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APPSC G2 Mains Paper II 2025 question paper with answers
- 146 questions
- 150 minutes
- +1 right · −0.33 wrong
- Year 2025
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Topics in this paper (7)
Questions and answers
- Q1 Indian Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding the GST Council (GSTC) ?
I. The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 269A of the Indian Constitution.
II. The GST Council is responsible for making recommendations on issues related to the Goods and Services Tax.
III. Every state does not have an equal vote in the GST Council.
IV. Decisions of the GST Council require a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
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Answer C. I and III
The GST Council is set up under Article 279A, not 269A, so I is incorrect. Each state has an equal vote (states together hold two-thirds of the weight), so III is also incorrect; II and IV are correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q1, final key
- Q2 Indian Economy
The severe balance of payments crisis, faced by India in 1991 was characterized by
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Answer A. High inflation, low foreign exchange reserves and a large fiscal deficit
In 1991 India had double-digit inflation, reserves that covered only a few weeks of imports and a fiscal deficit near 8% of GDP, which together triggered the crisis and the reforms.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q2, final key
- Q3 Indian Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding PURVODAYA scheme introduced by the Government of India in 2024 ?
I. The PURVODAYA scheme aims to improve infrastructure in the eastern part of India.
II. It deals with Buxar-Bhagalpur Expressway.
III. New Delhi-Kolkata Industrial Corridor is being developed as part of the PURVODAYA scheme.
IV. The primary goal of this scheme is the development of Gujarat State.
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Answer A. I, II only
Purvodaya (Union Budget 2024-25) targets Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh and includes road projects such as the Buxar-Bhagalpur expressway. The corridor linked to it is the Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor, and Gujarat is not its focus.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q3, final key
- Q4 Indian Economy
Which of the following statements accurately describe the environmental impacts associated with agricultural practices ?
I. The application of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides may result in soil and water contamination.
II. Sustainable agriculture focuses on preserving soil health and protecting biodiversity.
III. Modern agricultural practices are unrelated to the depletion of freshwater resources.
IV. Expanding monoculture farming supports overall ecosystem stability.
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Answer D. I and II
Agro-chemicals contaminate soil and water, and sustainable farming aims to protect soil and biodiversity. Modern irrigation-heavy farming depletes groundwater, and monocultures reduce ecosystem stability.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q4, final key
- Q5 Indian Economy
What was the primary reason for the current account surplus in Q4:2023-24 ?
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Answer B. Surge in services exports
India posted a current account surplus of about 0.6% of GDP in January-March 2024, driven mainly by strong net services exports along with a narrower merchandise trade deficit.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q5, final key
- Q6 Indian Economy
Post-economic reforms, the Indian economy saw a shift towards
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Answer C. Enhanced global integration
The 1991 LPG reforms opened trade and foreign investment, integrating India more closely with the world economy.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q6, final key
- Q7 Indian Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPI) in 2024-25 ?
I. The Indian Rupee (INR) moved in a narrow range with low volatility despite FPI outflows.
II. RBI set investment limits for FPIs in debt instruments and Credit Default Swaps.
III. FPI investment limits in government securities and corporate bonds remained unchanged.
IV. RBI issued an operation framework for reclassification of FPI investments beyond permitted limits.
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Answer C. All the above
RBI's 2024-25 reports note the rupee stayed in a narrow, low-volatility range despite FPI outflows; RBI kept FPI limits in G-secs and corporate bonds unchanged, set limits for debt and credit default swaps, and issued a framework to reclassify FPI holdings above 10% as FDI.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q7, final key
- Q8 Indian Economy
Which of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
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Answer D. Cost and Accounting method
National income is measured by the value added (product), income and expenditure methods; there is no 'cost and accounting' method.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q8, final key
- Q9 Indian Economy
Which of the following are the major provisions of the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 ?
I. Provision of licencing.
II. Expansion of public sector.
III. Emphasis on small industries.
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Answer D. I, II, III
IPR 1956 divided industries into three schedules with a dominant public sector, worked with industrial licensing under the 1951 IDR Act, and stressed small and cottage industries.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q9, final key
- Q10 Indian Economy
The part of investment (Increase or Decrease) which takes place due to change in the level of national income is termed as
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Answer C. Induced investment
Induced investment varies with income (and profits); autonomous investment does not depend on the level of income.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q10, final key
- Q11 Indian Economy
Which of the following statements is False ?
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Answer B. A direct quote is the number of units of a foreign currency exchangeable for one unit of home currency
A direct quote gives the units of home currency per unit of foreign currency (e.g. Rs 84 = 1 USD). Units of foreign currency per unit of home currency is an indirect quote.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q11, final key
- Q12 Indian Economy
Statement A : The GoI fiscal deficit R E for 2024-25 is 4.8% of GDP.
Statement B : It is higher than the Fiscal Deficit B E for 2025 - 2026.
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Answer C. Both Statements are correct
Union Budget 2025-26 put the 2024-25 revised fiscal deficit at 4.8% of GDP and budgeted 4.4% for 2025-26, so 4.8% is higher.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q12, final key
- Q13 Indian Economy
Which principal methodology is employed by the National Statistical Office (NSO) as the standard mechanism for assessing and quantifying the unemployment rate within the Indian economy ?
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Answer D. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
Since 2017-18 the NSO's Periodic Labour Force Survey is the official source for labour force participation and unemployment rates.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q13, final key
- Q14 Indian Economy
Which among the following classifications of unemployment is predominantly correlated with the agricultural sector ?
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Answer B. Seasonal unemployment
Farm work depends on sowing and harvest seasons, so agricultural workers are idle for part of the year: seasonal unemployment (disguised unemployment is also typical).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q14, final key
- Q15 Indian Economy
How does the introduction of the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) enhance the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) liquidity management framework ?
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Answer B. By absorbing surplus liquidity without the need for collateral
SDF (April 2022) lets RBI absorb surplus liquidity from banks without giving government securities as collateral, unlike reverse repo; it is the floor of the LAF corridor.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q15, final key
- Q16 Indian Economy
What is/are the goal(s) of SEBI's new move to introduce T+0 settlement ?
