is a collection of poems which predominantly focused on love and romantic themes.
Statement (B) : Gunadya had written Brihatkatha in Sanskrit language.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true, but (B) is false
Hala's Gatha Saptasati is a Prakrit anthology of love poems, so (A) is true. Gunadhya wrote the Brihatkatha in Paishachi Prakrit, not Sanskrit, so (B) is false.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q2, final key
- Q3 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to the Ikshvakus of Vijayapuri ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. In their inscriptions, Ikshvakus of Vijayapuri had described themselves as the descendants of Ikshvakus of Ayodhya
The Puranas call this line the Sriparvatiyas, they married into the Saka (Western Kshatrapa) family of Ujjain, and Virapurushadatta's reign was the high point of Buddhism at Nagarjunakonda. Their inscriptions make no claim of descent from the Ikshvakus of Ayodhya.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q3, final key
- Q4 AP Social & Cultural History
'Janasraya' is the title of which of the following Vishnukundin rulers ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Madhavavarma
Madhava Varma of the Vishnukundins bore the title Janasraya; the Sanskrit prosody work Janasrayi Chhandovichiti is linked to this title.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q4, final key
- Q5 AP Social & Cultural History
Ayyana Mahadevi built the Jain temple 'Nedumba Vasati' near Vijayawada. She was the queen of
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Kubja Vishnuvardhana
Ayyana Mahadevi, queen of Kubja Vishnuvardhana, the founder of the Eastern Chalukya line, built the Nedumbi Vasati at Vijayawada, as recorded in the Musinikonda grant.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q5, final key
- Q6 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A) : Trade with Rome flourished in the post-Satavahana era.
Reason (R) :No ruler had issued coins with ship motif after Satavahanas.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
Roman trade peaked under the Satavahanas and declined afterwards, so (A) is false. The ship-motif coins are a Satavahana feature (Yajna Sri Satakarni) that later rulers did not continue, so (R) is taken as true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q7, final key
- Q7 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
a. Billa Surgam Palaeolithic cave site is located in Anantapuramu district.
b. Belum caves located in Nandyal district is the second longest cave in India.
c. Cave sites of Kurnool and Muchatla Chintamani Gavi in A.P. are the only places in India where tools made of animal bones were found in upper palaeolithic context.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a only
The Billa Surgam caves are in the Kurnool region (now Nandyal district), not Anantapuramu, so a is incorrect. Belum is the second longest cave system in the subcontinent, and the Kurnool caves are known for Upper Palaeolithic bone tools.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q8, final key
- Q8 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements is not true about the Satavahanas ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. They had matrimonial alliance with Kakatiyas
The Satavahanas (c. 1st century BCE to 3rd century CE) lived about a thousand years before the Kakatiyas, so no marriage alliance was possible. The other three statements are standard facts.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q9, final key
- Q9 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements regarding Nannaya Bhattu are correct ?
I. Nannaya Bhattu was a Telugu poet and the author of 'Andhra Mahabharatam', a Telugu retelling of the Sanskrit-language Mahabharata.
II. He is also credited with writing the Andhra Shabda Chintamani, a Sanskrit treatise on Telugu grammar.
III. Raja Raja Narendra donated Nandampudi Agrahara to Nannaya.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II
Nannaya began the Andhra Mahabharatam and is credited with the Sanskrit grammar Andhra Sabda Chintamani. The Nandampudi grant of Raja Raja Narendra was composed by Nannaya but gifted the village to another Brahmin, so III is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q10, final key
- Q10 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
I. Saktivarma had married Kundavai, the daughter of Raja Raja Chola I.
II. Raja Raja Narendra had married Ammangaidevi, the daughter of Rajendra Chola I.
III. Rajendra Chalukya had married Madurantaki, the daughter of Rajendra Chola II.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Only I
Kundavai, daughter of Raja Raja Chola I, married Vimaladitya, Saktivarma's brother, so I is incorrect. Raja Raja Narendra married Ammangadevi (daughter of Rajendra Chola I), and Rajendra Chalukya (Kulottunga I) married Madhurantaki (daughter of Rajendra Chola II).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q11, final key
- Q11 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Vijayaditya II is credited with the construction of 108 temples.
b. Raja Raja Narendra constructed Rajarajeswara temple at Biccavole.
c. Chalukya Bhima constructed Bhimeswara Swamy temple at Draksharama.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. b only
Vijayaditya II (Narendra Mrigaraja) is credited with 108 temples and Chalukya Bhima I with the Bhimeswara temple at Draksharama. The Biccavolu temples belong to the 9th-10th century, long before Raja Raja Narendra, so b is the incorrect statement.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q12, final key
- Q12 AP Social & Cultural History
The architectural structure of which of the following temples exemplifies the independent style of the Chalukya-Cholas, incorporating Pallava and early Chalukya influences ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Draksharama temple
The Bhimeswara temple at Draksharama shows the Eastern Chalukya / Chalukya-Chola style that blends Pallava and early Chalukya features. Brihadeeshwara at Thanjavur is a pure Chola monument and the Padmakshi temple at Hanumakonda is Kakatiya-era.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q13, final key
- Q13 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List – I (Authors) List – II (Works) a. Ketana I. Markandeya Puranam b. Marana II. Nirvachanottara Ramayanam c. Tikkana III. Andhra Bhasha Bhushanam d. Manchena IV. Keyurabahu Charitra Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
Ketana wrote the grammar Andhra Bhasha Bhushanam, Marana the Markandeya Puranam, Tikkana the Nirvachanottara Ramayanam and Manchena the Keyurabahu Charitra.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q14, final key
- Q14 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following Chalukya-Chola Viceroys had assumed the title Sarvalokasraya, Sri Vishnuvardhana and celebrated his coronation at Jananathapura (Draksharama) ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Mummadi Chola
Kulottunga I sent his sons to govern Vengi as viceroys; Mummadi Chola took the Eastern Chalukya titles Sarvalokasraya Sri Vishnuvardhana and was crowned at Jananathapura (Draksharama).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q15, final key
- Q15 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A) : Manumasiddhi II was reinstated on the throne by Ganapatideva.
Reason (R) : The power of Nellore Chodas was at its zenith during the reign of Manumasiddhi II.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
At Tikkana's request Kakatiya Ganapatideva restored Manumasiddhi II to the Nellore throne, so (A) is true. The Nellore Chodas were at their height under Tikka I (Gandagopala), not under the weak Manumasiddhi II, so (R) is false.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q16, final key
- Q16 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements regarding Kakatiyas are correct ?
