APPSC Group 2 · Mains Paper I · Topic 2
2 APPSC Group 2 Indian Constitution questions with answers
150 questions from APPSC G2 Mains Paper I Mock 1 with answers and APPSC G2 Screening Test 2024 question paper with answers and APPSC G2 Mains Paper I 2025 question paper with answers. Try each one, then tap Show answer.
Previous-paper questions are as in the original paper. Medha AI wrote the answers and explanations.
2.3Preamble, features & sourcesNotes
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Which one of the following is NOT a unitary feature of the Constitution of India?
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Answer D. Written Constitution
A written constitution is a federal feature. Single citizenship, an integrated judiciary and the All-India Services are unitary features.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.33
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Since which year has 26 November been observed as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) in India?
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Answer B. 2015
The Government of India decided in 2015 to observe 26 November, the day the Constitution was adopted, as Constitution Day.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.35
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The Preamble of the Constitution of India is based on the Objectives Resolution moved in the Constituent Assembly by:
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Answer B. Jawaharlal Nehru
The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.35,17
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Which of the following were borrowed from the Irish Constitution?
I. Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Method of election of the President
III. Nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha
IV. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer B. I, II and III only
The Directive Principles, the method of electing the President and the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha came from Ireland. The Fundamental Duties came from the former USSR.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.20
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Match List I (Part of the Constitution) with List II (subject):
List I
a. Part IVA
b. Part IXB
c. Part XIVA
d. Part XVII
List II
I. Official Language
II. Tribunals
III. The Co-operative Societies
IV. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer A. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Part IVA - Fundamental Duties; Part IXB - Co-operative Societies; Part XIVA - Tribunals; Part XVII - Official Language.
Source: PW Polity ch.3 Salient Features; Constitution of India
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Who said that the Indian Constitution is a federal Constitution 'inasmuch as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity'?
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Answer B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Dr B.R. Ambedkar said this in the Constituent Assembly, explaining that the Union and the States both get their powers from the Constitution.
Source: PW Polity ch.4 System of Government
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Consider the following statements comparing the Indian and British parliamentary systems:
I. In India the Prime Minister may be a member of either House of Parliament.
II. India has no formal institution of a shadow cabinet.
III. In India, as in Britain, ministers are legally responsible and must countersign the official acts of the head of State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. In India there is no system of legal responsibility of ministers; they do not countersign the acts of the President.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.32
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The term "Secular" was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
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Answer B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q77, final key
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Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Borrowed Feature) List - II (Source) a. Emergency Provisions i. United Kingdom b. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency ii. Australia c. Concept of Concurrent List iii. Government of India Act, 1935 d. Single Citizenship iv. German Constitution v. USA Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
The emergency provisions come from the Government of India Act 1935, suspension of fundamental rights during emergency from the Weimar (German) constitution, the Concurrent List from Australia and single citizenship from the UK.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q78, final key
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Which of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
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Answer A. Political Liberty
The Preamble secures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. 'Political' appears with justice (social, economic and political), not with liberty.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q123, final key
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Match the Constitutions of different countries given in List – A with their Provisions given in List – B which are adopted in Indian Constitution. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions)
List – A List – B a. UK Constitution i. The idea of Residual Powers b. Irish Constitution ii. The idea of Rule of Law c. United States of America Constitution iii. Directive Principles of State Policy d. Canadian Constitution iv. Power of Judicial Review Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer B. ii iii iv i
Rule of law comes from Britain, the Directive Principles from Ireland, judicial review from the USA and residuary powers with the Centre from Canada.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q125, final key
2.11Judiciary & writsNotes
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Consider the following statements about subordinate courts:
I. Persons other than district judges are appointed to the judicial service of a State by the Governor in accordance with rules made after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and the High Court.
II. Posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons in the judicial service holding posts below the rank of district judge are controlled by the High Court.
III. District judges are appointed by the Chief Justice of the High Court after consulting the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Only statement III is wrong. Under Article 233, district judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Statements I and II reflect Articles 234 and 235.
Source: Constitution of India, Arts 233-235; Polity reference p.115
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Which Article of the Constitution enables Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court the power to issue directions, orders or writs for purposes other than the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
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Answer B. Article 139
Article 139 lets Parliament by law confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs for purposes other than those in Article 32(2), which covers Fundamental Rights.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 139
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Match List I (Article) with List II (Subject relating to the Supreme Court):
List I
a. Article 138
b. Article 140
c. Article 145
d. Article 146
List II
I. Rules of court
II. Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court
III. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
IV. Ancillary powers of the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer D. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Article 138 provides for enlargement of jurisdiction, Article 140 for ancillary powers, Article 145 for rules of court and Article 146 for officers, servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.
Source: Constitution of India, Arts 138, 140, 145, 146
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Under Article 236 of the Constitution, the expression 'district judge' does NOT include which one of the following?
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Answer D. Judicial Magistrate of the second class
Article 236(a) includes judges of city civil courts, additional, joint and assistant district judges, the chief judge of a small cause court, chief and additional chief presidency magistrates, and sessions, additional sessions and assistant sessions judges. Judicial magistrates of the second class are not included.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 236; Polity reference p.115
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Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Writ) List - II (Meaning) a. Quo-Warranto i. to be certified b. Mandamus ii. by what Authority c. Habeas Corpus iii. we command d. Certiorari iv. to have the body of Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Quo warranto means 'by what authority', mandamus 'we command', habeas corpus 'to have the body of' and certiorari 'to be certified' (informed).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q87, final key
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The concept of Judicial Activism was originated and developed in
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Answer A. USA
Judicial activism grew out of the US Supreme Court's practice of judicial review; the term was coined there in 1947 (Arthur Schlesinger Jr.).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q88, final key
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The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
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Answer C. Parliament
Article 124(1) lets Parliament fix the number of Supreme Court judges by law (the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q100, final key
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Which of the following statements are correct ?
A. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is also known as Social Action Litigation.
B. PIL is an outcome of Judicial Restraint.
C. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P. N. Bhagawathi were pioneers of the concept of PIL.