I. To enhance liquidity and reduce settlement risk in the stock market.
II. To minimize counter party risk and enhance market efficiency.
III. Potentially reduce the impact of market volatility on settlement.
IV. To increase operational expenses for market participants.
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Answer C. I, II, III only
Same-day (T+0) settlement, started as an optional beta in March 2024, frees funds and securities faster, cuts settlement and counterparty risk and limits exposure to price swings. Raising costs is not a goal.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q16, final key
- Q17 Indian Economy
Which of the following mechanisms is NOT primarily followed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to manage exchange rate volatility ?
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Answer A. Fiscal Policy Adjustments
Fiscal policy (taxes and spending) belongs to the government, not RBI. RBI manages rupee volatility with its forex reserves and market intervention within the market-determined system that began with LERMS.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q17, final key
- Q18 Indian Economy
What is the significance of the new payment settlement framework introduced by the RBI in the context of the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 ?
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Answer B. It aims to encourage the use of the Indian currency in cross-border trade
RBI's framework for invoicing and settling trade in rupees (Special Rupee Vostro Accounts), backed by FTP 2023, aims to internationalise the rupee in cross-border trade.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q18, final key
- Q19 Indian Economy
Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Central Government to extend loans to State Governments ?
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Answer B. Article 293
Article 293 covers borrowing by states; clause (2) lets the Government of India make loans to any state. Article 292 is borrowing by the Union.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q19, final key
- Q20 Indian Economy
India's rank in World Bank's Logistic Performance Index in 2023
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Answer C. 38
In the World Bank LPI 2023 India ranked 38th of 139 countries, up from 44th in 2018.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q20, final key
- Q21 Indian Economy
What impact does an increase in the GNP deflator have on the purchasing power of money ?
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Answer B. Decreases purchasing power
A rising GNP deflator means the general price level has gone up, so each unit of money buys less.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q21, final key
- Q22 Indian Economy
Which organization launched the Credit Guarantee Scheme for the Livestock Sector ?
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Answer D. Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying
The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the Credit Guarantee Scheme for the livestock sector (under the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund) in February 2024 to back collateral-free loans to MSMEs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q22, final key
- Q23 Indian Economy
When currency is bought at a lower price at one place in the foreign exchange market and at the same time sold at a higher price at another place, this process is called
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Answer A. Arbitrage
Buying in one market and simultaneously selling in another to profit from a price difference is arbitrage.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q23, final key
- Q24 Indian Economy
Special Drawing Rights is the currency of International Monetary Fund. This is in the form of
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Answer D. Book keeping entry only
SDRs (created 1969) are an international reserve asset that exists only as entries in IMF accounts; they are not printed and not backed by metal. Hence they are called 'paper gold'.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q24, final key
- Q25 Indian Economy
Which of the following are included in the Reserve Bank of India's Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) ?
a. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
b. Gold
c. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
d. Reserve Tranche Position
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Answer D. All the above
India's forex reserves have four components: foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs and the reserve tranche position in the IMF.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q25, final key
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Start free - Q26 Indian Economy
As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements correctly describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India ?
a. It has decreased due to less participation of the private sector.
b. It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels.
c. It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.
d. It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.
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Answer D. d only
The Economic Survey 2022-23 noted that FDI inflows into India fell in 2022, in line with the global decline caused by weak and uncertain world economic conditions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q27, final key
- Q27 Indian Economy
Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India ?
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Answer C. Increase in exports is greater than increase in imports
After 1991 India's imports grew faster than exports, so the trade deficit widened; trade, FDI and access to technology all expanded.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q28, final key
- Q28 Indian Economy
Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct ?
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Answer A. The expenditure is on interest payments
Before the plan/non-plan split ended in 2017-18, non-plan expenditure covered interest payments, defence, subsidies, pensions and salaries; sector development like S&T and agriculture was plan expenditure.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q29, final key
- Q29 Indian Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. India's overall SDG score has improved to 71 in 2023-24. Uttarakhand shares the top spot with Kerala, both scored above India's overall SDG score.
b. In the latest SDG India Index 2023-24, Andhra Pradesh is placed in the "Front Runner" category.
c. Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya, each with scores above 75, are placed in the "Achiever" category.
d. In the 2023-2024 SDG Index, Lakshadweep and Uttar Pradesh scored significantly above the national average, demonstrating notable progress compared to other states.
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Answer A. a, b only correct
In NITI Aayog's SDG India Index 2023-24 India scored 71, Kerala and Uttarakhand topped with 79, and Andhra Pradesh (74) was a Front Runner. No state reached the Achiever band (score 100); Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya were among the lower scorers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q30, final key
- Q30 Indian Economy
What item(s) account for the differences between GDP at factor cost and GDP at market prices ?
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Answer C. Indirect taxes and subsidies
GDP at market prices = GDP at factor cost + indirect taxes - subsidies (net indirect taxes).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q31, final key
- Q31 Indian Economy
Assertion (A): Devaluation will lead to improvement in balance of trade.
Reason (R) : Devaluation will lead to increase in price of exports.
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Answer C. (A) is true and (R) is false
Devaluation makes exports cheaper for foreign buyers and imports dearer at home, which tends to improve the trade balance. So A is true but R is false.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q32, final key
- Q32 Indian Economy
A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of a factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called
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Answer A. Occupier
Section 2(n) of the Factories Act, 1948 defines the occupier as the person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q33, final key
- Q33 Indian Economy
A budgeting process which demands each manager to justify his entire budget in detail from beginning is
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Answer C. Zero-base budgeting
Zero-base budgeting starts every budget from zero, so each item must be justified afresh rather than carried forward from last year.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q34, final key
- Q34 Indian Economy
GDP deflator is the most comprehensive measure of inflation as it is the ratio of
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Answer D. GDP at Current prices to Constant prices
GDP deflator = nominal GDP (current prices) / real GDP (constant prices) x 100, covering all goods and services in GDP.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q35, final key
- Q35 Indian Economy
Which of the following measures is NOT typically used to correct a disequilibrium in the Balance of Payments (BOP) ?
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Answer C. Reducing government spending on domestic projects
The key treats devaluation, tariffs and attracting FDI as the usual BOP correction tools, and cutting spending on domestic projects as not one of them. In textbooks, cutting spending to reduce demand (expenditure-reducing policy) is also a recognised remedy, so the question is open to argument.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q36, final key
- Q36 Indian Economy
Which among the following statements is correct ?