I. Early Kakatiya monarchs had constructed Jain temples.
II. The influence of Chalukya temple architecture could be seen in Kakatiya temples.
III. Thousand pillared temple was built in 'Trikuta style', having three shrines, each dedicated to Rudreshwara, Vasudeva and Suryadeva.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. I, II, III
The early Kakatiyas were Jains and built Jain shrines; Kakatiya temples develop the Western (Kalyani) Chalukya style; and Rudradeva's Thousand Pillar temple at Hanumakonda is a trikuta shrine to Rudreswara, Vasudeva and Surya. All three are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q17, final key
- Q17 AP Social & Cultural History
Identify the wrong match.
(Author) – (Literary Work)
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Gangadevi – Marichi Parinayam
Gangadevi, queen of Kumara Kampana, wrote Madhura Vijayam, not Marichi Parinayam. Molla wrote the Telugu Ramayanam, Tallapaka Timmakka the Subhadra Kalyanam and Oduva Tirumalamba the Varadambika Parinayam.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q18, final key
- Q18 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following Reddi rulers chronologically :
A. Kumaragiri Reddi
B. Anavema Reddi
C. Anavota Reddi
D. Pedakomati Vema Reddi
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. C, B, A, D
After Prolaya Vema came Anavota (c. 1353-64), then Anavema (c. 1364-86), Kumaragiri (c. 1386-1402) and Pedakomati Vema (c. 1402-20).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q19, final key
- Q19 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I (Authors) List – II (Works) a. Pavuluri Mallana I. Kreedabhiramam b. Vinukonda Vallabharaya II. Ganitasara Sangraham c. Aryadeva III. Chittasuddi Prakarana d. Dignaga IV. Pramaana Samucchaya Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
Pavuluri Mallana rendered the Ganitasara Sangraham into Telugu, Vinukonda Vallabharaya wrote Kreedabhiramam, the Buddhist Aryadeva wrote Chittavisuddhi Prakarana and Dignaga wrote Pramana Samuccaya.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q20, final key
- Q20 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I (Inscriptions) List – II (Rulers) a. Sanigaram inscription I. Mailamba b. Anumakonda inscription II. Ganapatideva c. Bayyaram inscription III. Prolaraja d. Motupalli inscription IV. Rudradeva Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
The Sanigaram inscription is of Prola, the Anumakonda (Thousand Pillar) inscription of Rudradeva, the Bayyaram tank inscription of Mailamba (Ganapatideva's sister) and the Motupalli abhaya-sasanam of Ganapatideva.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q21, final key
- Q21 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Prolaraja bore the title Arikesari.
b. Nayankara system was introduced by Prataparudra.
c. Beta II was initiated into Saivism by Rameswara Pandita of Srisailam.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. b only
Prola bore the title Arikesari and Beta II took Saiva initiation from Rameswara Pandita of Srisailam. The nayankara system was already in use under Ganapatideva and Rudramadevi; Prataparudra only reorganised it, so b is the incorrect statement per the key.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q22, final key
- Q22 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following books was not written by Srinatha ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Madanavilasabanam
Madana Vilasa Banam is not among Srinatha's works. Srinatha wrote Haravilasam, Sivaratri Mahatmyam and Palnati Veera Charitra.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q23, final key
- Q23 AP Social & Cultural History
Sri Krishna Devaraya erected a pillar of victory to commemorate his conquest of coastal Andhra at
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Potnuru
After his Kalinga campaign against the Gajapatis, Krishnadevaraya set up a victory pillar at Potnuru (Potnuru-Simhadri) in present Vizianagaram district.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q24, final key
- Q24 AP Social & Cultural History
Statement (A) : Moturpha is a salt tax levied by British East India Company.
Statement (B) : The revenue collected by the British East India Company from the zamindars is called 'Peshcush'.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false, but (B) is true
Moturpha was a tax on trades, professions and looms, not on salt, so (A) is false. Peshkash was the fixed tribute the Company took from the zamindars, so (B) is true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q25, final key
- Q25 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A) : Andhra region was not greatly affected by the 1857 revolt as Andhra had no local leaders.
Reason (R) : Then reigning Nizam, Nawab Afzal-ud-Dowla adopted pro-British attitude.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Coastal Andhra under Madras saw little of the 1857 revolt for want of local leaders, and the Nizam Afzal-ud-Daula sided with the British. Both are true, but the Nizam's stand concerned Hyderabad State, so it does not explain the calm in the Andhra districts.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q26, final key
-
121 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q26 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I List – II a. Kakinada riots case I. February, 1909 b. Bipin Chandra Pal's tour in Andhra II. July, 1907 c. Kotappa Konda riots III. April, 1907 d. Tenali Bomb case IV. April, 1909 Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
Bipin Chandra Pal toured Andhra in April 1907, the Kakinada riots case followed in mid-1907, the Kotappakonda riots took place in February 1909 and the Tenali bomb case in April 1909.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q28, final key
- Q27 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Eastern Ghats in Srikakulam are called
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Mahendra Girulu
The northern Eastern Ghats in Srikakulam district are known as the Mahendragiri hills. The Papi hills are on the Godavari, and the Palakonda and Nallamala ranges are in Rayalaseema.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q29, final key
- Q28 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following in chronological order :
A. Formation of the Visalandra Mahasabha
B. Dhar Commission
C. Swami Sitaram's fast
D. Formation of States Re-organization Commission
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. B, A, C, D
The Dhar Commission was set up in 1948, the Visalandhra Mahasabha in 1949-50, Swami Sitaram fasted in 1951 and the States Reorganisation Commission was formed in December 1953.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q30, final key
- Q29 AP Social & Cultural History
Assertion (A) : British ship 'Globe' under the command of Captain Hawkins arrived at Machilipatnam in 1611 A.D.
Reason (R) : Quli Qutub Shah permitted the English East India Company to establish a factory at Machilipatnam.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
The Globe reached Machilipatnam in 1611 under Captain Anthony Hippon (with Peter Floris), not Captain Hawkins, so (A) is false. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah allowed the English to open their factory there, so (R) is true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q31, final key
- Q30 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following poets is known as "Abhinava Nannaya" ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Rayaprolu Subbarao
Rayaprolu Subba Rao, pioneer of the Bhava Kavitvam movement, is honoured as Abhinava Nannaya. Viswanatha was Kavi Samrat and Sri Sri was the voice of progressive poetry.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q32, final key
- Q31 AP Social & Cultural History
Which poet was called the "Poet of the Millennium" ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Gurram Jashuva
Gurram Jashuva, author of Gabbilam and Phiradausi, is the poet the key names as the "Poet of the Millennium".