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Answer A. A and C only
PIL, also called social action litigation, grew out of judicial activism, not restraint. Justices V. R. Krishna Iyer and P. N. Bhagwati pioneered it.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q115, final key
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Correctly match the following in List – A with List – B. (Common codes for English and Telugu Versions)
List – A List – B a. Art. 137 i. Restoring Fundamental Rights by Supreme Court by issuing writs. b. Art. 226 ii. Power of Supreme Court to review any judgment pronounced or Order made by it. c. Art. 13 iii. The High Courts also have the power to issue Writs for protecting Fundamental Rights. d. Art. 32 iv. Supreme Court can declare the concerned law as unconstitutional. Codes :
(a b c d)
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Answer B. ii iii iv i
Article 137 lets the Supreme Court review its own judgments; Article 226 gives High Courts writ power; Article 13 voids laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights (the basis of judicial review); Article 32 lets the Supreme Court issue writs to enforce Fundamental Rights.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q131, final key
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Assertion (A) : Mandamus normally is not issued to Govt. for making law.
Reason (R) : Mandamus cannot lie in absence of policy. Once policy is laid down, terms of policy can be enforced.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Mandamus enforces an existing public duty; courts do not direct the legislature or government to make a law or frame a policy. Only after a policy exists can its terms be enforced, which is why mandamus does not issue for law-making.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q138, final key
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With reference to the Indian Judiciary, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
i. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court Judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
ii. A High Court in India has the power to review its own Judgement as the Supreme Court does although there has been no specific power of review conferred on it by the Constitution.
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Answer C. Both i and ii
Article 128 lets the CJI, with the President's previous consent, request a retired Supreme Court judge to sit again. High Courts, as courts of record (Art. 215), have an inherent power to review their own judgments although no Article confers it expressly.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q147, final key
2.8DPSP & Fundamental DutiesNotes
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Which Article directs the State to secure to all workers a living wage and conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life?
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Answer A. Article 43
Article 43 deals with a living wage and a decent standard of life for workers; it also asks the State to promote cottage industries in rural areas.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 43
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Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution on the recommendations of
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Answer A. Swaran Singh Committee
The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended Fundamental Duties, added as Article 51A by the 42nd Amendment.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q76, final key
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The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by which Constitutional Amendment Act ?
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Answer B. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added Article 51A(k): a parent or guardian must provide opportunities for education to a child aged 6 to 14.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q108, final key
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Assertion (A) : Directive Principles of State Policy are not capable of being independently enforced in a Court of Law.
Reason (R) : They act as guide post for legislation.
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Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Article 37 makes the DPSP non-justiciable while declaring them fundamental in governance. They do guide legislation, but their non-enforceability flows from Article 37 itself, not from their guiding role.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q139, final key
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Are the statements given below in the Indian Constitution ?
Statement (A) : Ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
Statement (B) : Operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
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Answer B. Both Statements (A) and (B) are present
These are Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) of the Directive Principles, nearly word for word.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q140, final key
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Directive Principles of State Policy contain which of the following ?
a. Free Legal Aid
b. Maternity Relief
c. Living Wage
d. Safeguarding of Forests
e. Protection of Monuments
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Answer D. a, b, c, d and e
Free legal aid (Art. 39A), maternity relief (Art. 42), living wage (Art. 43), safeguarding forests (Art. 48A) and protection of monuments (Art. 49) are all Directive Principles.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q141, final key
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Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty as mentioned in the Constitution ?
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Answer C. To protect the elderly, differently abled and children
Article 51A covers public property and non-violence (i), composite culture (f) and harmony and brotherhood (e). Protecting the elderly and differently abled is not a listed duty; the only child-related duty is education for children aged 6-14 (k).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q145, final key
2.7Fundamental RightsNotes
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The expression 'procedure established by law' in Article 21 was borrowed from the Constitution of
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Answer B. Japan
'Procedure established by law' comes from the Japanese Constitution; 'due process of law' is an American concept.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
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Which Article of the Constitution declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void?
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Answer D. Article 13
Article 13 makes laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void to the extent of the inconsistency; it is the express basis of judicial review of laws.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
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Reservation of up to 10% for economically weaker sections (EWS) in educational institutions and public posts was provided by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
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Answer D. 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), allowing up to 10% reservation for EWS.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
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Consider the following statements:
I. In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot take away or abridge Fundamental Rights by a constitutional amendment.
II. The 24th Amendment Act, 1971 affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
III. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend any Fundamental Right at all.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Statement III is not correct: Kesavananda Bharati allowed Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights, but not to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work ch.2; PW Polity (FR chapter); Constitution of India Part III
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Consider the following statements about Article 23:
I. The expression 'traffic in human beings' includes immoral traffic in women and children and the devadasi system.
II. When the State imposes compulsory service for public purposes, it is bound to pay for such service.
III. The protection of Article 23 is available to non-citizens as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Article 23(2) lets the State impose compulsory service such as military or social service, and it is not bound to pay for it.
Source: PW Polity ch.8 Fundamental Rights
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Which of the following rights has the Supreme Court read into the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21?
I. Right to sleep
II. Right against public hanging
III. Right to decent burial or cremation
IV. Right to property
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer A. I, II and III only
Rights I, II and III have been read into Article 21. The right to property is a constitutional (legal) right under Article 300A after the 44th Amendment.
Source: PW Polity ch.8 Fundamental Rights
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution is described as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ?
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Answer B. Article 32
Ambedkar called Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, the very soul and heart of the Constitution.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q80, final key
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Assertion (A) : Right to Property is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
Reason (R) : 44th Amendment Act of 1978 eliminated the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The 44th Amendment (1978) repealed Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 and inserted Article 300-A in Part XII, so property became a constitutional legal right instead of a Fundamental Right. R explains A.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q133, final key
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Statement (A) : There is no fundamental right to marry.
Statement (B) : Right to travel abroad comes under the purview of Fundamental Rights.
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Answer B. Both Statements (A) and (B) are right
In Supriyo v. Union of India (2023) the Supreme Court held there is no unqualified fundamental right to marry. The right to travel abroad is part of personal liberty under Article 21 (Satwant Singh 1967, Maneka Gandhi 1978).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q144, final key
2.4Amendment & basic structureNotes
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Statement I: If the two Houses disagree on a Constitution Amendment Bill, the President can summon a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
Statement II: The President cannot withhold assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill passed in accordance with Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II only
There is no joint sitting for a Constitution Amendment Bill; each House must pass it separately. Since the 24th Amendment (1971), the President must give assent.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 3 (Amendment, Basic Structure); Constitution of India Art. 368(2), Art. 108
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Arrange the following Supreme Court cases in chronological order:
1. S.R. Bommai case
2. L. Chandra Kumar case
3. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
4. Minerva Mills case
Select the correct order:
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Answer D. 3-4-1-2
Indira Nehru Gandhi (1975), Minerva Mills (1980), S.R. Bommai (1994) and L. Chandra Kumar (1997).