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Answer A. Balance of payments includes current account and capital account
The balance of payments records all transactions with the rest of the world in two main parts: the current account (trade, services, income, transfers) and the capital account.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q37, final key
- Q37 Indian Economy
Assertion (A): Transfer earnings are not to be included in the estimation of National Income.
Reason (R) : Transfer earnings are not payments for factor services.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Transfer payments such as pensions, scholarships and gifts are not earned for any productive (factor) service, so they are left out of national income.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q38, final key
- Q38 Indian Economy
Match List – I with List – II and choose correct answer. (Common codes for English and Telugu Versions)
List – I List – II a. Monetary Policy i. Tax Rate b. Trade Policy ii. Margin c. Credit Policy iii. Imports and Exports d. Fiscal Policy iv. Bank Rate Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Bank rate is a monetary policy tool, trade policy governs imports and exports, credit policy works through loan margins, and fiscal policy through tax rates.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q39, final key
- Q39 Indian Economy
The situation where a country simultaneously imports and exports the same product is called
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Answer D. Intra-industry trade
Two-way trade in the same product or industry (for example, a country both importing and exporting cars) is intra-industry trade.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q40, final key
- Q40 Science & Technology
What challenges does India face in managing its oil consumption ?
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Answer C. Supply chain disruptions and fluctuating global oil prices
India imports over 85% of its crude oil, so supply disruptions and volatile world prices are its main oil challenges.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q41, final key
- Q41 Indian Economy
Under the Industrial Policy of 1991
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Answer D. The mandatory convertible clause is no longer applicable
The 1991 policy dropped the mandatory convertibility clause, under which financial institutions could convert their term loans to industry into equity.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q42, final key
- Q42 Indian Economy
Which of the following are used for measuring of the high-power money supply (H) by RBI in India ?
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Answer C. Currency held by the public + Cash reserves of the commercial banks + Other deposits with the RBI
Reserve money (M0, high-powered money) = currency with the public + cash reserves of banks (cash in hand and deposits with RBI) + other deposits with RBI.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q43, final key
- Q43 Indian Economy
Which of the following reforms have contributed to the improvement of the Ease of Doing Business in India ?
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Answer A. The introduction of GST (Goods and Services Tax)
GST (2017) replaced many central and state indirect taxes with one tax and an online system, which made trading across states and compliance easier.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q44, final key
- Q44 Indian Economy
There is no GST on which of the following ?
i. Petrol and Diesel
ii. Liquor
iii. Electricity supply to consumers
iv. Services of Charitable entities
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Answer D. All of the above
Petrol and diesel and alcoholic liquor for human consumption are outside GST, electricity supply is exempt, and services of registered charitable entities for charitable activities are exempt.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q45, final key
- Q45 Indian Economy
Assertion (A) : India's real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grew by 8.2% in FY24 despite global and external challenges.
Reason (R) : The focus on maintaining macroeconomic stability ensured that these challenges had minimal impact on India's economy.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The Economic Survey 2023-24 reported 8.2% real GDP growth in FY24 and credited the government's focus on macroeconomic stability for limiting the effect of external shocks.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q46, final key
- Q46 Indian Economy
Which Indian organization is responsible for estimating the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) ?
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Answer B. NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog publishes India's National MPI (first in 2021, then 2023), using NFHS data and the global MPI method of OPHI and UNDP.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q47, final key
- Q47 Indian Economy
Assertion (A) : The Indian economy demonstrated resilience despite global geopolitical challenges.
Reason (R) : India's fiscal and monetary policies ensured economic and financial stability post-COVID.
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Answer A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Recent Economic Surveys describe India's economy as resilient to geopolitical shocks and attribute this to prudent fiscal and monetary policy that kept post-COVID stability.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q48, final key
- Q48 Indian Economy
What was the purpose of the 49 fine-tuning operations conducted by the RBI during FY 2024 ?
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Answer C. To maintain liquidity conditions in alignment with the monetary policy stance
RBI's fine-tuning variable rate repo and reverse repo operations in 2023-24 injected or absorbed liquidity as needed, keeping conditions in line with its monetary policy stance.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q49, final key
- Q49 Indian Economy
Statement A : The RBI announced a temporary I-CRR of 10 per cent on 10 August 2023.
Statement B : This action impounded about Rs. 1.1 lakh crores from the banking system.
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Answer C. Both statements A and B are correct
On 10 August 2023 RBI imposed a temporary 10% incremental CRR on deposit growth between 19 May and 28 July 2023 (partly to absorb the Rs 2000 note return), which took about Rs 1.1 lakh crore out of the system; it was withdrawn in stages by October.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q50, final key
- Q50 Indian Economy
Statement A : India is the largest producer of milk.
Statement B : India is the second largest producer of fruits, vegetables and sugar.
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Answer C. Both statements A and B are correct
India is the world's largest milk producer and second to China in fruits and vegetables; in sugar it has traded first place with Brazil in recent seasons (largest in 2021-22, second in 2023-24), so on the current figures both statements are taken as correct.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q51, final key
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Start free - Q51 Indian Economy
At what subsidized price per Kg did the Government introduce "Bharat Rice" for selling through NAFED, NCCF and Kendriya Bhandar ?
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Answer B. Rs. 29
Bharat Rice was launched in February 2024 at a subsidised retail price of Rs. 29 per kg through NAFED, NCCF and Kendriya Bhandar outlets.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q52, final key
- Q52 Indian Economy
Which initiative was launched to provide a tap water connection to every rural household by 2024 ?
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Answer A. Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)
Jal Jeevan Mission (2019) aims to give a functional household tap connection to every rural home by 2024.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q53, final key
- Q53 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Match the sectors given in Column – A with their corresponding Gross Value Added (GVA) Growth Rates given in Column – B (Andhra Pradesh Advance Estimates of 2023-24).