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q33, final key
- Q32 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. He was presented the Sahitya Akademi award for his work titled 'Gabbilam' in 1964
Jashuva received the 1964 Sahitya Akademi award for Kreestu Charitra, not Gabbilam. He was born on 28 September 1895, was nominated to the AP Legislative Council in 1964 and received the Padma Bhushan in 1970.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q34, final key
- Q33 AP Social & Cultural History
Pedaganjam and Chinaganjam were known for their production of
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Salt
Pedaganjam and Chinaganjam on the Prakasam coast were salt-producing centres and became sites of the 1930 Salt Satyagraha in Andhra.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q35, final key
- Q34 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I (Andhra Maha Sabha) List – II (Presided by) a. 1st Session Andhra Maha Sabha I. Mocharla Ramachandra Rao b. 2nd Session Andhra Maha Sabha II. Nyapati Subba Rao c. 3rd Session Andhra Maha Sabha III. Baiya Narasimheswara Sharma d. 4th Session Andhra Maha Sabha IV. Raja Rama Rayanimgar Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
The Andhra Mahasabha met at Bapatla in 1913 under Bayya Narasimheswara Sarma, at Vijayawada in 1914 under Nyapati Subba Rao, at Visakhapatnam in 1915 under Panaganti Ramarayaningar and at Kakinada in 1916 under Mocharla Ramachandra Rao.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q36, final key
- Q35 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following events chronologically :
A. Implementation of Ryotwari settlement in Madras.
B. Acquisition of Guntur by East India Company.
C. Battle of Padmanabham.
D. Abolition of Zamindari settlement in Andhra.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. B, C, A, D
The Company took Guntur in 1788, the battle of Padmanabham was fought in 1794, the ryotwari system was adopted in Madras around 1820 and zamindari was abolished by the 1948 Madras Estates Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q37, final key
- Q36 AP Social & Cultural History
Manchikallu and Maidavolu inscriptions belong to
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Pallavas
The Manchikallu (Simhavarma) and Mayidavolu (Sivaskandavarma) records are early Prakrit inscriptions of the Pallavas, who held the Krishna-Guntur region before moving south.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q38, final key
- Q37 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I (Libraries) List – II (Established in and at) a. Vignana Chandrika Granthamandali I. Kovvur, 1916 b. Srikrishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam II. Hyderabad, 1906 c. Andhra Council of Research III. Hyderabad, 1901 d. Andhra Saraswati Parishad IV. Hyderabad, 1922 Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam was founded in Hyderabad in 1901 and Vignana Chandrika Grantha Mandali in Hyderabad in 1906; with these two fixed, only code (1) fits.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q39, final key
- Q38 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statements regarding Library Movement are correct ?
I. In 1915, the Andhra Desa Library Association started a periodical entitled 'Grandhalaya Sarvasvam' in Telugu.
II. Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao is the founder of "Andhra Patrika" established in 1908.
III. Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam was established in Kovvur in 1916.
IV. In 1918, Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao started 'Boat Library Services' in West Godavari.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I, II, IV only
The Andhra Desa Library Association began Grandhalaya Sarvasvamu in 1915 and Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao founded Andhra Patrika in 1908. Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam was founded in Hyderabad in 1901, not Kovvur in 1916, so III is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q40, final key
- Q39 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Communist Party leaders worked for the Visalandhra Movement and propagated the concept of Visalandhra even before the formation of Andhra State.
b. Communists became a great force in Telangana politics.
c. Communists opposed the formation of integrated linguistic States.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. c only
The Communists championed Visalandhra (Puchalapalli Sundarayya's 'Visalandhra lo Prajarajyam') and were a major force in Telangana after the armed struggle. They supported, not opposed, integrated linguistic states, so only c is incorrect.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q41, final key
- Q40 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the Chairman of the Partition Committee constituted by Madras State Government for the formation of separate State ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Kumaraswamy Raja
In 1949 the Madras government set up a Partition Committee under Chief Minister P. S. Kumaraswamy Raja to work out the separation of the Andhra districts; Prakasam's dissent note was attached to its report.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q42, final key
- Q41 AP Social & Cultural History
Arrange the following ex-Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh chronologically and choose the correct answer :
A. Tanguturi Anjaiah
B. Damodaram Sanjivaiah
C. P. V. Narasimha Rao
D. Kasu Brahmananda Reddy
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. B, D, C, A
Damodaram Sanjivaiah was Chief Minister in 1960-62, Kasu Brahmananda Reddy in 1964-71, P. V. Narasimha Rao in 1971-73 and T. Anjaiah in 1980-82.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q43, final key
- Q42 AP Social & Cultural History
According to the Gentlemen's Agreement, what was the ratio of Cabinet representation for Andhra and Telangana ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 60 : 40
The 1956 Gentlemen's Agreement fixed ministerial posts at 60 per cent for Andhra and 40 per cent for Telangana.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q44, final key
- Q43 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the first Telugu writer to win Jnanapith Award for the work titled "Ramayana Kalpavriksham" ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Vishwanatha Satyanarayana
Viswanatha Satyanarayana received the Jnanpith Award for 1970 for Ramayana Kalpavrukshamu, the first for a Telugu writer.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q45, final key
- Q44 AP Social & Cultural History
In which year was the English East India Company established ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1600
The English East India Company received its royal charter from Queen Elizabeth I on 31 December 1600.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q46, final key
- Q45 AP Social & Cultural History
Which of the following Parties wanted Tirupati as the Capital of Andhra in 1953 ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Krishikar Lok Party
During the 1953 debate on the new Andhra State's capital, N. G. Ranga's Krishikar Lok Party pressed for Tirupati, while other groups favoured Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam or Kurnool.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q47, final key
- Q46 AP Social & Cultural History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Salt Satyagrahis) List – II (Broke Salt Laws at) a. Bulusu Sambamurty I. Kakinada b. Dandu Narayana Raju II. Mattapalem c. Kasi Viswanadham III. Vadarevu d. Pattabhi Sitaramayya IV. Masulipatnam Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
In the 1930 Salt Satyagraha Bulusu Sambamurti led the march at Kakinada, Dandu Narayana Raju at Mattapalem, Kasi Viswanadham at Vadarevu and Pattabhi Sitaramayya at Machilipatnam.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q48, final key
- Q47 AP Social & Cultural History
Where was the French Settlement in Andhra ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Yanam
Yanam on the Godavari delta was the French settlement in Andhra and stayed French until 1954; it is now part of Puducherry.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q49, final key
- Q48 AP Social & Cultural History
The inscriptions of early Satavahana kings were found in
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Maharashtra
The earliest Satavahana records, such as the Naneghat inscription of Naganika and the Nasik cave inscriptions, are in western Maharashtra.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q50, final key
- Q49 AP Social & Cultural History
Justice Party Government helped the formation of which University ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Andhra University
The Justice Party ministry in Madras Presidency passed the Andhra University Act in 1926, leading to the founding of Andhra University (first at Vijayawada, later Visakhapatnam).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q51, final key
- Q50 AP Social & Cultural History
In which book was the song 'Desamante Matti Kadoi' written ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Mutyala Saralu
The line 'Desamante matti kadoi, desamante manushuloi' is from Gurajada Apparao's patriotic song 'Desamunu preminchumanna', collected in his Mutyala Saralu.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q52, final key
-
96 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q51 Ancient & Medieval India