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 3 (Amendment, Basic Structure); Constitution of India Art. 368
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Arrange the following constitutional changes in the order in which they were made, earliest first:
1. Law on disqualification on the ground of defection
2. Sikkim made a full-fledged State of the Union
3. Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years
4. Parliament's power to amend the Fundamental Rights expressly affirmed
Select the correct order:
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Answer D. 4-2-1-3
The order is the 24th Amendment (1971), the 36th Amendment on Sikkim (1975), the 52nd Amendment on defection (1985) and the 61st Amendment on voting age (Act of 1988, in force 1989).
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 3 (Amendment, Basic Structure); Constitution of India Arts. 326, 368, 371F; Tenth Schedule
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Which of the following statements are true regarding 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 ?
A. Gave Constitutional status and protection to Co-operative Societies.
B. Made the right to form Co-operative Societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19.
C. It added a new Part X-B to the Constitution.
D. Added new Directive Principle under Article 43-B.
Choose the right answer from the codes given below :
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Answer A. A, B and D only
The 97th Amendment gave co-operatives constitutional status, added 'co-operative societies' to Article 19(1)(c) and a new DPSP in Article 43B, but the new part it inserted is Part IX-B, not X-B. So A, B and D are true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q79, final key
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Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts was declared unconstitutional and void by the Supreme Court in 2015 ?
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Answer D. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
The 99th Amendment (2014) set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission; in October 2015 the Supreme Court struck it down as violating judicial independence, a basic feature.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q120, final key
2.10ParliamentNotes
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Failure of which of the following to pass in the Lok Sabha amounts to the defeat of the government?
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Answer B. The Motion of Thanks on the President's address
The Motion of Thanks on the President's address must be passed by the House; if it is defeated, it amounts to the defeat of the government.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 87
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Consider the following statements about the stages of an ordinary bill:
I. No amendments can be moved at the third reading.
II. The committee stage is a part of the second reading.
III. The bill is discussed clause by clause at the first reading.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer B. III only
Statement III is the incorrect one: at the first reading the bill is only introduced, with no discussion.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 107
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Consider the following statements about the Speaker pro tem:
Statement I: The Speaker pro tem is appointed by the President.
Statement II: The Speaker pro tem is elected by the members of the new Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
The President appoints the Speaker pro tem, usually the senior-most member, who administers the oath to new members and presides over the election of the Speaker.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 95(1), Art. 99
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Statement I: A no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha must state the reasons for its adoption.
Statement II: A censure motion in the Lok Sabha must state the reasons for its adoption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. II only
A no-confidence motion, moved under Rule 198 with 50 members' support, need not give reasons. A censure motion must state the reasons.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 75(3)
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Consider the following statements:
I. Adjournment sine die of a sitting is done by the presiding officer of the House.
II. Prorogation of a House is done by the President.
III. Prorogation causes all bills pending before the House to lapse.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer C. III only
Statement III is wrong: prorogation ends the session but does not make pending bills lapse. Adjournment sine die is by the presiding officer, and prorogation by the President under Article 85(2).
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Art. 85
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Consider the following statements about the duration of the Lok Sabha:
I. The Twelfth Lok Sabha, which first met in 1998, lasted only about thirteen months.
II. The Eleventh Lok Sabha completed its full term of five years.
III. The Fifth Lok Sabha was dissolved in January 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct: the Twelfth Lok Sabha was dissolved in April 1999 and is the shortest so far; the Fifth Lok Sabha was dissolved in January 1977, after its term had been extended. Statement II is wrong because the Eleventh Lok Sabha (1996-97) was dissolved after about a year and a half.
Source: Standard polity reference (Lok Sabha: duration)
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Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The office of whip in Parliament is not mentioned in the Constitution of India and is based on parliamentary conventions.
Statement II: A three-line whip instructs members to vote according to the party line.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both statements are correct. The whip is a conventional office, and a three-line whip directs members to vote as the party decides; a one-line whip only informs members of a vote.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Tenth Schedule
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Consider the following statements about the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
I. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
II. Whenever he is appointed a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman.
III. He resigns his office by writing addressed to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct. Under Article 94(b) the Deputy Speaker addresses his resignation to the Speaker, not the President.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 15 (Parliament); Constitution of India Arts. 93, 94
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In which of the following hours, members of the Parliament are free to raise any matter that they think is important ?
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Answer A. Zero hour
Zero Hour, an informal practice starting around noon right after Question Hour, lets members raise urgent matters without prior notice. Question Hour is limited to questions on notice.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q129, final key
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The most powerful weapon that enables the Parliament to ensure executive accountability is
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Answer A. No Confidence Motion
A no-confidence motion, if passed in the Lok Sabha, forces the whole Council of Ministers to resign (collective responsibility, Art. 75(3)), so it is the strongest check on the executive.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q130, final key
2.17Elections & RPANotes
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The High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections (One Nation, One Election), constituted in September 2023, was chaired by
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Answer B. Ram Nath Kovind
The High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections was chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind.
Source: HLC on Simultaneous Elections report (March 2024); PW Polity p.155
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Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) ?
A. EVMs were used for the first time in the entire State of Goa in the general elections to the Assembly in 1999.
B. EVMs were used for the first time on experimental basis in the selected constituencies in the Assembly elections to the States of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat in 1998.
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Answer C. Only B
Goa (1999) was the first state to use EVMs in all its Assembly seats, so A is true. In 1998 EVMs were tried in selected seats of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Delhi, not Gujarat, so B is not true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q93, final key
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Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts reduced the minimum age for voting from 21 to 18 years ?
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Answer A. 61st Amendment Act
The 61st Amendment (1988, in force 1989) amended Article 326 to lower the voting age from 21 to 18.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q94, final key
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Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Committee) List - II (Related Electoral Reform) a. Vohra Committee i. Amendments to Criminal Law b. Indrajit Gupta Committee ii. Electoral Disqualifications c. Dinesh Goswami Committee iii. State funding of elections d. J. S. Varma Committee iv. Electoral reforms v. Nexus between crime and politics Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
The Vohra Committee (1993) reported on the criminal-politician nexus, Indrajit Gupta (1998) on state funding of elections, Dinesh Goswami (1990) on electoral reforms, and J.S. Verma (2013) on amending criminal law after the Delhi gang-rape case.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q95, final key
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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true relating to Election Commission of India ?
A. The Election Commission of India is a three member Body.
B. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India.