Column – A Column – B a. Agriculture and allied activities A. 5.21% b. Industry B. 8.02% c. Services C. 1.69% Codes : a b c
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Answer A. C B A
As per AP's 2023-24 advance estimates, agriculture and allied grew 1.69%, industry 8.02% and services 5.21% (as keyed by APPSC).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q54, final key
- Q54 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Statement A : All India Per Capita Income for the year 2023-24 (PE) is estimated at Rs.1,84,205.
Statement B : All India Per Capita Income given above is lower than the Andhra Pradesh Per Capita Income for the year 2023-24 (AE) (at current prices from 2014-15 to 2023-24).
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Answer C. Both statements A and B are correct
India's per capita income for 2023-24 at current prices was about Rs. 1.84 lakh, while AP's 2023-24 advance estimate was about Rs. 2.42 lakh, so both statements hold.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q55, final key
- Q55 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Statement A : Andhra Pradesh ranks 1st in the productivity of Oil palm in India.
Statement B : Andhra Pradesh ranks 2nd in the productivity of Mango in India.
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Answer C. Both statements A and B are correct
AP leads India in oil palm (area, production and productivity) and, per the AP Socio-Economic Survey, ranks second in mango productivity.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q56, final key
- Q56 Andhra Pradesh Economy
How many Rythu Bharosa Kendralu (RBKs) has the Government of Andhra Pradesh established according to Socio-Economic Survey of Andhra Pradesh 2023-24 ?
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Answer A. 10,778
The AP Socio-Economic Survey 2023-24 reports 10,778 Rythu Bharosa Kendras set up at village level as one-stop centres for farmers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q57, final key
- Q57 Andhra Pradesh Economy
As per the second advanced estimates of National Statistical Office (NSO), MoSPI, GOI, what is the sector wise contribution of GVA at current prices for the year 2022-23 for Andhra Pradesh ?
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Answer A. Agriculture-36.19%, Industry-23.36% and Services-40.45%
AP's GVA at current prices in 2022-23 was about 36.19% agriculture and allied, 23.36% industry and 40.45% services; agriculture's share is unusually high for AP.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q58, final key
- Q58 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to the report on Relative Economic Performance of Indian States (1960-61 to 2023-24), prepared by Economic Advisory Council to the PM, what are the individual shares of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in the National GDP in FY 2023-24 ?
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Answer A. A.P.-4.7 and Telangana-4.9
The EAC-PM paper (September 2024) put Andhra Pradesh's share of national GDP at 4.7% and Telangana's at 4.9% in 2023-24; together the two states held 9.6%.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q59, final key
- Q59 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Statement A : In AP, capital expenditure constituted less than 15 per cent in the total Government expenditure during 2016-21.
Statement B : Capital expenditure reflects the State's commitment towards infrastructure creation.
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Answer C. Both A and B are true
CAG's State Finances reports show AP's capital outlay stayed below 15% of total expenditure in 2016-21, and capital spending is the usual indicator of a state's commitment to building assets and infrastructure.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q60, final key
- Q60 Andhra Pradesh Economy
In the Union Budget 2024-25, the GOI has promised funds to the following industrial nodes as part of the development of the Vishakhapatnam-Chennai and Bangalore-Hyderabad industrial corridors
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Answer A. Kopparthi and Orvakal
The July 2024 Union Budget promised funds for water, power, railways and roads in the Kopparthy node (Visakhapatnam-Chennai corridor) and the Orvakal node (Hyderabad-Bengaluru corridor).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q61, final key
- Q61 Andhra Pradesh Economy
As per the Budget estimates of 2024-25, the percentage of public debt in the GSDP of Andhra Pradesh in FY 2024-25 is estimated as
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Answer B. 34.14%
The AP Budget 2024-25 estimated the State's debt at about 34.14% of GSDP for 2024-25 (as keyed by APPSC).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q62, final key
- Q62 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Match the following Central Institutes established under the A. P. State Reorganization Act, 2014 with their locations.
Institute Location a. Indian Institute of Technology i. Kurnool b. Indian Institute of Management ii. Tirupati c. All India Institute of Medical Sciences iii. Vizianagaram d. Indian Institute of Information Technology iv. Vijayawada e. Tribal University v. Vishakhapatnam Codes : a b c d e
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Answer B. ii v iv i iii
Under the AP Reorganisation Act: IIT at Tirupati, IIM at Visakhapatnam, AIIMS at Mangalagiri (Vijayawada region), IIITDM at Kurnool and the Central Tribal University at Vizianagaram.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q63, final key
- Q63 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which of the following is not correct regarding the railway project under Central Assistance approved by the Union Cabinet for Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh ?
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Answer D. The proposed time line of the project is 6 years
The Cabinet in October 2024 approved the 57 km Errupalem-Amaravati-Nambur new line costing Rs. 2,245 crore through NTR, Guntur and Khammam districts, to be completed in 4 years, not 6.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q64, final key
- Q64 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the following minerals (List – I) with the erstwhile districts (List – II) where they are predominantly available.
List – I List – II a. Apatite i. West Godavari b. Asbestos ii. Nellore c. Ball Clay iii. Visakhapatnam d. Mica iv. Kadapa Codes : a b c d
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Answer A. iii iv i ii
Apatite occurs in the Visakhapatnam Eastern Ghats belt, asbestos (chrysotile) in Kadapa (Pulivendula), ball clay in West Godavari and mica in the Nellore mica belt.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q65, final key
- Q65 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which International funding agencies committed to fund the Amaravati Capital City Phase-I Development in Andhra Pradesh ?
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Answer B. World Bank and Asian Development Bank
In 2024 the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank together committed about USD 1.6 billion for Amaravati Capital City Phase-I development.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q66, final key
- Q66 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which external funding agency is supporting the Andhra Pradesh Integrated Irrigation and Agriculture Transformation Project ?
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Answer B. World Bank
APIIATP, which revives tanks and improves irrigated farming in drought-prone districts, is financed by the World Bank.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q67, final key
- Q67 Andhra Pradesh Geography
Match the following irrigation projects (List – I) with the rivers on which they are located (List – II).