Match Group - A with Group - B and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Group - A Group - B a. Jainism i. Nature Worship b. Buddhism ii. Ashtanga Margam c. Saivism iii. Triratna d. Animism iv. Linga Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Jainism's three jewels are the Triratna, Buddhism teaches the Eightfold (Ashtanga) path, Saivism worships Shiva as the Linga, and Animism is nature worship.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q53, final key
- Q52 AP Social & Cultural History
Match Group - A with Group - B and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Group - A Group - B a. Duggirala Gopala Krishnaiah i. Pedanandipadu agitation b. Parvataneni Veeraiah Choudary ii. Najeevitha Katha c. Ayyadevara Kaleswar Rao iii. Rama Dandu d. Tripuraneni Ramaswamy Choudary iv. Kavi Raju Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Duggirala Gopalakrishnaiah raised the Rama Dandu volunteer corps at Chirala-Perala, Parvataneni Veeraiah Choudary led the Pedanandipadu no-tax campaign, Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao wrote the autobiography Naa Jeevitha Katha, and Tripuraneni Ramaswamy Choudary was honoured as Kavi Raju.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q54, final key
- Q53 AP Social & Cultural History
Match Group - A with Group - B and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Group - A (Book) Group - B (Author) a. Japaneeyamu i. Gurajada Appa Rao b. Mahaprasthanam ii. Sri Sri c. Kanyasulkam iii. Puchalapalli Sundarayya d. Veyipadagalu iv. Viswanadha Satyanarayana v. Sriram Veerabrahmam Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Kanyasulkam is Gurajada's play, Mahaprasthanam is Sri Sri's poetry collection and Veyipadagalu is Viswanatha's novel; the travelogue Japaneeyamu is by Sriram Veerabrahmam. Only option 4 fits all four.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q55, final key
- Q54 AP Social & Cultural History
Which religion did King Kharavela patronise ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Jainism
Kharavela of Kalinga (Mahameghavahana dynasty) was a Jain; his Hathigumpha inscription at Udayagiri opens with a Jain invocation.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q56, final key
- Q55 AP Social & Cultural History
Undavally caves are associated with
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Vishnukundins
The rock-cut Undavalli caves near Vijayawada on the Krishna are attributed to the Vishnukundin kings of the 4th-5th centuries CE.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q57, final key
- Q56 AP Social & Cultural History
Blue Water Policy is associated with
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Portuguese
Francisco de Almeida, the first Portuguese viceroy, followed the Blue Water Policy of controlling the seas rather than building land forts.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q58, final key
- Q57 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was known as the first Principal Collector of Rayalaseema ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Sir Thomas Munro
After the Nizam ceded the districts in 1800, Thomas Munro was made the first Principal Collector of the Ceded Districts (Rayalaseema) and introduced the ryotwari system there.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q59, final key
- Q58 AP Social & Cultural History
The first Telugu to English dictionary was composed by
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. C.P. Brown
Among the options, C.P. Brown is the answer: his Telugu-English Dictionary (1852) became the standard Telugu-to-English dictionary. (Earlier works such as A.D. Campbell's 1821 dictionary existed, but none of the other options compiled one.)
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q60, final key
- Q59 AP Social & Cultural History
Where did the English establish their first factory in Coastal Andhra ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Machilipatnam
The English East India Company set up its first factory on the east coast at Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) in 1611.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q62, final key
- Q60 AP Social & Cultural History
The Padmanabha battle was fought between
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. English and Vizianagaram Zamindars
At Padmanabham (1794) the Company's forces defeated and killed Vijayarama Raju II of Vizianagaram.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q63, final key
- Q61 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the last Asaf Jahi (Nizam) ruler ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Osman Ali Khan
Mir Osman Ali Khan, the seventh Nizam, was the last ruler of Hyderabad State until its integration in 1948.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q64, final key
- Q62 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the founder of Vivekavardhini Newspaper ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Veeresalingam Panthulu
Kandukuri Veeresalingam started Vivekavardhini in 1874 to campaign for social reform.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q65, final key
- Q63 AP Social & Cultural History
The first novel in Telugu language was
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Rajashekara Charitam
Veeresalingam's Rajasekhara Charitramu (1878) is regarded as the first Telugu novel.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q66, final key
- Q64 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the author of "Veera Telangana Anubhavalu Gnapakalu" ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Ravi Narayana Reddy
Ravi Narayana Reddy, a leader of the Andhra Mahasabha and the Telangana armed struggle, wrote this memoir of the movement.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q67, final key
- Q65 AP Social & Cultural History
Andhra State was formed on
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 1st October 1953
After Potti Sriramulu's death, Andhra State was carved out of Madras State on 1 October 1953 with Kurnool as capital.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q68, final key
- Q66 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the founder of the first girls schools at Rajahmundry ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Veeresalingam Panthulu
Kandukuri Veeresalingam opened girls' schools at Dowlaiswaram (1874) and Rajahmundry as part of his campaign for women's education.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q69, final key
- Q67 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the leader of Chirala Perala Movement ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Duggirala Gopala Krishnaiah
Duggirala Gopalakrishnaiah led the people of Chirala-Perala (1919-21) in leaving the town rather than pay the municipal tax imposed on it.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q70, final key
- Q68 AP Social & Cultural History
"No Pullari (Grass) Tax" Movement was led in Palanadu by
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Kanneganti Hanumanthu
During Non-Cooperation, Kanneganti Hanumanthu led the Palnadu peasants in refusing the pullari (forest grazing) tax and was shot by the police in 1922.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q71, final key
- Q69 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Telugu Ganga Canal Water is supplied to which of the following states ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Tamil Nadu
The Telugu Ganga project carries Krishna water from Srisailam via the Kandaleru reservoir to meet Chennai's drinking water needs in Tamil Nadu.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q72, final key
- Q70 AP Social & Cultural History
Who was the founder of Andhra Bank ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramaiah
Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramayya founded Andhra Bank at Machilipatnam in 1923.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q73, final key
- Q71 AP Social & Cultural History
Which Fruit was introduced by the Portuguese to the Telugu soil ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Tomato
The tomato, a New World plant, reached India through the Portuguese; banana and orange were already grown here.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q74, final key
- Q72 Modern India
Who was the founder of Common Weal and New India newspapers ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Annie Besant
Annie Besant started the weekly Commonweal and bought and renamed the Madras Standard as New India (1914) to campaign for Home Rule.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q75, final key
- Q73 Indian Constitution
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution on the recommendations of
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Swaran Singh Committee
The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended Fundamental Duties, added as Article 51A by the 42nd Amendment.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q76, final key
- Q74 Indian Constitution
The term "Secular" was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q77, final key
- Q75 Indian Constitution
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Borrowed Feature) List - II (Source) a. Emergency Provisions i. United Kingdom b. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency ii. Australia c. Concept of Concurrent List iii. Government of India Act, 1935 d. Single Citizenship iv. German Constitution v. USA Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
The emergency provisions come from the Government of India Act 1935, suspension of fundamental rights during emergency from the Weimar (German) constitution, the Concurrent List from Australia and single citizenship from the UK.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q78, final key
-
71 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements are true regarding 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 ?