C. Election Commission of India is a Constitutional Body.
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Answer B. A and C
The ECI (Article 324) is a constitutional body with a CEC and two Election Commissioners, but the CEC is appointed by the President, not by the Chief Justice. So A and C are true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q96, final key
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Arrange the following political parties in the chronological order of their establishment.
A. Samaj Wadi Party
B. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
C. Bahujan Samaj Party
D. Telugu Desam Party
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. B, D, C, A
DMK was founded in 1949, the Telugu Desam Party in 1982, the Bahujan Samaj Party in 1984 and the Samajwadi Party in 1992.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q101, final key
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Which of the following is not a condition for the political party to be recognised as National Party ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. None of the above
Under the Election Symbols Order a party is national if it meets any one of three tests: 2% of Lok Sabha seats from at least three States, 6% of votes in four States plus four Lok Sabha seats, or recognition as a State party in four States. All three listed are conditions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q117, final key
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Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
i. Under Section 81 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA) 1951, no election can be called in question except by an election petition presented in accordance with the provisions of this part.
ii. Only the High Courts have original jurisdiction on deciding on election petitions.
iii. An election petition calling in question an election shall be filed within the time period of 30 days from the date of declaration of results.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Only ii
The bar on questioning an election except by petition is Section 80, not Section 81 (which covers presentation of petitions). Section 80A makes the High Court the court for election petitions under the RPA. The limit is 45 days from the result, not 30.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q146, final key
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Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
i. Floating Constituencies are the constituencies without fixed geographical borders.
ii. In the constituency of Sangha in Sikkim, only Buddhist monks can contest and vote.
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Answer C. Both i and ii
A floating (non-territorial) constituency has no fixed geographical boundary. Sikkim's Sangha Assembly seat is one such: only members of the Buddhist monastic sanghas registered there may vote and contest.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q150, final key
2.14Local government (73rd/74th)Notes
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Consider the following statements about the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
I. It added Part IXA, consisting of Articles 243P to 243ZG.
II. It added the Twelfth Schedule containing 29 matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I only
Only I is correct: the 74th Amendment added Part IXA (Articles 243P-243ZG) and the Twelfth Schedule with 18 matters.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.125; Constitution of India Part IXA
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Article 243W, which enables the State Legislature to endow Municipalities with powers and responsibilities, refers to the matters listed in the
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Twelfth Schedule
Article 243W refers to the 18 matters in the Twelfth Schedule; Article 243G refers to the Eleventh Schedule for Panchayats.
Source: Constitution of India Arts 243G, 243W
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Andhra Pradesh has raised the reservation of seats for women in its Panchayat Raj institutions from the constitutional minimum of one-third to
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Answer C. 50 per cent
Andhra Pradesh provides 50 per cent reservation for women in Panchayat Raj institutions, above the one-third minimum in Article 243D(3).
Source: AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 ch.10 p.80; AP SCERT Class 6 Social Studies Sem-2 ch.10
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The State Finance Commission for Panchayats is provided for in
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Answer C. Article 243I
Article 243I provides for the State Finance Commission; Article 243Y applies it to Municipalities.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.124; Constitution of India Art. 243I
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Consider the following statements about the composition of Panchayats under Article 243C:
I. Apart from the representation that State law may provide under Article 243C(3), all seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies.
II. The chairperson of a Panchayat at the intermediate or district level is elected by and from among its elected members.
III. The Constitution requires direct election of the chairperson of a village Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
All Panchayat seats are filled by direct election; intermediate and district chairpersons are elected indirectly, while the method for the village chairperson is left to State law.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.123; Constitution of India Art. 243C
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Consider the following matters:
I. Fisheries
II. Libraries
III. Fire services
IV. Markets and fairs
How many of the above are listed in the Eleventh Schedule?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Only three
Fisheries, libraries and markets and fairs are Eleventh Schedule items; fire services is in the Twelfth Schedule, so three are listed.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies pp.123, 126; Constitution of India Eleventh Schedule
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Consider the following statements about the District Planning Committee:
I. It consolidates the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district.
II. Not less than two-thirds of its members are elected by and from the elected members of the district Panchayat and the Municipalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I only
Only I is correct: the DPC consolidates local plans, and not less than four-fifths of its members are elected from among elected members of local bodies.
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.127; Constitution of India Art. 243ZD
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Consider the following statements about qualifications and reservation in Panchayats:
I. In Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015), the Supreme Court upheld a State law prescribing minimum educational qualifications for contesting Panchayat elections.
II. In K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India (2010), the Supreme Court struck down Article 243D(6), which enables reservation for backward classes.
III. Article 243F allows the State Legislature by law to lay down disqualifications for membership of a Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct: Art. 243F lets State law add disqualifications, which Rajbala (2015) upheld for education; K. Krishna Murthy (2010) upheld, not struck down, Art. 243D(6).
Source: PW Polity ch.18 Panchayats, Municipalities and Cooperative Societies p.125; Constitution of India Arts. 243D, 243F
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The State Election Commission conducts elections to
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Answer A. Local Bodies
Under Articles 243K and 243ZA, the State Election Commission conducts elections to panchayats and municipalities.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q89, final key
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Arrange the following Committees of Panchayat Raj in chronological order.
a. Gadgil Committee
b. Dantwala Committee
c. L. M. Singhvi Committee
d. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. d, b, c, a
Balwant Rai Mehta (1957), Dantwala (1978), L.M. Singhvi (1986), Gadgil (1988).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q90, final key
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The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 came into force on
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Answer C. 1st June, 1993
The 74th Amendment (municipalities) came into force on 1 June 1993; the 73rd (panchayats) came into force on 24 April 1993.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q91, final key
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Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
A. The Cantonments Act was passed by the Central Legislature in 1924.
B. The first municipal corporation came into existence at Madras in 1688.
C. Lord Rippon is regarded as the Father of Local Self Government in India.
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Answer B. A, B and C
The Cantonments Act was passed in 1924, the Madras Municipal Corporation was set up in 1688 as India's first, and Lord Ripon's 1882 resolution earned him the title Father of Local Self-Government. All three are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q92, final key
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Assertion (A) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.