List – I List – II a. Somasila reservoir i. Cheyyeru b. Thotapally project ii. Penna c. Annamayya project iii. Manneru d. Rallapadu iv. Nagavali Codes : a b c d
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Answer C. ii iv i iii
Somasila is on the Penna (Nellore), Thotapally barrage on the Nagavali (Vizianagaram), Annamayya project on the Cheyyeru (Kadapa) and Rallapadu on the Manneru (Prakasam).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q68, final key
- Q68 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Assertion (A) : In Andhra Pradesh, the coverage of farmers under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana has been increasing over the years.
Reason (R) : In Andhra Pradesh, significant crop losses occurred to farmers due to extreme weather events in recent years including floods, droughts and cyclones.
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Answer D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Frequent floods, droughts and cyclones caused heavy crop losses in AP, which pushed more farmers into crop insurance, so the rise in PMFBY coverage is explained by R (as keyed by APPSC).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q69, final key
- Q69 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which is not a correct statement regarding Rytu Bazaars in Andhra Pradesh ?
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Answer B. District Collector is the Co-ordinating officer of Rytu Bazaars
Rytu Bazaars began in 1999; each is run by an Estate Officer and prices aim to be about 25% above wholesale and 25% below retail. The co-ordinating officer at district level is the Joint Collector, not the District Collector.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q70, final key
- Q70 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Chadalawada village where a Cattle Breeding farm is established under Gokul Gram Project under Rashtriya Gokula Mission belongs to which District ?
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Answer B. Prakasam
The Gokul Gram for indigenous Ongole cattle under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission was set up at Chadalawada in Prakasam district, the home tract of the Ongole breed.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q71, final key
- Q71 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Match the following Special Economic Zone Production Units in (List-I) with their locations (List-II).
List – I List – II a. Divi's Laboratories Limited-Pharmaceuticals i. Nellore b. Parry Infrastructure Company-Food Processing ii. Kovvur c. White Field Paper Mills Ltd.-Writing and Printing Paper iii. Kakinada d. Indian Farmers Fertilizers Co-operative Ltd. (IFFCO)-Multi Products iv. Visakhapatnam Codes : a b c d
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Answer B. iv iii ii i
Divi's pharma SEZ is in Visakhapatnam district, Parry's food-processing SEZ at Kakinada, White Field Paper Mills at Kovvur and the IFFCO Kisan SEZ in Nellore.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q72, final key
- Q72 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Which of the following is not the target of AP Electronics Manufacturing Policy (4.0), 2024-29 ?
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Answer D. First time entrepreneurship creation of 2 lakhs
The AP Electronics Manufacturing Policy 4.0 (2024-29) targets USD 50 billion of production, USD 10 billion of investment and 5 lakh jobs; it sets no target of 2 lakh first-time entrepreneurs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q73, final key
- Q73 Andhra Pradesh Economy
According to AP Industrial Policy (4.0), 2024-29 one of the following statements is not correct with regard to MSME sector in Andhra Pradesh.
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Answer D. The MSME sector is contributing 33.5% of GSDP in AP
The policy notes about 9 lakh Udyam-registered MSMEs, 79% of them in services, and 28 exclusive MSME parks; the 33.5% GSDP share figure is the one APPSC treats as wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q74, final key
- Q74 Andhra Pradesh Economy
One of the following is not the standard incentive to the industries offered by Government of AP based on the AP Industrial Policy (4.0), 2024-29.
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Answer D. Maximum capital subsidy of 15% of Foreign capital investment
The standard incentives in AP Industrial Policy 4.0 include a decarbonisation subsidy, full stamp-duty reimbursement and full land-conversion fee reimbursement; capital subsidy is tied to fixed capital investment, not to foreign capital investment.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q75, final key
- Q75 Science & Technology
What is the primary goal of India's National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) ?
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Answer B. Promote renewable energy technologies and reduce carbon emissions
The NCEF, built from a cess on coal (2010), was meant to finance research and projects in clean and renewable energy technologies and cut carbon emissions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q76, final key
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71 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q76 Environment & Ecology
National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established to
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Answer C. Handle cases related to environmental protection and pollution control
The NGT, set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, is a specialised judicial body for speedy disposal of cases on environmental protection, forest conservation and pollution.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q77, final key
- Q77 Environment & Ecology
Match the pollution type with its major source.
Pollution Type Major Source a. Air Pollution I. Sewage b. Water Pollution II. Industrial emissions c. Soil Pollution III. Use of chemical fertilizers d. Noise Pollution IV. Construction activities Codes : a b c d
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Answer B. II I III IV
Industrial emissions mainly pollute air, sewage pollutes water, chemical fertilisers degrade soil and construction work is a major noise source.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q78, final key
- Q78 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following methods is used for solid waste disposal in urban areas of India ?
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Answer D. All the above
Indian cities use composting for wet waste, incineration or waste-to-energy plants for combustible waste and landfilling for the rest, so all three methods are in use.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q79, final key
- Q79 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is the primary goal of India's "Municipal Solid Waste Management and Handling Rules, 2000" ?
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Answer A. Promoting waste segregation
The MSW (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 made municipalities responsible for collection, segregation, processing and safe disposal of waste, with segregation at source as a core aim.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q80, final key
- Q80 Environment & Ecology
What is the main advantage of organic farming over conventional farming ?
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Answer C. Reduced chemical input and improved soil health
Organic farming avoids synthetic fertilisers and pesticides and builds soil organic matter, so its key benefit is lower chemical input and better soil health.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q81, final key
- Q81 Environment & Ecology
What is the primary source of air pollution in Indian cities ?
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Answer D. Automobile emissions
Vehicle exhaust is treated as the leading source of urban air pollution in Indian cities, ahead of industry, waste burning and crop burning.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q82, final key
- Q82 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is NOT an example of a bioremediation technique ?
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Answer C. Burning contaminated soil
Bioremediation uses living organisms (microbes, plants) to break down or absorb pollutants; burning soil is a thermal treatment, not a biological one.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q83, final key
- Q83 Environment & Ecology
What was the primary purpose of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?
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Answer A. Control air quality standards
The Air Act, 1981 provides for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution, with pollution control boards laying down and enforcing air quality standards.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q84, final key
- Q84 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following government initiatives aims to control industrial emissions in India ?
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Answer B. National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
NCAP (2019) is the national plan to cut particulate pollution in non-attainment cities, including by controlling industrial emissions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q85, final key
- Q85 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is NOT an alternative to conventional pollution control methods ?