A. Gave Constitutional status and protection to Co-operative Societies.
B. Made the right to form Co-operative Societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19.
C. It added a new Part X-B to the Constitution.
D. Added new Directive Principle under Article 43-B.
Choose the right answer from the codes given below :
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A, B and D only
The 97th Amendment gave co-operatives constitutional status, added 'co-operative societies' to Article 19(1)(c) and a new DPSP in Article 43B, but the new part it inserted is Part IX-B, not X-B. So A, B and D are true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q79, final key
- Q77 Indian Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution is described as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Article 32
Ambedkar called Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, the very soul and heart of the Constitution.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q80, final key
- Q78 Indian Constitution
Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. November 26th, 1949
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949 (Constitution Day); it came fully into force on 26 January 1950.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q81, final key
- Q79 Indian Constitution
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Executive ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Part V
Part V (Articles 52-151) covers the Union, including the President, Vice-President and Council of Ministers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q82, final key
- Q80 Indian Constitution
How many Schedules were there in the original Indian Constitution ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 8
The Constitution of 1950 had 8 Schedules; the 9th was added in 1951 and there are 12 today.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q83, final key
- Q81 Indian Constitution
When was the Human Rights Commission of India constituted ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1993
The National Human Rights Commission was set up on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance, later the 1993 Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q84, final key
- Q82 Indian Constitution
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (National Commission) List - II (Name of First Chairperson) a. National Commission for STs i. Justice R. N. Prasad b. National Commission for Minorities ii. Kunwar Singh c. National Commission for SCs iii. Justice Mohammad Sardar Ali Khan d. National Commission for BCs iv. Suraj Bhan Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Kunwar Singh headed the first separate NCST (2004), Justice Mohammad Sardar Ali Khan the first statutory NCM (1993), Suraj Bhan the first separate NCSC (2004) and Justice R.N. Prasad the first NCBC (1993).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q85, final key
- Q83 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. Residuary powers of legislation are included in Article 248 of the Constitution of India.
B. The Union Parliament has exclusive powers over any item not covered in the State or Concurrent Lists.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both A and B
Article 248 (with Entry 97 of the Union List) gives Parliament exclusive power to legislate on any matter not in the State or Concurrent List, so both statements are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q86, final key
- Q84 Indian Constitution
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Writ) List - II (Meaning) a. Quo-Warranto i. to be certified b. Mandamus ii. by what Authority c. Habeas Corpus iii. we command d. Certiorari iv. to have the body of Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Quo warranto means 'by what authority', mandamus 'we command', habeas corpus 'to have the body of' and certiorari 'to be certified' (informed).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q87, final key
- Q85 Indian Constitution
The concept of Judicial Activism was originated and developed in
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. USA
Judicial activism grew out of the US Supreme Court's practice of judicial review; the term was coined there in 1947 (Arthur Schlesinger Jr.).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q88, final key
- Q86 Indian Constitution
The State Election Commission conducts elections to
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Local Bodies
Under Articles 243K and 243ZA, the State Election Commission conducts elections to panchayats and municipalities.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q89, final key
- Q87 Indian Constitution
Arrange the following Committees of Panchayat Raj in chronological order.
a. Gadgil Committee
b. Dantwala Committee
c. L. M. Singhvi Committee
d. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. d, b, c, a
Balwant Rai Mehta (1957), Dantwala (1978), L.M. Singhvi (1986), Gadgil (1988).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q90, final key
- Q88 Indian Constitution
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 came into force on
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. 1st June, 1993
The 74th Amendment (municipalities) came into force on 1 June 1993; the 73rd (panchayats) came into force on 24 April 1993.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q91, final key
- Q89 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
A. The Cantonments Act was passed by the Central Legislature in 1924.
B. The first municipal corporation came into existence at Madras in 1688.
C. Lord Rippon is regarded as the Father of Local Self Government in India.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A, B and C
The Cantonments Act was passed in 1924, the Madras Municipal Corporation was set up in 1688 as India's first, and Lord Ripon's 1882 resolution earned him the title Father of Local Self-Government. All three are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q92, final key
- Q90 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) ?
A. EVMs were used for the first time in the entire State of Goa in the general elections to the Assembly in 1999.
B. EVMs were used for the first time on experimental basis in the selected constituencies in the Assembly elections to the States of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat in 1998.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Only B
Goa (1999) was the first state to use EVMs in all its Assembly seats, so A is true. In 1998 EVMs were tried in selected seats of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Delhi, not Gujarat, so B is not true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q93, final key
- Q91 Indian Constitution
Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts reduced the minimum age for voting from 21 to 18 years ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 61st Amendment Act
The 61st Amendment (1988, in force 1989) amended Article 326 to lower the voting age from 21 to 18.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q94, final key
- Q92 Indian Constitution
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Committee) List - II (Related Electoral Reform) a. Vohra Committee i. Amendments to Criminal Law b. Indrajit Gupta Committee ii. Electoral Disqualifications c. Dinesh Goswami Committee iii. State funding of elections d. J. S. Varma Committee iv. Electoral reforms v. Nexus between crime and politics Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
The Vohra Committee (1993) reported on the criminal-politician nexus, Indrajit Gupta (1998) on state funding of elections, Dinesh Goswami (1990) on electoral reforms, and J.S. Verma (2013) on amending criminal law after the Delhi gang-rape case.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q95, final key
- Q93 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true relating to Election Commission of India ?