Reason (R) : This Act has brought the Panchayath Raj institutions under the purview of justiciable part of the Constitution.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The 73rd Amendment gave panchayats constitutional status (Part IX), so States are bound to hold elections and devolve powers. Bringing them into the justiciable part of the Constitution is what makes the Act a landmark.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q110, final key
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Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
A. 18 functional items were placed within the purview of Panchayats.
B. The Act does not apply to the States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram.
C. The Act bars interference by courts in the electoral matters of Panchayats.
D. Reservation of seats to BCs is a compulsory provision under this Act.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A and D only
The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 items, not 18, and reservation for backward classes is left to the States. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram are exempt (Art. 243M) and Article 243-O bars courts in panchayat electoral matters, so B and C are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q118, final key
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Which of the following statements about State Finance Commission is/are correct ?
i. This Commission examines the financial position of the local governments in the State.
ii. It also reviews the distribution of revenues between the State and Local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. Both i and ii
Under Articles 243-I and 243-Y the State Finance Commission, set up every five years, reviews the finances of panchayats and municipalities and recommends how State revenues are shared with them.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q127, final key
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Regarding the Panchayat Raj System, in 1978 Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for
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Answer A. two tier system with four years of term
The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977-78) proposed a two-tier system of Zila Parishad and Mandal Panchayat with a four-year term. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee had proposed three tiers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q134, final key
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Which of the following provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act related to Panchayat Raj Institutions is/are correct ?
i. The members of these bodies are directly elected by the people.
ii. Elections shall be held within a period of 3 months from the dissolution of the body.
iii. Women have been given 1/3rd reservation in Panchayats.
iv. The minimum age required to become member is 21 years.
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Answer C. i, iii and iv only
Members at all levels are directly elected (Art. 243C), at least one-third of seats are reserved for women (Art. 243D) and the minimum age is 21 (Art. 243F). After dissolution, elections must be held within six months, not three (Art. 243E).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q136, final key
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Panchayats have responsibilities in respect of which of the following as per the Eleventh Schedule ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Libraries
Libraries are item 20 of the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats). Slaughter houses, regulation of land use and burial grounds are items of the Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q142, final key
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Municipalities have Constitutional responsibilities in respect of which of the following as per the Twelfth Schedule ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Cattle Pounds
Cattle pounds and prevention of cruelty to animals is item 17 of the Twelfth Schedule. Non-conventional energy, small-scale industries and technical/vocational education are Eleventh Schedule (Panchayat) items.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q143, final key
2.13Centre-State relations & federalismNotes
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The Zonal Councils were established under the
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. States Reorganisation Act, 1956
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies set up under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.69
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Consider the following statements about freedom of trade and commerce in Part XIII of the Constitution:
I. A State Legislature may impose restrictions on trade between States in the public interest under Article 302.
II. A State bill imposing reasonable restrictions under Article 304(b) needs the previous sanction of the President.
III. Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. II and III only
Statements II and III are correct: Art. 301 declares freedom of trade, and an Art. 304(b) State bill needs the President's previous sanction; Art. 302 restrictions are imposed by Parliament, not a State.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India pp.64, 68; Constitution of India Arts. 301-304
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Which one of the following does NOT empower Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List?
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Answer D. Article 258
Article 258 only lets the President entrust Union executive functions to a State; it confers no power to legislate on State List matters.
Source: Constitution of India Arts 249-253, 258
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Match the Articles in List I with the arrangement of taxes in List II:
List I
a. Article 268
b. Article 269
c. Article 270
d. Article 271
List II
I. Levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States
II. Surcharge on certain taxes exclusively for the Union
III. Levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States
IV. Levied and collected by the Union and distributed between the Union and the States
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
Art. 268 duties are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by States; Art. 269 taxes are assigned to States; Art. 270 taxes are shared; the Art. 271 surcharge goes to the Union.
Source: PW Polity ch.11 Federal Dynamics in India p.67; Constitution of India Arts. 268-271
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Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. Residuary powers of legislation are included in Article 248 of the Constitution of India.
B. The Union Parliament has exclusive powers over any item not covered in the State or Concurrent Lists.
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Answer C. Both A and B
Article 248 (with Entry 97 of the Union List) gives Parliament exclusive power to legislate on any matter not in the State or Concurrent List, so both statements are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q86, final key
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Who described Indian Union as, "a federation with a centralising tendency" ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Ivor Jennings
Sir Ivor Jennings called India 'a federation with a strong centralising tendency'.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q99, final key
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Which of the following violate the federal principles of the Indian Constitution ?
A. Office of the Governor
B. Central Services
C. Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
D. Emergency Powers
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. A, C and D
A Centre-appointed Governor, a single CAG auditing both Union and State accounts, and emergency powers that let the Centre override States are cited as departures from federalism. Central Services serve only the Union, so they do not affect State autonomy (unlike All India Services).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q103, final key
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Match List – I with List – II. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions)
List – I (Subject) List – II (List) a. Organisation of High Courts i. Concurrent List b. Taxes on Mineral Rights ii. Union List c. Education iii. State List Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a – ii b – iii c – i
Constitution and organisation of High Courts is Union List entry 78; taxes on mineral rights are State List entry 50; education is Concurrent List entry 25 (moved there by the 42nd Amendment).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q104, final key
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The Parliament can make laws on subjects enumerated in the State list in the following conditions
A. On the request of two or more States.
B. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with at least two-thirds of the members present and voting, authorizing the Parliament to make laws on the subject in the national interest.
C. Proclamation of International Agreements.
D. The Lok Sabha passes a resolution with at least two-thirds of the members present and voting, authorizing the Parliament to make laws on the subject in the national interest.
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. A, B and C only
Parliament may legislate on State subjects on a Rajya Sabha resolution (Art. 249), at the request of two or more States (Art. 252) and to implement international agreements (Art. 253). A Lok Sabha resolution has no such effect.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q107, final key
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Assertion (A) : The All India Services violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of States.
Reason (R) : The All India Service officers are governed by Central Government rules and the State Governments do not have full control over them.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
All India Service officers serve the States but are recruited, governed and ultimately disciplined by the Centre, so States lack full control over them. That is exactly why the services are said to dent State autonomy.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q111, final key
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Assertion (A) : Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect co-ordination between the States and between Center and the States.
Reason (R) : Rajmannar Committee made a strong case for establishment of the Inter-State Council.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
Article 263 lets the President set up an Inter-State Council for coordination. The Rajamannar Committee (Tamil Nadu, 1969) did recommend such a council, but the Article predates the committee, so R cannot explain A.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q113, final key
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Which of the following is not on Center – State Relations ?