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Answer D. Incineration of waste
Green technology, bioremediation and carbon capture are newer alternatives; incineration is itself a conventional waste treatment method.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q86, final key
- Q86 Science & Technology
What is the primary environmental concern associated with Genetically Modified (GM) crops ?
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Answer A. Cross-pollination with non-GM crops
The main ecological worry about GM crops is gene flow: transgenes spreading to non-GM crops and wild relatives through cross-pollination.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q87, final key
- Q87 Science & Technology
Which Organization regulates Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in India ?
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Answer B. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
GEAC, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (Rules 1989 under the EPA 1986), appraises and approves large-scale use and release of GMOs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q88, final key
- Q88 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is an example of an environmentally friendly technology used in agriculture ?
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Answer B. Organic farming
Organic farming relies on natural inputs and biological pest control, making it the eco-friendly choice among these.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q89, final key
- Q89 Environment & Ecology
Which technology can reduce the environmental impact of traditional farming, especially in water scarce regions ?
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Answer A. Drip irrigation
Drip irrigation delivers water directly to roots, saving water and reducing salinity and runoff, which suits water-scarce regions.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q90, final key
- Q90 Environment & Ecology
What is the primary application of bioremediation ?
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Answer B. Soil contamination
Bioremediation is mainly used to clean contaminated soil (and groundwater) with microbes or plants that degrade or absorb pollutants.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q91, final key
- Q91 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following bioremediation techniques is used to treat oil spills ?
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Answer B. Bioaugmentation
Bioaugmentation adds selected oil-degrading microbes (e.g. 'oilzapper' bacteria) to a spill to speed up breakdown of hydrocarbons.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q92, final key
- Q92 Environment & Ecology
Match the following :
Waste Type Appropriate Disposal Method a. Organic Waste I. Incineration b. E-waste II. Composting c. Hazardous Waste III. Landfilling d. Broken glass pieces IV. Recycling Codes : a b c d
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Answer A. II IV I III
Organic waste is composted, e-waste is recycled for metals, hazardous waste is incinerated and broken glass, which is inert, goes to landfill.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q93, final key
- Q93 Environment & Ecology
Match the following :
Waste Disposal Method Pros/Cons a. Landfilling I. Low-cost, but has long-term environmental impact b. Incineration II. Reduces volume of waste, but emits pollutants c. Composting III. Produces useful by-products like biogas, but requires land d. Recycling IV. Conserves resources, but needs infrastructure Codes : a b c d
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Answer C. I II III IV
Landfills are cheap but leave lasting leachate and methane; incineration shrinks waste but emits pollutants; composting/biomethanation gives manure or biogas but needs land; recycling saves resources but needs collection and processing infrastructure.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q94, final key
- Q94 Environment & Ecology
Which Indian city is recognized for adopting zero waste concept in solid waste management ?
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Answer D. Indore
Indore, India's cleanest city in Swachh Survekshan for several years running, is known for 100% source segregation and a near zero-waste model.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q95, final key
- Q95 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is a potential tipping point of global climate change ?
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Answer A. Loss of Arctic ice
Loss of Arctic sea ice is a classic tipping element: less ice lowers albedo, absorbs more heat and accelerates warming in a self-reinforcing way.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q96, final key
- Q96 Environment & Ecology
The "ozone hole" is primarily caused by the release of
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Answer B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
CFCs release chlorine in the stratosphere, which destroys ozone catalytically, especially over Antarctica in spring.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q97, final key
- Q97 Environment & Ecology
Which International Agreement does not focus on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to combat climate change ?
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Answer D. Basel Convention
The Basel Convention (1989) controls transboundary movement of hazardous wastes; Kyoto and Paris target GHGs, and the Montreal Protocol (via the Kigali Amendment on HFCs) also cuts warming gases.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q98, final key
- Q98 Environment & Ecology
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) aims to address
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Answer B. Mitigation and adaptation strategies for climate change
NAPCC (2008) sets out eight national missions covering both mitigation (solar, energy efficiency) and adaptation (water, agriculture, Himalayan ecosystem).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q99, final key
- Q99 Environment & Ecology
What is the key characteristic of black carbon that accelerates global warming ?
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Answer B. It is a short-lived pollutant produced by incomplete combustion
Black carbon is soot from incomplete burning of fuels and biomass; it stays in the air only days to weeks but absorbs sunlight strongly and darkens snow and ice.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q100, final key
- Q100 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following countries is/are legally bound by the emissions reduction targets set by the Paris Agreement ?
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Answer D. None of these
Under the Paris Agreement each country sets its own Nationally Determined Contribution; the targets are not legally binding on any party, only the duty to prepare and report them is.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q101, final key
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46 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q101 Environment & Ecology
How many core missions are included in India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) ?
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Answer B. 8
NAPCC (2008) has eight national missions, including Solar, Enhanced Energy Efficiency, Sustainable Habitat, Water, Himalayan Ecosystem, Green India, Sustainable Agriculture and Strategic Knowledge.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q102, final key
- Q102 Environment & Ecology
The concept of sustainable development was first popularized by which report ?
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Answer C. Brundtland Commission Report 1987
'Our Common Future' (1987) by the Brundtland Commission defined sustainable development as meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q104, final key
- Q103 Environment & Ecology
What is a key goal of sustainable development ?
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Answer B. Ensuring social equity, economic growth and environmental protection
Sustainable development balances three goals together: social equity, economic growth and environmental protection.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q105, final key
- Q104 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is not one of the three pillars of sustainability ?
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Answer D. Political sustainability
The three pillars of sustainability are environmental, economic and social. Political sustainability is not one of them.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q106, final key
- Q105 Environment & Ecology
How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) has the United Nations established ?
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Answer A. 17
The 2030 Agenda adopted in 2015 has 17 SDGs with 169 targets.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q107, final key
- Q106 Science & Technology
Subject that is not associated with Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
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Answer A. Arogya Mitra
ABDM's building blocks include the Health ID (ABHA), Healthcare Professionals Registry, Health Facility Registry and a Sandbox for integration testing. Arogya Mitras are PM-JAY hospital help-desk staff, not an ABDM component.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q108, final key
- Q107 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following is true about the "Circular Economy" ?