A. The Election Commission of India is a three member Body.
B. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India.
C. Election Commission of India is a Constitutional Body.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A and C
The ECI (Article 324) is a constitutional body with a CEC and two Election Commissioners, but the CEC is appointed by the President, not by the Chief Justice. So A and C are true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q96, final key
- Q94 Indian Constitution
In the list given below, how many are Constitutional Bodies ?
a. NITI Aayog
b. National Commission for Minorities
c. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
d. National Human Rights Commission
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 1
Only the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (Article 350B) is constitutional. NITI Aayog was set up by a cabinet resolution, and the NCM (1992 Act) and NHRC (1993 Act) are statutory.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q97, final key
- Q95 Indian Constitution
As per 91st Amendment Act of 2003, the total number of ministers including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed ________ of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 15 percent
Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment, limits the Union Council of Ministers, including the PM, to 15% of the Lok Sabha's strength.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q98, final key
- Q96 Indian Constitution
Who described Indian Union as, "a federation with a centralising tendency" ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Ivor Jennings
Sir Ivor Jennings called India 'a federation with a strong centralising tendency'.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q99, final key
- Q97 Indian Constitution
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Parliament
Article 124(1) lets Parliament fix the number of Supreme Court judges by law (the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q100, final key
- Q98 Indian Constitution
Arrange the following political parties in the chronological order of their establishment.
A. Samaj Wadi Party
B. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
C. Bahujan Samaj Party
D. Telugu Desam Party
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. B, D, C, A
DMK was founded in 1949, the Telugu Desam Party in 1982, the Bahujan Samaj Party in 1984 and the Samajwadi Party in 1992.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q101, final key
- Q99 Indian Constitution
As per the provisions of Right to Information Act, the State Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor, on the recommendations of a committee comprising of,
A. Chief Minister of the concerned State
B. Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court
C. Leader of the Opposition in the State Assembly
D. Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A, C and D
Section 15(3) of the RTI Act: the committee is the Chief Minister (chair), the Leader of the Opposition in the Assembly and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister. The High Court Chief Justice is not a member.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q102, final key
- Q100 Indian Constitution
Which of the following violate the federal principles of the Indian Constitution ?
A. Office of the Governor
B. Central Services
C. Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
D. Emergency Powers
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A, C and D
A Centre-appointed Governor, a single CAG auditing both Union and State accounts, and emergency powers that let the Centre override States are cited as departures from federalism. Central Services serve only the Union, so they do not affect State autonomy (unlike All India Services).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q103, final key
-
46 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Indian Constitution
Match List – I with List – II. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions)
List – I (Subject) List – II (List) a. Organisation of High Courts i. Concurrent List b. Taxes on Mineral Rights ii. Union List c. Education iii. State List Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a – ii b – iii c – i
Constitution and organisation of High Courts is Union List entry 78; taxes on mineral rights are State List entry 50; education is Concurrent List entry 25 (moved there by the 42nd Amendment).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q104, final key
- Q102 Indian Constitution
By which of the following Acts, the Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India; Lord William Bentinck was the first.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q105, final key
- Q103 Indian Constitution
When did The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 come into force ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 16th January 2014
The Act received Presidential assent on 1 January 2014 and was brought into force on 16 January 2014.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q106, final key
- Q104 Indian Constitution
The Parliament can make laws on subjects enumerated in the State list in the following conditions
A. On the request of two or more States.
B. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with at least two-thirds of the members present and voting, authorizing the Parliament to make laws on the subject in the national interest.
C. Proclamation of International Agreements.
D. The Lok Sabha passes a resolution with at least two-thirds of the members present and voting, authorizing the Parliament to make laws on the subject in the national interest.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. A, B and C only
Parliament may legislate on State subjects on a Rajya Sabha resolution (Art. 249), at the request of two or more States (Art. 252) and to implement international agreements (Art. 253). A Lok Sabha resolution has no such effect.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q107, final key
- Q105 Indian Constitution
The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by which Constitutional Amendment Act ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added Article 51A(k): a parent or guardian must provide opportunities for education to a child aged 6 to 14.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q108, final key
- Q106 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : The UPSC is the Central recruiting agency in India.
Reason (R) : It is an independent recruiting constitutional body.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
The UPSC is the Union's central recruiting agency and is an independent constitutional body (Articles 315-323). Its being independent and constitutional does not explain why it is the recruiting agency; Article 320 assigns that function.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q109, final key
- Q107 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.
Reason (R) : This Act has brought the Panchayath Raj institutions under the purview of justiciable part of the Constitution.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The 73rd Amendment gave panchayats constitutional status (Part IX), so States are bound to hold elections and devolve powers. Bringing them into the justiciable part of the Constitution is what makes the Act a landmark.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q110, final key
- Q108 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : The All India Services violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of States.
Reason (R) : The All India Service officers are governed by Central Government rules and the State Governments do not have full control over them.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
All India Service officers serve the States but are recruited, governed and ultimately disciplined by the Centre, so States lack full control over them. That is exactly why the services are said to dent State autonomy.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q111, final key
- Q109 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : NITI Aayog is a Non-Constitutional Advisory Body.
Reason (R) : One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
NITI Aayog was set up in 2015 by a Cabinet resolution, so it is a non-constitutional (and non-statutory) advisory body. Bottom-up planning from the village level is one of its stated objectives, but that objective does not explain its legal status.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q112, final key
- Q110 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect co-ordination between the States and between Center and the States.
Reason (R) : Rajmannar Committee made a strong case for establishment of the Inter-State Council.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
Article 263 lets the President set up an Inter-State Council for coordination. The Rajamannar Committee (Tamil Nadu, 1969) did recommend such a council, but the Article predates the committee, so R cannot explain A.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q113, final key
- Q111 Indian Constitution
Which of the following will be the correct consequences of declaration of National Emergency by the President ?
A. The President can modify the constitutional distribution of finances between the Center and the States.
B. The Center becomes entitled to give executive directions to a State on any matter.
C. The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A and B only
During a national emergency the President may modify revenue distribution (Art. 354) and the Centre may direct States on any matter (Art. 353). Rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended (44th Amendment), so C is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q114, final key
- Q112 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements are correct ?
A. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is also known as Social Action Litigation.