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Answer B. Indrajit Guptha Committee
The Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) dealt with state funding of elections. Sarkaria (1983), Rajamannar (1969) and Punchhi (2007) all examined Centre-State relations.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q116, final key
2.15Constitutional bodiesNotes
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Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution of India deal with:
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Answer A. Public Service Commissions
Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV deal with the Union and State Public Service Commissions.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies; Constitution Part XIV
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A Joint State Public Service Commission for two or more States is created by:
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Parliament by law, after the legislatures of the States concerned pass resolutions
Under Article 315(2), Parliament may by law provide for a Joint State Public Service Commission if the legislature of each State concerned passes a resolution; hence it is a statutory body.
Source: PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies (JSPSC); Constitution Art. 315(2)
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Under Article 148(5), the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by rules made by
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. the President after consultation with the CAG
Article 148(5) leaves these conditions of service, and the CAG's administrative powers, to rules made by the President after consultation with the CAG.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 148(5)
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Consider the following statements about reports of Public Service Commissions:
I. The UPSC presents an annual report on its work to the President.
II. The President places the report before each House of Parliament with a memorandum explaining the cases where the Commission's advice was not accepted.
III. A Joint State Public Service Commission presents its annual report to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. I and II only
Statements I and II are correct under Article 323(1). Under Article 323(2), a Joint Commission reports to the Governor of each State it serves, not to the President.
Source: Constitution Art. 323; PW Polity ch.20 Constitutional Bodies
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Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:
I. The President or the Governor of a State shall, when requested by the Election Commission, make available to it the staff necessary for its functions.
II. The Constitution does not prescribe any qualifications for members of the Election Commission.
III. The Constitution does not fix the term of office of the Election Commissioners.
IV. The Constitution debars retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. I, II and III only
I, II and III are correct; unlike the CAG (Art. 148(4)), the Constitution places no bar on further appointment of retiring Election Commissioners.
Source: Constitution of India Art. 324; PW Polity p.134
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Consider the following statements:
I. The National Commission for Backward Classes consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other members.
II. After the 105th Amendment, States may prepare and maintain their own lists of socially and educationally backward classes.
III. The National Commission for Backward Classes was the first national commission for weaker sections to be given constitutional status.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. III only
Only III is incorrect: constitutional status came first to the National Commission for SCs and STs (65th Amendment, 1990), and to the NCBC only in 2018 (102nd Amendment).
Source: Constitution of India Arts 338, 338B, 342A
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Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (National Commission) List - II (Name of First Chairperson) a. National Commission for STs i. Justice R. N. Prasad b. National Commission for Minorities ii. Kunwar Singh c. National Commission for SCs iii. Justice Mohammad Sardar Ali Khan d. National Commission for BCs iv. Suraj Bhan Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Kunwar Singh headed the first separate NCST (2004), Justice Mohammad Sardar Ali Khan the first statutory NCM (1993), Suraj Bhan the first separate NCSC (2004) and Justice R.N. Prasad the first NCBC (1993).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q85, final key
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In the list given below, how many are Constitutional Bodies ?
a. NITI Aayog
b. National Commission for Minorities
c. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
d. National Human Rights Commission
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. 1
Only the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (Article 350B) is constitutional. NITI Aayog was set up by a cabinet resolution, and the NCM (1992 Act) and NHRC (1993 Act) are statutory.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q97, final key
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Assertion (A) : The UPSC is the Central recruiting agency in India.
Reason (R) : It is an independent recruiting constitutional body.
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
The UPSC is the Union's central recruiting agency and is an independent constitutional body (Articles 315-323). Its being independent and constitutional does not explain why it is the recruiting agency; Article 320 assigns that function.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q109, final key
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Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Finance Commission ?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Article 290 provides for the Constitution of Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280. It is a quasi-judicial advisory body with a chairman and four members. Article 290 deals with adjustment of pension expenses.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q122, final key
2.18Emergency, special provisions & schedulesNotes
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Consider the following statements about the Schedules of the Constitution:
I. The original Constitution had 8 Schedules; it now has 12.
II. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
III. The Eleventh Schedule contains 18 subjects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. I and II only
I and II are correct; the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats) has 29 subjects, while the Twelfth (Municipalities) has 18.
Source: PW Polity p.22
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Statement A: Once approved by Parliament, a National Emergency remains in force for one year at a time unless revoked earlier.
Statement B: A National Emergency cannot remain in force for more than three years in all.
Which of the following is correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Neither A nor B
Neither is correct: an approved National Emergency continues for six months at a time and can be extended indefinitely; the three-year limit applies to President's Rule.
Source: PW Polity ch.12 Emergency Provisions p.71
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Arrange the following changes to the Eighth Schedule in chronological order:
a. Addition of Bodo
b. Addition of Sindhi
c. Renaming of 'Oriya' as 'Odia'
d. Addition of Konkani
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. b, d, a, c
Sindhi (21st Amendment, 1967), Konkani (71st, 1992), Bodo (92nd, 2003), Odia renaming (96th, 2011).
Source: PW Polity p.22
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Consider the following statements about the minimum strength of Legislative Assemblies fixed by special provisions:
I. The Mizoram Assembly shall consist of not less than 40 members.
II. The Goa Assembly shall consist of not less than 30 members.
III. The Sikkim Assembly shall consist of not less than 40 members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answerHide answer
Answer B. I and II only
I (Art. 371G) and II (Art. 371I) are correct; under Article 371F the Sikkim Assembly must have not less than 30 members.
Source: PW Polity, Special Provisions in Constitution p.130; Constitution Arts. 371F, 371G, 371I
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How many Schedules were there in the original Indian Constitution ?
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Answer A. 8
The Constitution of 1950 had 8 Schedules; the 9th was added in 1951 and there are 12 today.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q83, final key
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Which of the following will be the correct consequences of declaration of National Emergency by the President ?
A. The President can modify the constitutional distribution of finances between the Center and the States.
B. The Center becomes entitled to give executive directions to a State on any matter.
C. The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. A and B only
During a national emergency the President may modify revenue distribution (Art. 354) and the Centre may direct States on any matter (Art. 353). Rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended (44th Amendment), so C is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q114, final key
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Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : One of the most controversial Articles in the Constitution is Article 356.
Reason (R) : It is imposed when the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Show answerHide answer
Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Article 356 (President's Rule) applies when the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. That ground is broad and open to subjective judgement, which is why the Article became one of the most controversial and was often misused to dismiss State governments (checked in S. R. Bommai, 1994). The APPSC final key treats R as the correct explanation of A.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q137, final key
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Which of the following statements regarding the administration of tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is/are correct ?
i. It is applicable in all States where Scheduled Tribes make up more than 40% of the State's population.
ii. These areas are outside the authority of the State Legislature as well as State Executive.
iii. Only the President can organise and reorganise the autonomous districts in these areas.
iv. The High Court of the State does not have any jurisdiction in these areas.