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Answer B. It promotes the reuse, recycling and repair of materials to reduce waste
A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair and recycling, replacing the linear take-make-dispose model.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q109, final key
- Q108 Environment & Ecology
Which global summit led to the adoption of the "Agenda 21" and the "Rio Declaration" ?
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Answer B. Earth Summit 1992
The UN Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit), Rio de Janeiro 1992, adopted Agenda 21 and the Rio Declaration.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q110, final key
- Q109 Science & Technology
Which of the following public health campaigns was launched to improve sanitation in India ?
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Answer A. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (2014) targets sanitation and an open-defecation-free India. PM-JAY is health insurance and Mission Indradhanush is immunisation.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q111, final key
- Q110 Science & Technology
Ayushman Bharat primarily aims to provide healthcare coverage to which group ?
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Answer B. Rural and poor populations
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY gives up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year to poor and vulnerable families identified from SECC data, largely rural and poor households.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q112, final key
- Q111 Science & Technology
Which of the following factors contributed most to the burden of malnutrition in India ?
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Answer B. Poor dietary habits and food insecurity
Inadequate and poor-quality diets and household food insecurity are the main direct drivers of malnutrition; water and sanitation are contributing factors.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q113, final key
- Q112 Science & Technology
What is Digital arrest ?
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Answer D. Term used by cyber criminals to scare victims
'Digital arrest' is a cyber fraud: callers pose as police or agency officers on video calls and claim the victim is under arrest to extort money. No such legal arrest exists.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q114, final key
- Q113 Science & Technology
The mission of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is
a. Energy Security
b. Increase in the share of clean power
c. Energy availability and access
d. Energy affordability
e. Energy equity
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Answer C. All of the above
MNRE's stated mission covers energy security, a larger share of clean power, energy availability and access, energy affordability and energy equity, so all five apply.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q115, final key
- Q114 Science & Technology
India has the ______ largest installed wind power capacity in the world.
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Answer A. Fourth
India ranks fourth in installed wind power capacity, after China, the USA and Germany.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q116, final key
- Q115 Science & Technology
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) launchers have
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Answer A. One solid rocket motor stage, one earth storable liquid stage and one cryogenic stage
GSLV is a three-stage vehicle: a solid core first stage (with four liquid strap-ons), an earth-storable liquid second stage and a cryogenic upper stage.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q117, final key
- Q116 Science & Technology
BrahMos supersonic cruise missile is developed by the joint efforts of
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Answer B. India and Russia
BrahMos is built by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture of India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya; the name joins the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q118, final key
- Q117 Science & Technology
The terms 'Petya' and 'WannaCry' are related to
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Answer B. Ransomware
WannaCry (2017) and Petya/NotPetya are ransomware that encrypt files and demand payment for the key.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q119, final key
- Q118 Environment & Ecology
CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is also known as
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Answer C. Washington Convention
CITES was signed in Washington D.C. in 1973 and is therefore called the Washington Convention.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q120, final key
- Q119 Environment & Ecology
Which of the following chemicals was released in the Bhopal disaster of 1984 ?
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Answer B. Methyl-Isocyanate (MIC)
Methyl isocyanate leaked from the Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal on 2-3 December 1984.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q121, final key
- Q120 Environment & Ecology
Statement A : Natality refers to the birth of individuals in a population.
Statement B : Natality rate is expressed as the number of individuals produced per female per unit time.
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Answer A. Both statements A and B are true
Natality is the production of new individuals by birth, hatching or division. Its specific rate is commonly expressed as offspring produced per female per unit time.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q122, final key
- Q121 Environment & Ecology
How does In-situ bioremediation differ from ex-situ bioremediation ?
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Answer B. It treats contaminated material directly at the site
In-situ bioremediation treats soil or water where it lies; ex-situ methods dig up or pump out the material and treat it elsewhere.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q123, final key
- Q122 Environment & Ecology
Population density is generally expressed as
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Answer B. The number of individuals per unit area
Population density is the number of individuals per unit area (or per unit volume for aquatic organisms).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q124, final key
- Q123 Science & Technology
Disease transmitting vector is not a Mosquito for which disease ?
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Answer B. Leishmaniasis
Leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is spread by sandflies. Chikungunya and dengue are spread by Aedes and malaria by Anopheles mosquitoes.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q125, final key
- Q124 Environment & Ecology
What is a global issue associated with the trans-boundary movement of waste ?
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Answer C. Physical transfer of hazardous waste for reprocessing or storage
Trans-boundary movement of waste means shipping hazardous waste across borders, often to poorer countries, for reprocessing or disposal; the Basel Convention regulates it.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q126, final key
- Q125 Environment & Ecology
What can be considered a natural source of air pollution ?
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Answer C. Forest fires
Forest fires, volcanoes, dust storms and pollen are natural sources; factories, power plants and vehicles are man-made sources.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q127, final key
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21 questions to go. Take the rest with a timer and see your score.
Start free - Q126 Science & Technology
Autonomous institute under the Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
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Answer C. Centre for Innovative and Applied Bioprocessing
CIAB, Mohali is an autonomous institute of DBT. CFTRI (Mysuru), CGCRI (Kolkata) and CCMB (Hyderabad) are CSIR laboratories.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q128, final key
- Q127 Science & Technology
Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Emerging Technology) List – II (Scientist) a. Artificial Intelligence I. Kevin Ashton b. Open-AI II. Sam Altman c. Internet of Things (IoT) III. Thomas P. Caudell d. Augmented reality IV. Alan Turing Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
Alan Turing laid the foundations of AI, Sam Altman co-founded and heads OpenAI, Kevin Ashton coined 'Internet of Things' (1999) and Thomas Caudell coined 'augmented reality' (1990).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q129, final key
- Q128 Science & Technology
Radio Astronomy center is located in
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Answer D. Ooty
The Radio Astronomy Centre of TIFR-NCRA, with the Ooty Radio Telescope, is at Udhagamandalam (Ooty), Tamil Nadu.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q130, final key
- Q129 Science & Technology
Assertion (A) : DHRUVA is India's largest nuclear research reactor.