B. PIL is an outcome of Judicial Restraint.
C. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P. N. Bhagawathi were pioneers of the concept of PIL.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A and C only
PIL, also called social action litigation, grew out of judicial activism, not restraint. Justices V. R. Krishna Iyer and P. N. Bhagwati pioneered it.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q115, final key
- Q113 Indian Constitution
Which of the following is not on Center – State Relations ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Indrajit Guptha Committee
The Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) dealt with state funding of elections. Sarkaria (1983), Rajamannar (1969) and Punchhi (2007) all examined Centre-State relations.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q116, final key
- Q114 Indian Constitution
Which of the following is not a condition for the political party to be recognised as National Party ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. None of the above
Under the Election Symbols Order a party is national if it meets any one of three tests: 2% of Lok Sabha seats from at least three States, 6% of votes in four States plus four Lok Sabha seats, or recognition as a State party in four States. All three listed are conditions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q117, final key
- Q115 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
A. 18 functional items were placed within the purview of Panchayats.
B. The Act does not apply to the States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram.
C. The Act bars interference by courts in the electoral matters of Panchayats.
D. Reservation of seats to BCs is a compulsory provision under this Act.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A and D only
The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 items, not 18, and reservation for backward classes is left to the States. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram are exempt (Art. 243M) and Article 243-O bars courts in panchayat electoral matters, so B and C are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q118, final key
- Q116 Indian Constitution
The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
B. Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament.
C. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States.
D. Nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States.
E. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. A, C and E
Article 54 (with the 70th Amendment) puts only elected members in the electoral college: elected MPs of both Houses and elected MLAs of the States, Delhi and Puducherry. Nominated members take no part.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q119, final key
- Q117 Indian Constitution
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts was declared unconstitutional and void by the Supreme Court in 2015 ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
The 99th Amendment (2014) set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission; in October 2015 the Supreme Court struck it down as violating judicial independence, a basic feature.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q120, final key
- Q118 Indian Constitution
Match List – I with List – II and choose the right answer from the codes given below. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions) :
List – I List – II a. Separate representation of the Muslim Community i. Government of India Act, 1935 b. Dyarchy in the provinces ii. Indian Councils Act, 1892 c. Prescribed Federation iii. Indian Councils Act, 1909 d. Discussion of Annual Statement iv. Indian Councils Act, 1861 v. Government of India Act, 1919 Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a – iii b – v c – i d – ii
Separate electorates for Muslims came with the 1909 Act, provincial dyarchy with the 1919 Act, an all-India federation with the 1935 Act, and discussion of the budget (annual financial statement) with the 1892 Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q121, final key
- Q119 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Finance Commission ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Article 290 provides for the Constitution of Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280. It is a quasi-judicial advisory body with a chairman and four members. Article 290 deals with adjustment of pension expenses.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q122, final key
- Q120 Indian Constitution
Which of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Political Liberty
The Preamble secures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. 'Political' appears with justice (social, economic and political), not with liberty.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q123, final key
- Q121 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is/are correct ?
i. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney General of India.
ii. He shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
iii. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
iv. He shall receive remuneration as the Parliament may determine.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Only i and ii
Under Article 76 the AG must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge and has right of audience in all courts. He holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives remuneration the President determines.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q124, final key
- Q122 Indian Constitution
Match the Constitutions of different countries given in List – A with their Provisions given in List – B which are adopted in Indian Constitution. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions)
List – A List – B a. UK Constitution i. The idea of Residual Powers b. Irish Constitution ii. The idea of Rule of Law c. United States of America Constitution iii. Directive Principles of State Policy d. Canadian Constitution iv. Power of Judicial Review Codes :
(a b c d)
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. ii iii iv i
Rule of law comes from Britain, the Directive Principles from Ireland, judicial review from the USA and residuary powers with the Centre from Canada.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q125, final key
- Q123 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements are correct about Presidential system ?
i. President is head of the State.
ii. President is head of the Government.
iii. President is directly elected by the people.
iv. President is accountable to legislature.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Only i, ii and iii are correct
In a presidential system (e.g. the USA) the President is both head of State and head of Government and is elected by the people for a fixed term. He is not accountable to the legislature, which is the mark of a parliamentary system.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q126, final key
- Q124 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements about State Finance Commission is/are correct ?
i. This Commission examines the financial position of the local governments in the State.
ii. It also reviews the distribution of revenues between the State and Local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both i and ii
Under Articles 243-I and 243-Y the State Finance Commission, set up every five years, reviews the finances of panchayats and municipalities and recommends how State revenues are shared with them.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q127, final key
- Q125 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements about the Vice President of India are correct ?
i. The Vice President is elected for five years.
ii. The Vice President acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
iii. The Vice President acts as the President only until a new President is elected.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. All i, ii and iii
The Vice President has a five-year term (Art. 67), is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Art. 64) and acts as President in a vacancy only until a new President takes office (Art. 65).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q128, final key
-
21 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q126 Indian Constitution
In which of the following hours, members of the Parliament are free to raise any matter that they think is important ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Zero hour
Zero Hour, an informal practice starting around noon right after Question Hour, lets members raise urgent matters without prior notice. Question Hour is limited to questions on notice.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q129, final key
- Q127 Indian Constitution
The most powerful weapon that enables the Parliament to ensure executive accountability is
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. No Confidence Motion
A no-confidence motion, if passed in the Lok Sabha, forces the whole Council of Ministers to resign (collective responsibility, Art. 75(3)), so it is the strongest check on the executive.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q130, final key
- Q128 Indian Constitution
Correctly match the following in List – A with List – B. (Common codes for English and Telugu Versions)
List – A List – B a. Art. 137 i. Restoring Fundamental Rights by Supreme Court by issuing writs. b. Art. 226 ii. Power of Supreme Court to review any judgment pronounced or Order made by it. c. Art. 13 iii. The High Courts also have the power to issue Writs for protecting Fundamental Rights. d. Art. 32 iv. Supreme Court can declare the concerned law as unconstitutional. Codes :
(a b c d)
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. ii iii iv i
Article 137 lets the Supreme Court review its own judgments; Article 226 gives High Courts writ power; Article 13 voids laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights (the basis of judicial review); Article 32 lets the Supreme Court issue writs to enforce Fundamental Rights.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q131, final key
- Q129 Indian Constitution
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act came into effect on
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. 31st October 2019
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 took effect on 31 October 2019, creating the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q132, final key
- Q130 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : Right to Property is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
Reason (R) : 44th Amendment Act of 1978 eliminated the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The 44th Amendment (1978) repealed Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 and inserted Article 300-A in Part XII, so property became a constitutional legal right instead of a Fundamental Right. R explains A.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q133, final key
- Q131 Indian Constitution
Regarding the Panchayat Raj System, in 1978 Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. two tier system with four years of term
The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977-78) proposed a two-tier system of Zila Parishad and Mandal Panchayat with a four-year term. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee had proposed three tiers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q134, final key
- Q132 Indian Constitution
Of the following, which are the appointments made by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister ?