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. None
The Sixth Schedule applies only to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, not by a population threshold. These areas remain within the State's executive authority; the Governor (not the President) organises and reorganises autonomous districts; and the High Court has jurisdiction as Parliament specifies.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q149, final key
2.9Union executiveNotes
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Dr Rajendra Prasad holds which one of the following distinctions among the Presidents of India?
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Answer B. He is the only person to have served two terms as President
Dr Rajendra Prasad served two terms as President (1950-1962), the only person to do so.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 13-14 (President, Vice-President; Executive); Constitution of India Art. 57
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Which Cabinet Committee is often described as a 'Super Cabinet'?
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Answer D. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
The Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister, deals with major policy matters and is called a 'Super Cabinet'.
Source: Standard polity reference (Cabinet Committees)
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An ordinance promulgated by the President under Article 123 ceases to operate at the end of what period from the reassembly of Parliament, unless approved earlier?
Show answerHide answer
Answer D. Six weeks
An ordinance must be laid before both Houses and ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles, unless disapproved earlier.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 13-14 (President, VP, Executive); Constitution of India Art. 123(2)
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The Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the President under which provision of the Constitution?
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Answer B. Article 77(3)
Article 77(3) empowers the President to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and its allocation among ministers.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan static) ch. 13-14 (President, Vice-President; Executive); Constitution of India Art. 77
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Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Executive ?
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Answer D. Part V
Part V (Articles 52-151) covers the Union, including the President, Vice-President and Council of Ministers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q82, final key
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As per 91st Amendment Act of 2003, the total number of ministers including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed ________ of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
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Answer D. 15 percent
Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment, limits the Union Council of Ministers, including the PM, to 15% of the Lok Sabha's strength.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q98, final key
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The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
B. Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament.
C. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States.
D. Nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States.
E. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
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Answer C. A, C and E
Article 54 (with the 70th Amendment) puts only elected members in the electoral college: elected MPs of both Houses and elected MLAs of the States, Delhi and Puducherry. Nominated members take no part.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q119, final key
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Which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is/are correct ?
i. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney General of India.
ii. He shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
iii. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
iv. He shall receive remuneration as the Parliament may determine.
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Answer A. Only i and ii
Under Article 76 the AG must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge and has right of audience in all courts. He holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives remuneration the President determines.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q124, final key
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Which of the following statements are correct about Presidential system ?
i. President is head of the State.
ii. President is head of the Government.
iii. President is directly elected by the people.
iv. President is accountable to legislature.
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Answer C. Only i, ii and iii are correct
In a presidential system (e.g. the USA) the President is both head of State and head of Government and is elected by the people for a fixed term. He is not accountable to the legislature, which is the mark of a parliamentary system.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q126, final key
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Which of the following statements about the Vice President of India are correct ?
i. The Vice President is elected for five years.
ii. The Vice President acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
iii. The Vice President acts as the President only until a new President is elected.
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Answer D. All i, ii and iii
The Vice President has a five-year term (Art. 67), is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Art. 64) and acts as President in a vacancy only until a new President takes office (Art. 65).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q128, final key
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Of the following, which are the appointments made by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister ?
i. Chief Justice of India
ii. Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts
iii. Attorney General of India
iv. Governors of States
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Answer D. All of the above
Under Article 74 the President makes all these appointments on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. For judges the collegium recommends, but the formal warrant still goes to the President through the government's advice.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q135, final key
2.12State executive & legislatureNotes
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Consider the following statements:
I. The Advocate General has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly.
II. The Advocate General has the right to vote in the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct. Article 177 lets ministers and the Advocate General speak and take part in either House, but gives no right to vote.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); Constitution Art. 177
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Consider the following statements about ordinances issued by the Governor:
I. The Governor may promulgate an ordinance under Article 213 when the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses, where there are two) is not in session.
II. An ordinance ceases to operate at the end of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature unless disapproved earlier.
III. In D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that repeated re-promulgation of ordinances is unconstitutional.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct. The Court in D.C. Wadhwa held that re-promulgating ordinances without placing them before the Legislature is a fraud on the Constitution.
Source: PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor); Constitution Art. 213
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What is the minimum age prescribed for appointment as Governor of a State?
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Answer C. 35 years
Article 157 requires the Governor to be a citizen of India who has completed 35 years of age.
Source: PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor); Constitution Art. 157
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Consider the following statements about voting in a House of a State Legislature:
I. The Speaker or the Chairman does not vote in the first instance, but has and exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
II. Proceedings of the House are valid even if it is later found that a person who was not entitled to do so sat or voted in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both are correct. Article 189(1) gives the presiding officer only a casting vote, and Article 189(2) says proceedings are not invalid because a person not entitled sat, voted or took part.
Source: Constitution of India, Art. 189; Polity reference p.106
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What is the quorum for a meeting of a House of the State Legislature?
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Answer B. Ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members, whichever is greater
Article 189(3) fixes the quorum at ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House, whichever is greater.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); Constitution Art. 189
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Which Article lays down the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State?
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Answer D. Article 167
Article 167 sets out the duties of the Chief Minister towards the Governor; the corresponding provision for the Prime Minister is Article 78.
Source: PW Polity ch.14 (The Executive in India); Constitution Art. 167
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Consider the following statements:
I. If a question arises whether a bill is a money bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is final.
II. The Governor may return a money bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only statement I is correct (Article 199(3)). The Governor cannot return a money bill; he can only give or withhold assent or reserve it for the President.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor)
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Under Article 361, civil proceedings for any act done by a Governor in his personal capacity may be instituted during his term only after a written notice of at least
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Answer B. two months
Article 361(4) requires two months' notice before civil proceedings for personal acts can be instituted against a Governor during his term.
Source: PW Polity ch.13 (President, Vice President and Governor); Constitution Art. 361
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Consider the following statements about bills passed by a State Legislature:
I. The Governor must reserve for the President a bill which, if it became law, would derogate from the powers of the High Court.
II. If the President directs the Governor to return a reserved bill and the Legislature passes it again, the President is bound to give assent.
III. The Governor may return a bill other than a money bill to the Legislature for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct (Article 200). Under Article 201 the President is not bound to give assent even after the bill is passed again.
Source: PW Polity ch.16 (State Legislatures); Constitution Arts 200, 201
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As per Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, a minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes is compulsory for which of the following states ?