Reason (R) : Advanced Heavy Water Reactor envisages large scale utilization of plutonium bearing spent fuel.
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Answer C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Dhruva (100 MW, BARC) is India's largest research reactor. The AHWR is designed for large-scale use of thorium, the third stage of India's programme, not plutonium-bearing spent fuel, so R is wrong.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q131, final key
- Q130 Andhra Pradesh Economy
Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Solar Park) List – II (Capacity in MW) a. Hybrid Solar Wind Park Ramagiri I. 1000 b. Ananthapuram-I Solar Park II. 160 c. Kurnool Solar Park III. 1500 d. Ananthapuram-II Solar Park IV. 500 Show answerHide answer
Answer D. a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
Ramagiri hybrid park is 160 MW, Ananthapuram-I (NP Kunta) 1500 MW, Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park 1000 MW and Ananthapuram-II (Talaricheruvu) 500 MW.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q133, final key
- Q131 Science & Technology
Project that is not associated with International Solar Alliance (ISA).
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Answer D. KUSUM
PM-KUSUM is India's domestic scheme for solar pumps and farm solar plants. ISA runs ISTARC centres and the One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative and trains members with India's ITEC programme.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q134, final key
- Q132 Science & Technology
State which is the largest producer of wind energy in India
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Answer B. Gujarat
Gujarat overtook Tamil Nadu and now has the largest installed wind power capacity in India; Tamil Nadu is second.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q135, final key
- Q133 Environment & Ecology
Choose the correct statement.
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Answer B. Archea are a type of producers who use energy from chemical compounds
Some archaea are chemoautotrophs: they make food using energy from chemical compounds (e.g. at deep-sea vents). Aquatic producers are mainly phytoplankton, and heterotrophs cannot make their own food.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q136, final key
- Q134 Environment & Ecology
Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Biotic factor) List – II (Characteristic feature) a. Humans I. Recycling nutrients b. Saprotrophs II. Top order heterotrophs in food chain c. Reptiles III. Less urinating animal d. Camel IV. Stenothermal Show answerHide answer
Answer C. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Humans are top-order heterotrophs, saprotrophs (decomposers) recycle nutrients, reptiles tolerate only a narrow temperature range (stenothermal) and camels conserve water by urinating little.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q137, final key
- Q135 Physical & World Geography
Forests that are located in mid latitude areas between tropics and polar region
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Answer A. Temperate deciduous forests
Temperate deciduous forests grow in the mid-latitudes between the tropics and the polar regions, with trees that shed leaves in autumn. Coniferous (taiga) forests lie further poleward.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q138, final key
- Q136 Environment & Ecology
Assertion (A) : Grazing food chain begins with dead leaves via herbivores to carnivores.
Reason (R) : In grazing food chain autotrophs capture energy and transfer to herbivores.
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Answer D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
The grazing food chain starts with living green plants (autotrophs) that pass energy to herbivores; a chain that starts with dead leaves is the detritus food chain.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q139, final key
- Q137 Environment & Ecology
CR in IUCN red list refers to
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Answer D. Critically endangered
In the IUCN Red List, CR stands for Critically Endangered; EW is Extinct in the Wild and EN is Endangered.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q141, final key
- Q138 Environment & Ecology
State that produces highest solid waste in India
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Answer A. Maharashtra
CPCB annual reports on solid waste rules list Maharashtra as the largest generator of municipal solid waste (over 22,000 tonnes per day).
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q142, final key
- Q139 Environment & Ecology
Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Type of Solid Waste Management) List – II (Function) a. Incineration I. Conversion of recyclable waste to carbon based fuels b. Pyrolysis II. Process of burning waste c. Plasma gasification III. Exposing waste to extremely high temperature d. Composting IV. Process of decaying organic waste biologically Show answerHide answer
Answer B. a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
Incineration burns waste; pyrolysis heats waste without oxygen to make carbon-based fuels (oil, char, gas); plasma gasification uses extremely high plasma-torch temperatures; composting decomposes organic waste biologically.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q143, final key
- Q140 Environment & Ecology
Which of these is not a biodegradable waste ?
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Answer D. Tin
Tin is a metal and is not broken down by microbes. Vegetable peels, fruits and wool are natural organic materials that decompose.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q144, final key
- Q141 Environment & Ecology
Reason for the melting of Gangothri glaciers of Himalayas
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Answer A. Global warming
Gangotri glacier is retreating mainly because of rising temperatures from global warming. Greenhouse gases cause global warming, and dust (black carbon) adds to melting, but the key takes the direct cause.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q145, final key
- Q142 Environment & Ecology
Pollutant produced by vehicles that reduces the Oxygen carrying capacity of Blood
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Answer D. Carbon monoxide
Carbon monoxide binds haemoglobin about 200 times more strongly than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and cutting the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q146, final key
- Q143 Environment & Ecology
Assertion (A) : CFCs are greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change and increase UV radiation on earth.
Reason (R) : Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are man made gases used in refrigerators, air conditioners and aerosol sprays.
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Answer B. (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
CFCs are potent greenhouse gases and also destroy stratospheric ozone, letting more UV reach the earth. R is true but only says where CFCs come from, not why they have these effects.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q147, final key
- Q144 Environment & Ecology
Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
List – I (Pollution) List – II (Pollutant) a. Marble Cancer I. Methane b. Biomagnification II. Nickel c. Green house effect III. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide d. Lung cancer IV. Chlorohydrocarbons Show answerHide answer
Answer A. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Acid rain from SO2 and NO2 corrodes marble (marble cancer, e.g. Taj Mahal); chlorinated hydrocarbons like DDT biomagnify; methane is a greenhouse gas; nickel compounds are linked to lung cancer.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q148, final key
- Q145 Environment & Ecology
Choose the incorrect statement.
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Answer B. Deforestation is decreasing the amount of CO2
Deforestation removes carbon sinks and releases stored carbon, so it increases atmospheric CO2. The other three statements are true.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q149, final key
- Q146 Indian Society
Anganwadi worker is a functionary of which scheme ?
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Answer C. ICDS
Anganwadi workers run Anganwadi centres under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, now under Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0.
Source: APPSC Group 2 Mains Paper II 2025 (Notification 11/2023), Q150, final key
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