i. Chief Justice of India
ii. Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts
iii. Attorney General of India
iv. Governors of States
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. All of the above
Under Article 74 the President makes all these appointments on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. For judges the collegium recommends, but the formal warrant still goes to the President through the government's advice.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q135, final key
- Q133 Indian Constitution
Which of the following provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act related to Panchayat Raj Institutions is/are correct ?
i. The members of these bodies are directly elected by the people.
ii. Elections shall be held within a period of 3 months from the dissolution of the body.
iii. Women have been given 1/3rd reservation in Panchayats.
iv. The minimum age required to become member is 21 years.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. i, iii and iv only
Members at all levels are directly elected (Art. 243C), at least one-third of seats are reserved for women (Art. 243D) and the minimum age is 21 (Art. 243F). After dissolution, elections must be held within six months, not three (Art. 243E).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q136, final key
- Q134 Indian Constitution
Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : One of the most controversial Articles in the Constitution is Article 356.
Reason (R) : It is imposed when the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Article 356 (President's Rule) applies when the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. That ground is broad and open to subjective judgement, which is why the Article became one of the most controversial and was often misused to dismiss State governments (checked in S. R. Bommai, 1994). The APPSC final key treats R as the correct explanation of A.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q137, final key
- Q135 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : Mandamus normally is not issued to Govt. for making law.
Reason (R) : Mandamus cannot lie in absence of policy. Once policy is laid down, terms of policy can be enforced.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Mandamus enforces an existing public duty; courts do not direct the legislature or government to make a law or frame a policy. Only after a policy exists can its terms be enforced, which is why mandamus does not issue for law-making.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q138, final key
- Q136 Indian Constitution
Assertion (A) : Directive Principles of State Policy are not capable of being independently enforced in a Court of Law.
Reason (R) : They act as guide post for legislation.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Article 37 makes the DPSP non-justiciable while declaring them fundamental in governance. They do guide legislation, but their non-enforceability flows from Article 37 itself, not from their guiding role.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q139, final key
- Q137 Indian Constitution
Are the statements given below in the Indian Constitution ?
Statement (A) : Ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
Statement (B) : Operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both Statements (A) and (B) are present
These are Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) of the Directive Principles, nearly word for word.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q140, final key
- Q138 Indian Constitution
Directive Principles of State Policy contain which of the following ?
a. Free Legal Aid
b. Maternity Relief
c. Living Wage
d. Safeguarding of Forests
e. Protection of Monuments
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a, b, c, d and e
Free legal aid (Art. 39A), maternity relief (Art. 42), living wage (Art. 43), safeguarding forests (Art. 48A) and protection of monuments (Art. 49) are all Directive Principles.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q141, final key
- Q139 Indian Constitution
Panchayats have responsibilities in respect of which of the following as per the Eleventh Schedule ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Libraries
Libraries are item 20 of the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats). Slaughter houses, regulation of land use and burial grounds are items of the Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q142, final key
- Q140 Indian Constitution
Municipalities have Constitutional responsibilities in respect of which of the following as per the Twelfth Schedule ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Cattle Pounds
Cattle pounds and prevention of cruelty to animals is item 17 of the Twelfth Schedule. Non-conventional energy, small-scale industries and technical/vocational education are Eleventh Schedule (Panchayat) items.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q143, final key
- Q141 Indian Constitution
Statement (A) : There is no fundamental right to marry.
Statement (B) : Right to travel abroad comes under the purview of Fundamental Rights.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both Statements (A) and (B) are right
In Supriyo v. Union of India (2023) the Supreme Court held there is no unqualified fundamental right to marry. The right to travel abroad is part of personal liberty under Article 21 (Satwant Singh 1967, Maneka Gandhi 1978).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q144, final key
- Q142 Indian Constitution
Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty as mentioned in the Constitution ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. To protect the elderly, differently abled and children
Article 51A covers public property and non-violence (i), composite culture (f) and harmony and brotherhood (e). Protecting the elderly and differently abled is not a listed duty; the only child-related duty is education for children aged 6-14 (k).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q145, final key
- Q143 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
i. Under Section 81 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA) 1951, no election can be called in question except by an election petition presented in accordance with the provisions of this part.
ii. Only the High Courts have original jurisdiction on deciding on election petitions.
iii. An election petition calling in question an election shall be filed within the time period of 30 days from the date of declaration of results.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Only ii
The bar on questioning an election except by petition is Section 80, not Section 81 (which covers presentation of petitions). Section 80A makes the High Court the court for election petitions under the RPA. The limit is 45 days from the result, not 30.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q146, final key
- Q144 Indian Constitution
With reference to the Indian Judiciary, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
i. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court Judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
ii. A High Court in India has the power to review its own Judgement as the Supreme Court does although there has been no specific power of review conferred on it by the Constitution.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both i and ii
Article 128 lets the CJI, with the President's previous consent, request a retired Supreme Court judge to sit again. High Courts, as courts of record (Art. 215), have an inherent power to review their own judgments although no Article confers it expressly.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q147, final key
- Q145 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements regarding the administration of tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is/are correct ?
i. It is applicable in all States where Scheduled Tribes make up more than 40% of the State's population.
ii. These areas are outside the authority of the State Legislature as well as State Executive.
iii. Only the President can organise and reorganise the autonomous districts in these areas.
iv. The High Court of the State does not have any jurisdiction in these areas.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. None
The Sixth Schedule applies only to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, not by a population threshold. These areas remain within the State's executive authority; the Governor (not the President) organises and reorganises autonomous districts; and the High Court has jurisdiction as Parliament specifies.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q149, final key
- Q146 Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
i. Floating Constituencies are the constituencies without fixed geographical borders.
ii. In the constituency of Sangha in Sikkim, only Buddhist monks can contest and vote.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both i and ii
A floating (non-territorial) constituency has no fixed geographical boundary. Sikkim's Sangha Assembly seat is one such: only members of the Buddhist monastic sanghas registered there may vote and contest.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q150, final key
Want your score and what to study next?
Take this test in Medha AI with a timer and negative marks, or download it as a PDF above.
Start freeMore free papers
The questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations and checked them against the sources shown. Medha AI is an independent preparation service. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to APPSC, TSPSC, MPSC, UPSC or any other commission or government body.