I. Madhya Pradesh
II. Punjab
III. Uttar Pradesh
IV. Jharkhand
V. Odisha
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Answer C. I, IV and V only
The proviso to Article 164(1), as amended in 2006, requires a tribal welfare minister in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha (Bihar was dropped).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Screening Test 2024 (Notification 11/2023), Q89, final key
2.1Historical background & makingNotes
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Consider the following statements about the Constituent Assembly:
I. Dr Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was its temporary President, following the French practice.
II. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected its permanent President on 11 December 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer C. Both I and II
Both statements are correct. H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected Vice-Presidents.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.16,18
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Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833:
I. It made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India.
II. It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's council.
III. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer B. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. The separation of the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's council came with the Charter Act of 1853.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.11
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Consider the following statements about the Amending Act of 1781:
I. It excluded revenue matters from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court at Calcutta.
II. It required the Supreme Court to decide cases of Hindus and Muslims according to the personal law of the defendant.
III. It provided that appeals from the provincial courts would lie to the Supreme Court at Calcutta.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
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Answer D. III only
Only statement III is wrong: under the 1781 Act appeals from the provincial courts lay to the Governor-General-in-Council. Statements I and II are correct provisions of the Act.
Source: PW Polity ch.1 Historical Background
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How many items did the Federal List contain under the Government of India Act, 1935?
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Answer C. 59
The Federal List had 59 items, the Provincial List 54 and the Concurrent List 36.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.13
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Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on
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Answer C. November 26th, 1949
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949 (Constitution Day); it came fully into force on 26 January 1950.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q81, final key
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By which of the following Acts, the Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India ?
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Answer C. Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India; Lord William Bentinck was the first.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q105, final key
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Match List – I with List – II and choose the right answer from the codes given below. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions) :
List – I List – II a. Separate representation of the Muslim Community i. Government of India Act, 1935 b. Dyarchy in the provinces ii. Indian Councils Act, 1892 c. Prescribed Federation iii. Indian Councils Act, 1909 d. Discussion of Annual Statement iv. Indian Councils Act, 1861 v. Government of India Act, 1919 Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a – iii b – v c – i d – ii
Separate electorates for Muslims came with the 1909 Act, provincial dyarchy with the 1919 Act, an all-India federation with the 1935 Act, and discussion of the budget (annual financial statement) with the 1892 Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q121, final key
2.16Statutory & non-constitutional bodiesNotes
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Match List I (Body) with List II (Its first Chairperson):
List I
a. National Human Rights Commission
b. National Commission for Women
c. Lokpal
d. Central Information Commission
List II
I. Pinaki Chandra Ghose
II. Wajahat Habibullah
III. Ranganath Misra
IV. Jayanti Patnaik
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
The first chairpersons were Ranganath Misra (NHRC), Jayanti Patnaik (NCW), Pinaki Chandra Ghose (Lokpal) and Wajahat Habibullah (Chief Information Commissioner).
Source: Standard polity text
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Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. First Lokayukta established in Maharashtra
II. First Administrative Reforms Commission constituted
III. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 came into force
IV. First Chairperson of the Lokpal appointed
Select the correct answer:
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Answer B. II, I, III, IV
The order is: First ARC (1966), first Lokayukta in Maharashtra (Act of 1971), Lokpal Act in force (16 January 2014), first Lokpal Chairperson (March 2019). The order holds even if the Maharashtra Lokayukta is dated 1972.
Source: PW Polity ch.21 Extra-Constitutional Bodies (Lokpal); Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
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Consider the following statements about the Right to Information Act, 2005:
Statement I: A public authority may allow access to information even if it is protected under the Official Secrets Act, 1923, if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.
Statement II: Information relating to any event that took place twenty-five years before the date of the request shall be provided, subject to certain exceptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I only
Only Statement I is correct. Section 8(2) contains the public-interest override over the Official Secrets Act; section 8(3) fixes the period at twenty years, not twenty-five, so II is wrong.
Source: Right to Information Act, 2005 s.8(2)-(3)
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Consider the following statements about tribunals:
I. Article 323A was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
II. State Legislatures can set up administrative tribunals for public service matters under Article 323A.
III. In L. Chandra Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court held that decisions of tribunals are subject to the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer A. I and III only
Statements I and III are correct. Tribunals under Article 323A can be set up only by Parliament; Article 323B allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to set up tribunals for other matters.
Source: PW Polity ch.17 (Tribunals in India); Constitution Art. 323A
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Which of the following bodies function as non-statutory bodies as of 2026?
I. National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
II. National Statistical Commission
III. National Commission for Women
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer A. I and II only
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis has been non-statutory since its 1993 Act lapsed in 2004 (its tenure now runs to March 2028), and the National Statistical Commission rests on a government resolution of 1 June 2005. The National Commission for Women is statutory under the NCW Act, 1990.
Source: NCSK Act 1993; MoSPI Resolution 2005
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When was the Human Rights Commission of India constituted ?
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Answer C. 1993
The National Human Rights Commission was set up on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance, later the 1993 Act.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q84, final key
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As per the provisions of Right to Information Act, the State Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor, on the recommendations of a committee comprising of,
A. Chief Minister of the concerned State
B. Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court
C. Leader of the Opposition in the State Assembly
D. Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister
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Answer B. A, C and D
Section 15(3) of the RTI Act: the committee is the Chief Minister (chair), the Leader of the Opposition in the Assembly and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister. The High Court Chief Justice is not a member.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q102, final key
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When did The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 come into force ?
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Answer B. 16th January 2014
The Act received Presidential assent on 1 January 2014 and was brought into force on 16 January 2014.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q106, final key
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Assertion (A) : NITI Aayog is a Non-Constitutional Advisory Body.
Reason (R) : One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
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Answer B. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
NITI Aayog was set up in 2015 by a Cabinet resolution, so it is a non-constitutional (and non-statutory) advisory body. Bottom-up planning from the village level is one of its stated objectives, but that objective does not explain its legal status.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q112, final key
2.5Union, territory & citizenshipNotes
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Consider the following statements about the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015:
I. It gave effect to the Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh.
II. Under it, 111 Indian enclaves were transferred to Bangladesh.
III. Under it, 51 Bangladeshi enclaves were transferred to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer D. I, II and III
All three statements are correct.
Source: PW Polity (Udaan) p.27,40
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The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act came into effect on
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Answer A. 31st October 2019
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 took effect on 31 October 2019, creating the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper I 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q132, final key
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